#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 24 of 1
nothing
look at (-a)^((p-1)/2) mod p
yep yep
since p is equal to 1 mod4 we have (-1)^((p-1)/2) = 1
if p is equal to 3 mod4, we have (-1)^((p-1)/2) = -1
i dont really understand the other argument above, is mine correct?
How one claim from the first one the second equality? and is my calculation correct or the same as above?
its not hard to calculate using the properties of legendre symbol
but idk how they argumented above
yes, im sure you can verify it yourself
i dont see an argument at all
its just a calculation
how does 45083 = 3 mod5 and 45083 = 3 mod8 imply (2/45083) (5/45083) = (-1)^2
i dont know why you are asking me 
i guess you can argue that (2/wtv) = (8/wtv)
then quadratic reciprocity
then i dunno
ask whoever wrote this
what is that pfp?
Ziltoid, the Omniscient
you should listen to it
this song has a reference to the proof of fermats last theorem: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9cAW900S6HE
Provided to YouTube by InsideOutMusic
Omnisdimensional Creator · Devin Townsend
Ziltoid the Omniscient
℗ 2010 Inside Out Music
Released on: 2007-05-18
Producer: Not Documented
Auto-generated by YouTube.
How can i find a characterization of this
$ (\frac{11}{p}) = (\frac{p}{11}) $ whenever $p = 1 mod4$ and $(-\frac{p}{11}) $whenever $p = 3 mod4$
Sentinel
i think your answer was correct but im having trobule calculating it
it seems you know quadratic reciprocity then?
you just have to divide into cases
so if p=1 mod 4, you just have to calculate when (p/11)=1
and for p=3 mod 4, you have to take the non-squares
yeah you could do that
or is there a easier way
Can you do some? im not so sure about it
i think the answer should be {1, 5, 7, 9, 17, 19, 25, 35, 37, 43}.
but idk how to calculate it fast
but one still needs to calculate higher numbers right?
the squares mod 11 are 1^2,2^2,3^3,...,10^2 mod 11
just calculate these numbers mod 11
we know that p is prime
idk what u mean exactly by that
but you only care about its residue mod 11 and 4
here they calculate one by one (i/11) for i=1, ... ,10
but i dont understand the answers in the right hand side
how do they conclude them directly
do you know about the Chinese remainder theorem?
yes
I'm not sure why you are having problems then. I'm sorry I couldn't help
For example can you explain the first one just
(2/11) = (-1)^((11^2-1)/8) = -1
its ok
but how do i find p = 35 mod 44 out of it
I think they are asusming p=1 mod 4. Then (11/p)=(p/11), and (p/11)=1 if and only if there exists an integer x such that x^2=p mod 11. That can happen if and only if p=1,4,9,5,3 mod 11
so so far so good
so we have several systems to solve with chinese remainder theo or how
for example for the system p=1 mod4 and p= 4 mod11 we have 1+4k = 4 mod11 implies 4k = 3 mod11 implies k = 9 mod 11
so k = 9+11l
and 1+4(9+11l) = 37+44l solves the system
hmmm therefore we have 37 for 4
But one needs to do it for each system or is there a simpler way?
yes, you have to solve each congruence
but this is fast, there are just 5 systems in total (and you know the rest of numbers mod 44 are non-residues)
they dont assume they calculate (i/11) and if its equal to 1 its quadrat and the case p = 1 mod4, if its equal to -1 its the case p=-1 mod 4
how do i know them mod 44?
i know them for mod 11
so there would be 10 system in my head
oh well yeah it's 10 if you also include the case p=3 mod 4
but this is very easy
just do what you did, you don't need to write stuff down
Hmm ok in this way i can do it
but the picture i send you was a little to short for me and i didnt understand the calculation behind it
thanks a lot
@wheat tinsel this is always true right? replacing 11 with q also
thanks
$ (\frac{q}{p}) = (\frac{p}{q}) $ whenever $p = 1 mod4$ and $(-\frac{p}{11}) $whenever $p = 3 mod4$
so this
no
Sentinel
$\Lg{p}{q}=\Lg{q}{p}$ whenever $p\equiv 1\Mod 4$, $p,q$ primes.
croqueta3385
when $p\equiv 3\Mod 4$ you can only say $\Lg{p}{q}=(-1)^{\frac{q-1}{2}}\Lg{q}{p}$
croqueta3385
in the case q=11 you get a minus sign
Sentinel
(I forgot to say that p,q should be odd primes, but I suppose you are aware already)
yep
also note that $-\Lg pq$ is not necessarily the same as $\Lg{-p}{q}$
odd primes means just not equal to 2 right
croqueta3385
its a bit funny that one always consider the case p=2 and say it explicitly every time
you can use the chinese remainder theorem, then euler phi on each factor (or one of the factors, the other one is trivial)
Yeah just need to find small k with 2^k = 2
I used ||2^(4k) = 1 (mod 5)||, then did the normal CRT calculation to conclude that ||2^(4k) = 6 (mod 10)||. Is there a quicker way?
Knowing ||2^5=32||
yeah, but how do you go from there to 2^744?
||Powers of two repeat with period 4. So 2^744=2^4 mod 10.||
You can do it formally with induction if you really want to
The fact that they ||repeat with period 4|| is the interesting part imo, and the part you have to actually prove. From potato's message it sounded like there was a trick, instead of having to spot the pattern and use induction
Okay, the hint is maybe find a small k different from 1 so you can ||figure out the period||, which I guess makes sense
And I think you can use some group theoretic argument to bypass the induction
Well once you know 2^4 = 2 it just is multiplying stuff, like you dont have to spot a pattern
Write $r_k$ to be remainder of dividing $bk$ by $a$.
Suppose $r_{k+T} = r_k + r_T$ for $1 \leq k, k+T \leq a-1$, where $T$ divides $a-1$.
What restriction does this set on $b/a$?
Absta
Experimentally, this seems to restrict a/b up to 3 continuant terms.
Well, it's not much of a pattern, but you do have to notice that it repeats with a period of 4. It sounds like you're thinking of it in a different way, can you explain your thought process?
yeah since you know it fails because 2=0 mod 2 that means you're effectively working mod 5. So it's really just 2^744 = 2^0 = 1 mod 5 so it really can only be 1 or 6 mod 10 and since it's even it's 6
in general you're gonna have this with odd n working mod 2n
maybe it's a bit too semi specific to really worry about really remembering
I see, that's basically what I did, except I spent more time going from 2^744=1 mod 5 to 2^744=6 mod 10
yeah, I figured as much lol
but I learned that when you go from mod 2 and mod n to mod 2n, you can just check two values instead of going through the CRT rigamarole, so that's nice to know 
silly question but if you have something like:
x = 2 (mod 8) then does that imply x = 2 (mod all factors of 8)?
looks like it works cuz it’s reverse crt?
whenever someone has a chance, i have this question. there is a little bit of background knowledge required for what they mean by "money order", i tried my best to provide a definition for what the author meant by that, and give the appropriate context, in my solution. let me know if it is still unclear.
here is my solution, it is a bit long-winded. my main concern is the second half of the problem, where we need to prove that an error gets detected, i approached it by cases and was wondering if they were valid. it could be a better problem for #proofs-and-logic , but it does require a little bit of modular arithmetic... appreciate you all, and all the help youve given so far
Mod all factors of 8? Yes. In general if you have x == y (mod ab) then x == y (mod a) and x == y (mod b).
You don't need the CRT to see this, try proving it directly. The CRT is a fairly complex fact, this is much easier to prove.
seems reasonable
Do you agree or disagree with bounding $a_i$ to the digits 0 through 9?
sorry it’s a long one
yeah, thats fine. They're decimal digits
not sure if i'm being dumb but does something like this work
x = abq + y and if you divide through by a then you have x/a = abq/a + y/a and so x = y (mod a)?
but this feels off 💀 😭 cuz well that whole definition doesn't require multiplicative inverses, correct?
Ok just noticed the #real-complex-analysis channel. Maybe this question is better suited for there
Try again.
do i need bezout for this?
oh lol do i just do x = y (mod ab) -> x = (ab)q + y then let bq be some other integer k so you have x = ak + y implying that x = y (mod a)
and well a similar argument for x = bt + y?
How to find numbers with exactly 3 divisors (1 and itself doesn't count) given an interval between n and m ?
Is there a theory to help with that?
What would the prime factorization of a number with exactly 3 5 divisors look like?
Given like for example 16
It would be 1*2⁴
Yes.
But I meant, how do the prime factorization of all numbers with exactl 4 divisors look like?
p^4 given that p is the prime number?
Yes.
So looking for numbers with exactly 5 divisors (3 nontrivial divisors) between n and m is the same as looking for primes between the fourth roots of n and m.
So I just need to keep with p^4 to find all numbers I desire
Ic
Thank you
Yep, or equivalently, x - y is a multiple of ab, and therefore a multiple of a and of b
Yup well done
nice thanks guys
hello
I'd like to find a general formula for k for example for 6k+1 = 0 mod(6n+1) or 6k-1 = 0 mod(6n+1).
Does anybody have an idea?
Guys, I have spent 12 hours on this question and can't figure it out
6k+1 = 0 mod 6n+1 means that 6k+1 is a multiple of 6n+1, so 6k+1=(6n+1)m. Now you can reduce this mod 6 and get that 1=m mod 6 so write m=6t+1 and you have 6k+1 = (1+6n)(1+6t) = 1 + 6(n+t)+36nt so you can subtract 1 and divide by 6 to get k = n+t+6nt. So now for any fixed n, you have a free parameter integer t that lets you go through all k.
try to see if you can work out a similar thing for the 6k-1 case
thank you so much 🙂
have you tried strong induction? assume
$\\exists x_0, y_0\in\mathbb{Z}, x_0U_n + y_0V_n = 1 \ \exists x_1, y_1\in\mathbb{Z}, x_1U_{n + 1} + y_1V_{n + 1}=1\\Rightarrow\\exists x_2, y_2\in\mathbb{Z}, x_2U_{n + 2} + y_2V_{n + 2}=1$
esca
(the base cases are easy to check)
Yes but it doesn't do anything for me
Or have you solved it?
Can someone give me more idea to this?
I’m aware about the crytographic applications, what specific number theory is used in speeding up numerical calculations?
we have k = n+t+6nt - is there a simple way to guarantee n<k - such that it's encoded in the equation and not just written on the side? I don't know how to put it but I think you get me
well you can just write t>0 instead next to it
given that you have to write t in Z next to it already, you can combine those to t in N
@west glade
well then write that on the side
if t>0 then k is automatically bigger than n. because k = n + (something > 0)
i have another infinite set of solutions in terms of n, k, t and infinitely many within them have t =0. I was asking "way to guarantee n<k - such that it's encoded in the equation and not just written on the side?" whether k>n on the side or t>0 on the side - i would want something st " it's encoded in the equation and not just written on the side"
@west glade
I dont know what original question you are trying to solve but there is no way to exclude k=n if the only equation you have is 6k+-1= 0 mod 6n+1. you will have to change the actual problem you are trying to solve and as we have no idea what that is we cant help you
five dollars says this is something to do with trying to prove the twin prime conjecture
I want to calculate a and n for given k such that
a^k ≡ 1 (mod n)
But
a^(k/2) !≡ 1 (mod n)
Where !≡ is "not congruent under modulo"
And k can always be represented as 2^p with p being natural number (excludes 0)
Sounds related to Pollard's rho algorithm, what's the relation
Never heard of it, what's that?
what have you tried?
it's a factorization algorithm, might not be directly related to your problem then. You have any other context around this problem since I would expect the solution to be more like a program or algorithm
156 = 84(676) +(- 438).130
so x0 = 676 and y0 = 130
But this doesn't match with the answer provided
I'm struggling with how to find the x0 and y0 when it's ax-by = c instead of ax+by = c
In the answer, x0 = 54 and y0=14
you can get infinitely many solutions using the fact that x=438 and y=84 make 84x-438y=0
so you can add integer multiples of this to your solution to get a different one
I have to see how they got to the other solution
I get confused if I should divide -438 by 84, or just 438 by 84
this textbook is evil lmao
easy version for you: find all triples of primes that differ by 2
I think I did this once
2,3,5
Or 5,7,11
I don't know if you're joking but they don't differ by 2
I meant both of niko's answer, though one was highlighted by discord, because they sent two separate messages.
So the only set is 3, 5, 7
Because in the other sets, at least one of them is divisible by 3
Proof: As we can express any integer as 3n, 3n+1, 3n+2. If the first one is 3n, it's automatically not a prime
If the first prime is 3n+1, then the next integer is (3n+3) which is not a prime
If the first prime is 3n+2, the next integers are (3n+4), (3n+6). 3n+6 is divisible by 3
what happens when a = 8 and bc = 8
8|8 is okay but 8|2 is not true?
I don't understand what you're claiming. The statement is:
If x == y (mod ab) then x == y (mod a)
So what counterexample do you claim to have? I see no c in this statement.
wait is this claim correct?
a|bc then a|b and a|c?
i think i'm conflating some stuffs
No, but that wasn’t the claim
Glad to have cleared that up
can you also tell me the "preconditions" for osmething like
a|bc implies a|b and a|c to hold?
not actually a question but since that came to mind
maybe i should clarify that too
oh makes sense
wait let me think aobut it first
at least that safeguards against my example above i guess
if a = 8 and bc = 8 then it doesn't work so eh a has to be prime
How can I show that the multiset ${ij \pmod{89} \vert i \in A, j \in B}$ is ${0,0,1,1,2,2, \cdots, 88,88}$ where $A={-15,-13,-11,-9, \dots, 9, 11, 13, 15}$ and $B={2^1, 2^2, 2^3, \dots, 2^{11}}$?
kappa
nvm i got it
i suppose this fits here. suppose $am+c\ell=g=\gcd(a,c)$. is there anything we can say about
$$\frac{bm+d\ell}\mod\frac{ad-bc}{g}$$
inconspicuous old man & mime
Compile Error! Click the
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inconspicuous old man & mime
Yes, depends on what you let yourself assume
It’s pretty quick if you assume the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
That every number has a unique prime factorisation
Yes
Hm, if I remember correctly, you wanna prove bezout’s lemma
Then Euclid’s lemma
Existence of prime factorisation is with induction
And then Euclid’s lemma gets you uniqueness
I forget if this is called bezout’s identity or not
To a large extent you can copy the usual proof that sqrt(2) is irrational, but just replace "even" with "divisible by p" and so forth.
Mhm yeah
Going by FTA leads to a somewhat slicker proof, but it takes more work to reach from a standing start.
namely use the assumption that gcd(a,b)=1 and gcd(a^2,b^2)=1 for a/b
:3
(you can prove gcd(a,b)=1 => gcd(a^2,b^2)=1 from bezouts lemma)
Yeah I think so
Yes.
how did you prove square root of 2 was irrational?
this step
you can essentially replace 2 with any prime and it'll still hold
minus the even part obviously
i.e. since a^2 and b^2 don't share any factors (gcd=1), it must be the case that a^2 has a factor of p
well, a,b don't share any factors right
do you agree with that? this is by definition of simplified fraction
so it would make sense for a^2 and b^2 not to share any factors too, as its just the same factors they already have, but multiplied to each other
yes
coprime=gcd of 1
this is where fundamental theorem of arithmetic would help
You have $pb^2 = a^2$ which implies $p$ divides $a^2$. Since $p$ is prime, $p$ also divides $a$, so we can write $a = kp$ for some $k$. Then we get $pb^2 = (kp)^2 = k^2 p^2 \implies b^2 = k^2 p$, and by the same reasoning $p$ must divide $b$. This is a contradiction, since we assumed $a$ and $b$ to be coprime
sheddow
substitute a = kp into pb² = a²
Also note that we can use Euclid's lemma to justify the step p divides a² implies p divides a
In algebra and number theory, Euclid's lemma is a lemma that captures a fundamental property of prime numbers:
For example, if p = 19, a = 133, b = 143, then ab = 133 × 143 = 19019, and since this is divisible by 19, the lemma implies that one or both of 133 or 143 must be as well. In fact, 133 = 19 × 7.
The lemma first appeared in Euclid's El...
Euclid's lemma is pretty well-known, so it should be enough to just refer to it, unless your professor says otherwise
you can prove in general that when c is not an integer root sqrt(c) is irrational
it's a great proof
it was on the ross application actually
with a great generalization
just FTA if you go the prime factorization route
if you go down the polynomial route
you only need the rational root theorem
which you probably learned in high school
fundamental theorem of arithmetic - unique factorization in Z
just look at the wikipedia
it'll explain better than I can rn ngl
I think it's worthwhile doing yourself
because the proof with polynomials is really really cool
look at the wikipedia page for RRT and see what you can conclude about the roots of monic polynomials
😔
start reading rosen!
pika
you only need unique prime factorization
What part did you not understand
Z[X] is the set of polynomials with integer coefficients
X^n has 1 as its coefficient such polynomias are called monic
does anyone know why multiplication (modulo n), is associative? i think it is because the elements being multipled together modulo n, are integers, and integer multiplication is associative. is this right or wrong?
Yes you can deduce it from the associativity of integer multiplication
thank you, i know it has to be proven, but i guess when you start unpacking, it boils down to integer multiplication
Mhm, and there are ways to prove that integer multiplication is associative too
yeah i am looking at a proof right now
it looks like in the proof, the multiplicative operation (modulo n), is sort of "extracted", and then you are dealing with integer multiplication
i say "extracted", because i cant think of a better way to describe it
maybe "applied" would be better
Extracted is a nice way to think about it
basically what i'm trying to say is, you go from $(a \times_{n} b) \times_{n} c$ to $((a \times_{n} b) \times c) \pmod n$
proofman
then you repeat this process until you get to the $\bZ$
proofman
at which point you can apply associativity
so, i'm studying abstract algebra, and then this came up
it really bothered me that i couldn't immediately get the results
but i had a feeling this was it, i just had to think about it
I think partially it’s the notation involved
I find that thinking of it in terms of function notation helps
do you ever get that feeling? you are studying an advanced concept, and then something simple comes along and you dont remember how it works?
Actually, I don’t often, but that’s because I’ve taken deliberate steps to avoid this
Namely, making lots and lots of flashcards
hmm this is interesting. like for what topics? and how do you go about making the flashcards?
Well, I used flashcards for essentially my entire math degree
im trying to think, how would a math flashcard work?
The software I use is Anki
i remember flashcards for studying foreign language only
It’s fairly straightforward to make flashcards for things like definitions and theorem statements
I also often make them for proofs or longer explanations
thats interesting, why did you do this? just to remember? or to pass an exam?
To remember, and to help me understand them
It also helped greatly for exams
when i had exams, i would do all problems again maybe 2-3 times until i could do them all without notes
Yeah, I would do practice problems too
Can one sidestep the prime number theorem to prove that the upper density of primes in N is 0?
Specifically, I would like to know if the presence of arbitrarily large gaps between primes can be leveraged to prove that
This is certainly not enough on its own
You can have a set with arbitrary large gaps but nonzero upper density
quick question: suppose that $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes... is it reasonable to say the following:
since $p$ is prime, $p + q$ does not divide $p$, and since $q$ is prime, $p + q$ does not divide $q$. thus, $p + q$ does not divide $pq$
proofman
to me, this looks like the contrapositive of Euclid's Lemma
Did you mean to say p does not divide p+q, and similarly for every other instance of divide?
No actually this follows from another larger problem i am working on, but i am focused on the number theory aspect
it doesn't make sense, since p+q is larger than p or q and will never divide them
If you allow integer primes, p=-2, q=3 is a counterexample but you probably don't mean that, else ^
proofman
that was my guess as to what the reason was, but I missed a very obvious thing, p + q > p and q
that sounds sketchy
can you elaborate?
p+q > p and q isn't enough to prove gcd(p+q,pq)=1
here is the FULL problem (if anyone is interested), and my attempted solution (which is wrong), i've already started working on a new solution, so you can just ignore that one
#groups-rings-fields message
gotcha
oh no, that wasn't the whole thing
there's more to it that i purposely left out
yeah then you're good if you're still working at it, I thought you meant that was "it" haha
no no no
so what we have are that $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes
proofman
somehow, the author concludes from this fact, that $\gcd (p + q, pq) = 1$... how is that possible?
proofman
way I see it is the only factors of pq are 1, p, q, and pq so we can focus on just p or q as dividing the gcd, so p or q would have to divide p+q
now since p|a and p|b implies p|(a+b) I take a=-p and b=p+q and have p|q which is a contradiction since they're distinct primes
can i just say:
suppose $\gcd (p + q, pq) > 1$, then $p$ divides $p$ and $p$ divides $q$, we have reached a contradiction since $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes?
proofman
how do you say p divides q though
i think im messing something up
this is not quite what i mean
if $\gcd (p + q, pq) > 1$, then without loss of generality, either $p$ or $q$ must divide $p + q$...
proofman
@torn escarp does the above make slightly more sense?
because $p$ or $q$ would have to be factors of $p + q$ in order to have a $\gcd > 1$
proofman
sure, but what if I tell you you're wrong and p divides p+q?
im not too sure that's possible
yeah, you need some kind of lemma or theorem to appeal to in order to assert that p can't divide p+q
I think p would have to be able to divide p and q for that to be true
that sounds reasonable, but I don't consider that to be proof
a similar sounding reasonable argument is 2 doesn't divide 3 or 5 so 2 doesn't divide 3+5 maybe
So basically what you are saying is that I need to look up what lemma this is?
well just this, I don't know if it has a name
This is just not clicking for me, my brain might be fried
I think I said it a bit tersely too, I can expand it out a bit
basically we would like p | p+q, so let's suppose it's true. Then because p| -p we have that p divides their sum, p | (-p + p+q) which is the same as p | q. This is false because p and q are distinct primes and primes by definition are only divisible by themselves and 1. So we just derived a contradiction, so our original assumption was false, so p does not divide p+q
Ok this makes sense, and then without loss of generality can we extend to q does not divide p + q?
yeah, p and q are symmetrical in how they appear so you're right, argument works wlog and you're done
Cool, still kicking myself for not getting that right away
i did another similar one on my own, wondering if someone can take a look... suppose p and q are distinct primes: @torn escarp
p^2 is also a factor of p^q
If I leave out the comment about the factors, does this proof work?
well why does p have to divide q^p. you still have to argue that
I guess I should say something more like, some factor of p^q must divide q^p instead, and then the only factors of p^q are powers of p, does something like that work?
depends on how you word the "something like that"
If a power of p were to divide q^p, then so would p?
Since p is a factor of p^n for some n
yes
Ok, so put everything together and it works?
the euclid lemma step of course depends on the version of euclids lemma you are using. but imo its fine enough
You mean like extended application versus just regular euclids lemma (the p divides ab )?
yes
if you just have the regular one you would need to apply it a few times to get down to p|q
Got it, thank you for taking your time to look at this, I do appreciate it
yw
Hi, I have a doubt in this sentence. Why if the average order of f(n) is a constant (in this case log2), this implies that f(n)=0 infinitely often??
What is the codomain of f?
Is it natural number valued?
Also how do they define average value?
f(n) denotes the number of representations of n as the sum of one or more primes
consecutive primes
Okay, so it is natural number valued
How do they define average value of a function from N to N?
Limit of averages on finite initial segments?
In any case, this ought to boil down to the fact that 0<log(2)<1
is the limit of $\frac{1}{x}\sum_{i=1}^{x}f(n)$
abcdef
Makes sense
n=1 sorry
Suppose the f was not 0 infinitely many times
Then there is an n_0 such that f(n)>=1 for all n>n_0, right?
right
Bequi
Which is equal to $\frac {n-n_0} n$
Bequi
What is the limit of this as n->oo?
1
thank you
so this happens when the average value is just a constant not depending by x
Well the average value of a function over N (by your definition) will always either be a constant or not exist
f(n)=0 infinitely often happens because of this in this case
for example, the average value of the couting divisor function $\tau(n)$ is log n
abcdef
Okay 2 things:\newline
- im not sure if thats true \newline
- im talking about the average value over $\mathbb{N}$. I.e $$\lim_{N \to \infty}\left(\frac{1}{N}\sum_{k=1}^{N}f(k)\right)$$
quicdoom
if I have a polynomial f in Z\Zp[x] and f(x) is a quadratic residue for every x, does that mean the polynomial is another polynomial squared?
what does Z\Zp[x] mean, I'm guessing you mean Z/pZ[x]? I suppose we need p != 2 too. Do you consider 0 to be a quadratic residue?
oh x^p-x =0 mod p and 1 is a QR so x^p - x + 1 is not even degree so isn't a square
I guess that's actually an artin schreier polynomial too, funny
Yeah I forgot the notation
And I'm not considering It a qr right now
Cool, thx
I think we can extend this result in a handful of fun ways too
like g(x) in the ideal (x^q-x) of F_q and a in F_q we'd have f(x)=g(x)-a always irreducible and of arbitrary degree so we can reason that it can be for any q or any power
so like instead of showing the squared case, we want to show the nth power case, pick a to be an nth power, then pick say, g(x) to be of degree qn+1 (just multiply x^q-x by x until the degree is good) and then we have a counterexample
sorry that's on me for loading up on jargon, for our case here it just means all multiples of x^q-x like x^3*(x^q-x)
oh yeah
I do wonder when I have the specific case of a polynomial of degree less than p-1
we might be able to work those out by a counting argument one way or the other
like cus if I can build a polynomial that achieves all the square roots and it's also degree less than p than I guess they will need to be the same cus the difference polynomial would need to have too many roots?
I mean, the square will be the same as the other
idk if I really want to solve this rn I was asking cus that idea would be extremely convenient for a specific problem I'm doing
I will say that's originally how I came across this, I was thinking that constants don't satisfy the condition, how could I turn them into ones that don't, so I added on 0 in the fancy say x^p-x
since 0 is not a QR, it means we necessarily must use irreducible polynomials
or wait I think I have that backwards nevermind
0 isn't a QR so it's not a problem, if it were then we'd have issues I think
I'm just waking up lol
happens
time zones are amazing cus I'm already in a tired afternoon and you're just waking up
I work evenings too so I wake up later yeah, very comfy
unless you have to work in normal weekends too than that'd be very unnice
I work four 10 hr shifts, so I have Sun, Mon, Tues off
cool
trying to lay out a counting argument to see if it works or not just going to post what I have so far since it's getting a bit bloated
There are ((p-1)/2)^p functions from Z/pZ to (Z/pZ*)^2
There are p^(p-2) polynomials of degree at most p-2
When we look at square polynomials of degree less than p-2, they must be at most degree p-3, so a square root would be degree n <= (p-3)/2.
There are p^((p-3)/2) polynomials of degree at most (p-3)/2 and since 0=-0 if we remove that, the rest break into two groups of +f(x) and -f(x) that square to make f(x)^2, so we have exactly
(p^((p-3)/2) + 1)/2 polynomials that square and remain degree <p-1
there's a slight mismatch to be fixed up since the number of functions from Z/pZ to Z/pZ is p^p which is a bijection with the number of polynomials of degree p-1, but since we're looking at degree p-2 we are throwing out the "almost constant" term x^{p-1}
I say almost constant because x^{p-1} = 1 for all values except 0 which is 0. In fact using that of the form k(x)=1-x^{p-1} gives us a function that's k(0)=1 and k(x)=0 for x != 1 so you can shift this around to prove the bijection
like lagrange interpolation if you've seen that before
damn
How can I show $|4^{3^n}-1|_3\downarrow 0$?
nHail
This is part of showing that 2^3^n converges in Q_3
euler's theorem will get it for you in this case
and you can use induction a bit more generally if you want to show a^{p^n} - w goes to 0 for w being a pth root of unity in Q_p and a having the same residue mod p
I should have recognized 2*3^n as the totient
yeah, also another trick is you could've used the lifting the exponent lemma if you happened to hear of that, not as common maybe
Looks like I need to review more ENT lemmas and such
yeah maybe a bit, personally I wouldn't stress too much, you'll sorta naturally get a better understanding of them as you get into p-adics I feel too and review as is necessary
Anyone got any ideas on how to determine if a natural number, n, can be expressed as a unique sum of positive powers of a positive integer k. For example if n =3 and k = 2, 3 = 2^0 + 2^1. Or if n = 11 and k = 10, so 11 = 10^0 + 10^1.
was wondering if there was a theorem or algorithm I could use.
If k is prime, that's easy. we can just use modular arithmetic i think, but the general case may not be as easy.
actually that's not true
should be true, another way to phrase this is you're proving that the base k expansion of a natural number is unique
hey can someone explain to me how the highlighted section works here?
I agree with everything up until that point, but I'm unable to see how they conclude.
Sure. But not every number will have that base k expansion.
So for context, I need to determine if a number, n, can expressed by $n = \sum_{i \in S} k^{i}$ for some $j \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}$ where $S \subset \mathbb{N}$
I need to code this, so I cna use loops and stuff. But I'm trying to find a way of doing this efficiently.
or even if anyone knows what the name of this number is that would be helpful
I see, then you can check if n % k == 1 or 0, then do floored division like n //= k and continue until you either get something not 0 or 1 or n becomes 0 and you're done
theaveragejoe6029
oh yeah. Good idea
why does the uniqueness of prime factorization imply this?
they're just trying to point out that because it's a multiple of (p-1)p^(k-1) and divides (p-1)p^k, and those two things differ by a single prime factor, that the it must be one of those two numbers.
On rsa, as 1^e mod 65537 =1, is it possible to recover the full message from the 1 or only the 1? I admit the message has no padding.
Please?
do you mean the ciphertext is 1? then the message is 1 also
If i know an element, can i uncipher all?
Oh i just read
Also we know for RSA that it has homomorphic property of multiplication.That means when a encrypted text is multiplied with another encrypted text , decryption of resulting value will yield something meaningful.
I was just curious
!elliptic curve meme
🍎 = 154476802108746166441951315019919837485664325669565431700026634898253202035277999
🍌 = 36875131794129999827197811565225474825492979968971970996283137471637224634055579
🍍 = 4373612677928697257861252602371390152816537558161613618621437993378423467772036
In this proof of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, is the "base case" n = 2 even needed? I would argue that every prime is a base case, since it's basically well-founded induction over the naturals with the divisibility relation. The case n = 2 is already established by the sentence "if n is prime, there is nothing to prove". But some people on wikipedia don't agree...
Hello. I would like to proove these 3 statements.
A)
Theorem: if a I b and b I c then a I c
Proof:
a divides b then b = a * x
b divides c thrn c = b * x
a \in b and b \in c -> a \in c
Then a divides c.
Is ot correct please?
Is 'a \in b' a typo? Also, b=ax and c=bx is not generally true, you should introduce a new variable for each. So b=ax and c=by.
What’s x here
Sorry didnt mean to add that after you sent i was already editing my message >,<
Wrong channel sorry
THIS IS A COMMAND BUILT INTO THE BOT?????
who wrote a command that prints out the answer to a random shitpost on command
The shitpost is common enough that we have a response to it
I mean, it’s good practice. Really, for most proofs by strong induction, a base case is not needed (since the claim is vacuously true, as it is here)
But a base case is a sanity check
I generally try like 3 base cases just to be completly sure
like n = 0 n = 1 are a must and then I just try n = 2 just in case
Yeah, but a sanity check is just something you do for yourself, as part of the discovery process. I'm not saying the base case n = 2 is unnecessary because it is trivial, I'm saying that when you do strong induction of the form (forall k∈ℕ, k < n => P(k)) => P(n), the base case is simply not needed, because < is a well-founded relation
Generally you want to show a base case so you can demonstrate that this induction is actually useful and valid. If you just assume it's true for k<n, without demonstrating that it actually true for some value, then it may not actually work for any thing (this implication holds on an empty set isn't often helpful). Going with the typical 'induction ladder' explanation: you should show you can actually get on the ladder, otherwise climbing it is irrelevant.
Sometimes that means you include a silly sentence like 'Look, 2 is prime.'
Example where induction without base case fails: n^2 + 5n + 1 is an even integer for all positive integers n. This can be proved with induction on n (without a base case). It's also never true and always odd.
But this precise form of strong induction does not need a base case (or rather, the base case is built into the inductive hypothesis) because < is a well founded relation. If you prove (forall k∈ℕ, k < n => P(k)) => P(n), then this implication need to hold for 0 in particular, in which case the premise is empty, and you're forced to prove P(0).
It's possible to reformulate the proof of FTA in a way that makes it more apparent that the base case is not needed: assume for sake of contradiction that there exist some numbers that cannot be written as a product of primes. Let n be the smallest such number. If n is prime, then we have a contradiction immediately. Otherwise n = ab for some a, b strictly between 1 and n. Since n is the smallest number that cannot be written as the product of primes, a and b can be written as the product of primes. But then we can write n as the product of primes since n = ab, so we get a contradiction. This is basically the same as the strong induction proof, but using the well-foundedness of < explicitly
you've reformulated your induction proof into a proof by contradiction. Which I agree, does not need a base case.
I think people are understandably hesitant to leave out the base case, and it doesn't hurt to include it. But it's just a bit redundant to say, first P(2) is true because 2 is prime, secondly P(n) is true when n is prime
Does there exist some work on wether every even number can be represented as a difference of two primes. Is there some work on this
Is there any way to quickly find largest prime factor of a number?
This is an open question https://t5k.org/notes/conjectures/
Another page about Prime Numbers and related topics.
There isn't a known quick way to do that
What’s the known efficent way?
General number field sieve, I believe
It is worth noting that many currently used forms of cryptography rely on people not having an efficient way to do this
I’m trying to do a project euler problem
This number is the 600851475143
I tried to do a naive approach, ie obtained the list of all the prime factors and find the max of the list
But it’s remarkably slow with this number
this is only 40 bits
shouldnt take too long to factor it
but in general this problem is very hard unless your number has a special structure
,w factor 600851475143
How does wolfram factor it?
we dont know
probably pollards rho algorithm though
You can see the cell is still running [* ]
I’m guessing my code should be very inefficent here
yes
depends on your model of computation
but probably no
it does O(n) many trial divisions
where n is the input number
for each i, it looks for i^2, i^3,…
but the input number has O(2^n) bits
I mean, if its divisible by 2, it will look for 4, then 8, so on until no factors are there
sure but the n = n/i then decreases the number logarithmically
yes
minor changes?
dunno if that will help much
your number has 40 bits
even if you do the obvious changes
I can find the smallest prime with in O(sqrt(n)) but not sure the larger one
you only need to check up to sqrt(n)
if you dont find a divisor up to that range, your number is prime
so if you "divide out" all primes up to sqrt(n), what you are left with is either 1 or a prime number
you can also alter the for loop to make 2 steps in every iteration
really checking the even numbers isnt worth
as there is only 1 even prime number which you can check in the beginning
the modulo operator (on fixed word size inputs) is constant time
but suffice it to say that wolframalpha uses a better algorithm lol
yes
Oh, it gave me an answer in the bash mode
It still doing something though
I think the resources could be limited for web mode.
I’ll try to do in sqrt(n)
The for loop runs all the way up to n. The fact that you divide n by i in the loop body does not affect the for loop, which is why it takes so long
Your approach is fine for this number, since the prime factors are tiny
Is this even true
For all primes p, there exist naturals a and b such that
a²+b²+p and a²+b²+2p both are perfect squares?
If not
Whats the thing similar to it which is true
minimum Difference between squares = 2n + 1
2 is prime.
Therefore, there exists no form with the prime 2 that you described, as it is too small to be the difference between squares, as 0->1 = 1, 1->2 = 3, 2->3= 5, etc. (2n+1)
so for the prime 3, 4 needs to be 2p, and 1 needs to be 1p+a^2... etc. but 4 is smaller than 2p, ignoring all the other stuff. So 3 also fails?
Pretty sure the entire thing is bogus
What the f is the commutator group?
I had that on my exam today and i didnt understand what it was
The subgroup generated by commutators
Commutators are elements of the form aba^-1b^-1
nikolipo
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I want to find a (not necessarily a smallest) primitive root of a prime number.
And the wikipedia page suggests there is no direct formula, hence I need to try and check.
And to get a primitive root of n, I need eulers totient function of n, and its prime factors.
Since it's a prime, the totient function part is easy, but prime factor will be difficult.
Is there an algorithm to find prime factors of approximately 1000 bit number?
nobody has factored the 862-bit number 22,112,825,529,529,666,435,281,085,255,026,230,927,612,089,502,470,015,394,413,748,319,128,822,941,402,001,986,512,729,726,569,746,599,085,900,330,031,400,051,170,742,204,560,859,276,357,953,757,185,954,298,838,958,709,229,238,491,006,703,034,124,620,545,784,566,413,664,540,684,214,361,293,017,694,020,846,391,065,875,914,794,251,435,144,458,199 yet, so in general no
but if it's a number that you found mostly at random, instead of a number constructed to be difficult to factor like this one (which has exactly two prime factors and they are both massive), then you probably have a better chance of finding at least some of the factors
Can we have an order of natural numbers that will be equal to any infinite countable ordinal?
Of course
By equal I assume you mean isomorphic
Yes
I've heared that you can't on quora, but it's probably quora, and it seemed weird so I've asked.
Also why does it work like that?
capital omega is first uncountable ordinal
What is phi?
It's not constructed to be difficult to factor.
For example simple brute force of 2 <= d < 2^16 did find some factors.
Or pollard rho algorithm managed to find 3 relatively large divisors. (Say, around 32bits)
Also it's in a form of 2^x - 1 (mersenne number but it's not a prime) - ignoring trailing zeros in binary since that's an easy factor, 2.
The special number field sieve is apparently efficient at factor mersenne numbers: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special_number_field_sieve
In number theory, a branch of mathematics, the special number field sieve (SNFS) is a special-purpose integer factorization algorithm. The general number field sieve (GNFS) was derived from it.
The special number field sieve is efficient for integers of the form re ± s, where r and s are small (for instance Mersenne numbers).
Heuristically, its ...
Interesting!! Ty
uh this is not what phi is btw
or
more accurately
its a restricition of phi
the full function phi is a binary function (in the arity sense)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Large_countable_ordinal#Predicative_definitions_and_the_Veblen_hierarchy
this is the full definition
In the mathematical discipline of set theory, there are many ways of describing specific countable ordinals. The smallest ones can be usefully and non-circularly expressed in terms of their Cantor normal forms. Beyond that, many ordinals of relevance to proof theory still have computable ordinal notations (see ordinal analysis). However, it is n...
it's from cantor's attic
https://neugierde.github.io/cantors-attic/Lower_attic
Climb into Cantor’s Attic, where you will find infinities large and small. We aim to provide a comprehensive resource of information about all notions of mathematical infinity.
basically has $\varphi(0,\beta)=\omega^\beta$;\
$\forall \alpha[\varphi(s(\alpha),\beta)]$ is the $\beta$-th ordinal (lets call it $\kappa$) such that $\varphi(\alpha,\kappa)=\kappa$
!Pymamba™
oh does seem like varphi function is different from psi
Also what does computable mean in simple words?
I mean how to easly describe it
Is this possible
id just have to say smth like 'able to do XYZ within a finite number of steps'
without any new techniques or idea all of it has to come purely from an algorithm
k
So in the case of Church–Kleene ordinal it means that we can't construct any order of natural numbers isomorphic to the ordinal?
uh thats beyond me lmao
youd have to ask someone in #foundations probably?
this whole convo seems more appropriate there so lets shift towards there
Sorry Im just a kid asking stuff, so I don't understand a lot lol
no access
go to #info
from there theres a button to give your self the role
also theres no problem with that lmao
Show that, If p is an odd prime, then there exist integers a, b, k such that a²+b²+1=kp and 0<k<p.
I believe this will be equivalent to whether -1 is a sum of two squares mod p
Are you familiar with modular arithmetic?
Hi, I'm taking number theory this year but I find it really difficult
Does anyone have any suggestions on how I should study it?
What do you find difficult?
Proofs? Computations?
Or concepts?
Proofs
Maybe try studying something like Hammond’s book of proof and just getting practice with basic proofs
It’s kind of a unhelpful response ik
But the way to get comfortable with proofs is to do a lot of them
Yes
Consider the function x² from Z/pZ to itself. Can you find the exact size of the image of this function?
Ok, thank you!
Our teacher doesn’t really teach us how to do it though, he just gives us a really easy example and lets us do a really hard one for homework
And doesn’t even expect us to get it 😭
If you do enough practice, then you’ll get it when he doesn’t expect you to :))
Thanks
This is a programming related question, related to something I'm trying to implement.
I want to perform modular exponentiation of arbitrary precision integers. I have arbitrary precision multiplication & addition available, however the modulo/remainder operator "%" is limited to 512 bit arguments.
The algorithm I have is:
function modular_exponentiation(base, exponent, modulus):
result = 1
base = base % modulus
while exponent > 0:
if (exponent % 2 == 1): # If the current bit is 1
result = (result * base) % modulus
exponent = exponent >> 1 # Shift right to process the next bit
base = (base * base) % modulus
return result
There must be some properties of modulo arithmetic that can be leveraged here. I know it's possible because RSA verification libraries exist which do this calculation with arbitrary bit length arguments. Can someone please help me? Thanks 🙂
I worked out an algorithm for arbitrary precision multiplication, by partitioning the input and carrying over the result with Dynamic Programming going from right to left in groups of 64 bytes (512 bits). This seems way harder though!
I think i have something figured out
Using Barrett Reduction
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barrett_reduction
So TLDR: the remainder can be calculated with multiplication instead of division, allowing my arbitrary precision multiplication function to be used to compute a mod b for a & b of any size
This is something that I haven't really thought about much in a long time, but if we create a bijection between $\mathbb{N}$ and $\mathbb{Z}^2$, we can then make a surjection from $\mathbb{Z}^2$ onto $\mathbb{Q}$ which is not injective.\
So you can have surjective mappings which aren't bijective between sets with infinite cardinalities; this is why to show countability we just need to show that there exists \textit{some} bijection between $\mathbb{N}$ and the set.\
This also shows a key difference between finite and infinite sets since finite sets have that they are surjective if and only if they are injective. (I most definitely learned this at one point, but I just haven't thought about it in a while.)
JJCUBER
And I guess another obvious example would be to map $\mathbb{Z}^2$ onto $\mathbb{Z}$ with $f(a,b) = a$
JJCUBER
f:{0,1}->{0} given by f(x)=0 is surjective but not injective
Ah wait I think I was talking about finite sets with the same cardinality at the end🤦♂️
Then it's true
Hello. I would like to find a and b in 16261 ×a + 85652 × b = 161.
What did i do wrong please?
The answer will be in negative
Is 53 and 10 good like 53×16261-10×8562?
Because it is currently wrong
If you know their gcd you can first divide them by the gcd to make the calculations mich easier
I am confused. Are 53 and 10 correct please?
do a = 53 and b = 10 satisfy 16261a + 85652b = 161?
No but in another order is it correct?
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
,rotate
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
Non of them provide 161
Could you just tell me what is wrong please?
You likely made an arithmetic error
Very interesting but where?
dunno
are you using a calculator?
By the way, if you accept negative remainders you can save a few steps. Instead of writing 16261 = 4347 * 3 + 3220, you can write 16261 = 4347 * 4 - 1127. Reducing the absolute value of the remainder leads to fewer steps, and less chance of making a mistake
Yes
Can i focus on my method?
Did this error occures before or after i get 10 and 53?
Hello. I would like to get the values a and b in a 16261 + B 85652 = GCD(16261, 85652 ) = 161 how can I do please?
You checked that 10 and 53 is incorrect, so clearly before
What I described is your method, except changing one coefficient by 1
thanks
I imagine the root issue is in the array
as the result 161 is good!
is the issue on the array or on the GCD please?
,rotate
The gcd is correct, gcd(16261, 85652) = 161. I'm not familiar with the array method, sorry
Could someone clarify what epsilon is please, is this a definition for it ∀x ∈ ℝ , x > ϵ ∧ ϵ > 0
Thanks
That looks Euclidean-y
Can we try to prove the theorem, that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4q+3$ other than the usual method of thinking about a number $4q_1q_2 \dots q_n -1$ where all $q_i$ are the finitely listed primes of form $4q+3$.
Like trying to think of some other number which is of some different form, say what if you start from $q_1q_2 \dots q_n +2$ or so on.
Sure we prefer to have +/- 1 which makes it easier for us, but can we in any case prove by taking a number like this?
NightBaron
Revisiting some stuff I haven't looked at in a long time; I wonder, in this definition, do they
a) demand that a_k is nonzero only for a finite number of negative indices k for the sum to converge?
b) why require a_k\neq B-1 for an infinite number of positive indices k?
the negative indices are the "digits" before the decimal. there should only be finitely many of those
the not B-1 condition rules out things like 0.99999999999...
ah ok, thanks 🙂 so in a proper expansion, the representation is unique?
yes
I think you can prove it in a way with mods, like think of the scenario when q is even, then you prove that 4q + 3 is -1 mod(6), and this is a known result that there are infinitely many primes of this form
dirichlets theorem proves there are infinitely many primes in any arithmetic progression (unless it's trivially impossible)
the statement is proved by analytic means
essentially by considering the sum 1/p in the set over all primes and showing it diverges
Wait how does that sum prove that statement, kinda curious
a finite sum can't diverge
Yea, primes are infinite
well, their reciprocals
But if you do that from the on-go, arent you automatically assuming that there are infinitely many primes of that form
no
How
i could ask you the same
considering some sum doesn't imply its infinite
i dont understand what you mean
I dont get your question, could you elaborate
what question 😵💫
This
how does that assume infinitely many primes of that form
if you sum the reciprocals of all the primes of that form
But implying there are infinitely many p of that form does indeed imply there are infinite p of that form
there is no such implication
Yea there is
you just sum them and notice it diverges
Like summing 1/(an+b)
you have some sum of the form $\sum_{p}\chi(p)1/p$
Lochverstärker
where chi is zero if its not of the required form
and go over all primes
chi is like an indicator function of the arithmetic progression
Isnt that just a mathematical representation of the statement, like i dont think its possible to prove infinitude just from that
it is
just show it diverges
if there are only finitely many primes of the form, this sum is finite...
the contrapositive proves the statement
Yea, but then you are back to like automation or in the bare case a sum over all prime reciprocals
Yea ik
Like how would you show it diverges from that sum, sorry if its a dumb question
yes, thats hard
Impossible*?
its a complex argument and requires a lot of complex analysis
its called dirichlets theorem on arithmetic progressions
there is an associated function called an L function
defined on the complex plane except some pole
and studying behavior at this pole gives the result
hard to get into more detail in a discord message
its not really elementary anymore, just wanted to mention it
(fwiw its not trivial to even show that the sum of the reciprocals of all the primes diverges, that was shown by euler and dirichlets proof builds on those ideas)
In proving $\operatorname{card}(\mathcal P(\mathbb N))=\operatorname{card}(\mathbb R)$, one can construct a surjection from $\mathcal P(\mathbb Z)$ to $\mathbb R$ by $g\left(A\right)=\log \left(\sum _{n\in A}2^{-n}\right)$ if $A$ is bounded below and $g(A)=0$ otherwise. \
I have doubts about whether or not $A\mapsto \sum _{n\in A}2^{-n}$ is well-defined or not. Call this map $f$. I recognize $f$ as the binary expansion of a real number, but it was some time ago I looked at this stuff. Basically I want to verify that for the pairs $(A,r_1)\in f$ and $(A,r_2)\in f$, we get $r_1=r_2$. How can I do this?
psie
Because the sum is ≤ the infinite geometric sum of 2^(-n) which famously converges, so this converges too. Then, use the fact that if a series (sum) converges, its limit is unique.
yes, I'm ok with convergence, I'm just worried about stuff like 1.000... and 0.999.... If there was a set that mapped to both of these, we'd still say it mapped to a single number, right? That is, 1.
if something maps to two things and those two things are the same thing, then it just maps to a single thing
I see. Well, I still do not quite see how we can be sure about that something maps to two things that are the same, i.e. could there be a set that maps to two things that are not the same?
Help me there is over 50 steps and i ignore wiche find is wrong!!! I am looking for a and b such as au+bv = gcd = 6
Edit even the gcd is wrong. It should be 43
🥲
Why are you calculating the GCD of 11 digit numbers by hand?
If it's not just for fun and is actually an assignment, lol, then this is literally torture. 🫣
Up there with calculating the Jordan normal form of a 7x7 matrix
exactly
absolutely the worst suff are:
1- the book exercice show me very big number!
2- the book is recommended by ... me for self learning
the fire = symbol of motivation or of burning in hell?
whichever you prefer
Are you trying to get better at arithmetic or at number theory?
number theory I imagine
the correct answer is arithmetic
trough it is calculation
if you want to get better at number theory, don't calculate the GCD of 11 digit numbers. That's arithmetic
A good exercise would be to write a program that calculates the gcd and coeffs for ax+by=1
use the digits 2,4,5 and 7 each once to create two prime numbers. What is the smallest possible product of two prime numbers created from these digits.
not possible right?
all the combinations are 3 mod 6 and thus can't be prime
am i misinterpreting?
what is meant by "create"
that's what the question states
idk either
i feel like you put the digits together
Lol
which can't work? Am i being dumb
well then you have to take either the 2 or 5 as a single number and then the other three with 7 at the end
and hope those three happen to form a prime
i'm confused, don't they say you have to use each digit once?
can i just take "2" as a single number
wait...
u mean 2 and a 3 digit prime number without 2, like that?
it is
except the obvious exceptions, yes
so it's 2 and 457?
the smallest possible product?
4 and 257 for example could work but uhm that's bigger than the product of 2 and 457
and 4 isnt prime
if we are interpreting the question correctly, yes
was our style of solving the problem correct?
sorry not correct i mean efficient
did you have to know primes mod 6 = +- 1
no
otherwise it would be a tedious case to test all sqrt(number), no?
you have to know that those random three digit numbers are prime
prime => +-1 mod 6 but the other direction is false
so that doesnt help
yep makes sense but we don't need the other direction right?
since we have the three digits to test and we just mod 6
well it seems like you are trying to use it
oh i was just using it for all the three digit numbers we had
testing mod 6 is just testing mod 2 and mod 3
i mod 6 and expect +- 1
yep
well but that doesnt tell you whether the number is actually prime
it just eliminates the most obvious numbers, those divisible by 2 or 3
ohhh so i have to do a bunch of calculations too right?
yes
,calc sqrt(457)
Result:
21.377558326432
tho tbf, the sqrt is like at most 25ish, so not too many primes to check
oh
okay so just 457/(primes < 21)
and so on right?
okay makes sense
yes
thanks 
I'm looking for a "nice" prime modulus
Which can represented by
a * 2^b ± 1
Where b is relatively large and a is small.
As an example, 2^61 - 1 is a mersenne prime and a is small; 1.
And for 2^n ± 1 modulus, we can take modulo of a product quickly in programs too.
But here is the problem, I need -1 to be a quadratic residue under that modulus (let's call p), and to do that p needs to be congruent to 1 mod 4.
And if I want to find p in a form of 2^n + 1, only a few has been found. up to n = 16. Which might not be enough size (preferably n should be close to 1 or 2 computer words, from 64 to 128 on most machines.)
you can drop the ± and just put + since for b relatively large (larger than 1 lol) it will reduce to ±1 mod 4 and because -1 = 3 mod 4 is not what you want.
For what purpose is this? 🤔
Erm... anyone knows more about what this "famous result" is
Shoenfield’s theorem I think
Oh, interesting 
the standard peano arithmetic are defined from sets which dont require choice
we do need the axiom of infinity for the successor to be closed
the standard von nuemann ordinal or church ordinal are defined entirely from the empty set
uh not church, church is pure function i think
whatever theyre equivalent
XD
wait wait wait
yes pa, but does your class not do well-ordering?
well ordering is equivalent to choice
thats my only issue with this statement
i guess you dont need well ordering to prove important results in number theory, but idk why you would handicap yourself like that unless youre doing constructive mathematics
yeah I'm quite sure that's like the only mention of choice in the course notes so it's just someone being pedantic or smth and not something we need to pay attention to 
i see
every heard that any subset of natural numbers has a least element?
this fact literally proves the axiom of choice
what in the logic
In mathematics, the well-ordering theorem, also known as Zermelo's theorem, states that every set can be well-ordered. A set X is well-ordered by a strict total order if every non-empty subset of X has a least element under the ordering. The well-ordering theorem together with Zorn's lemma are the most important mathematical statements that are ...
theres a proof here
I see
i mean almost everything in my number theory course could be proven directly or by induction anyways
even though we werent allowed to use induction, which was kinda silly
...no it doesn't, given that it's true in ZF as well
it proves that there's a choice function for N, but the universe has a lot more than just that in it
what this is saying is that, even if you use the axiom of choice for big complicated infinite objects, to construct things like a non-measurable subset of [0,1] or a well-ordering of P(R), as long as the result is about natural numbers, the entire proof can be done with no AC at all
yes, the statement that every set has some well-ordering is equivalent to choice
this is very very different from the statement that the usual < relation on the natural numbers is well-ordered
i see
oh that's a neat to put it
now the statement makes sense without me having to look at funny set theoretic logic stuff 
the basic idea of how you prove this is that you interpret the proof as being inside L, the "constructible universe"
so when the proof asks for a choice function on "the real numbers", all that you actually need to provide is a choice function for the real numbers that are in L, and it turns out you can explicitly write down a choice function on L
then at the end you observe that the natural numbers in L are just the natural numbers
the technical details of exactly how you construct L are, uh, complicated, but you can just treat this as a black box of "when dealing with natural numbers you don't need to worry about AC"
LOL i was confused here, wo of < on N is equivalent to induction, caused my mix up
Well-ordering theorem
Oh wait
Dead discussion, sorry
Does there exist any integer n > 1 such that
Riku
I tried to find a closed form of this sum and it doesn't seem like there is one
I also thought about showing the gcd of numerator and denominator of the sum to be 1 but I am unable to follow through the induction hypothesis
what does the exercice means with the part 3 of 12.A) please? It is just a question about english. not math.
It basically is telling you to divide the number g by y
How you implement that depends on your programming language, in some the operations are already there
euclidean division or floating number division please?
python but it is not an issue lol!
b = 444
def prog:
u = 1
g = a
y = b
if y == 0:
v = (g - a*u) / v
return (g,u,v)
#g / y ?```
The following phrase in that line you asked about clearly states it's Euclidean division.
g = qy + t
If it's python then
// operator returns quotient
% operator returns remainder. Store these in variables and repeat it through recursion. Should be faster
If anyone sees this, thank you. Any help is welcome
@meager reef in this case, what is the v ariable name for quotien and for remainder that are stated in the sentence?
Riku
Here we are dividing x by y
q is the quotient
r is the remainder
Remainder is always strictly less than y
The integers q and r here are unique for a pair (x,y).
So for your case, quotient is q and remainder is t, which you can see by directly compairing the sentence with the definition.
great! the the code should be:
a = 123
b = 444
def prog:
u = 1
g = a
y = b
if y == 0:
v = (g - a*u) / v
return (g,u,v)
r = g % y
t = g // y
?
Let $s$ be this sum $1 + 1/3 + ... + 1/(2n-1)$.
Let $l$ be the highest power of 3 among the denominators in this sum. It's easy to see that there is only one fraction that has this highest power of 3 in the denom.
If we multiply the sum by $3^l$, it will become 1 + sum of fractions, whose denominators are all not divisible by 3, and nominators are all divisible by 3.
So, when we bring all the fractions into the common denominator, the denominator will be not divisible by 3, and the nominator divisible by 3.
In other words, we'll have $3^l \cdot s = (3a)/b + 1$.
Rearrange a little bit
$(3^l \cdot s - 1)b = 3a$
Left side not divisible by 3, right side divisible by 3. Contradiction
🤗🤗
if you've seen the (similar) proof that $\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k}$ isn't an integer for $n>1$, this is basically derived from it
valley
Hello. Where is the soluce to this exercice from the book introduction to mathematical cryptography please?
Well.. just remember what is the definition of x=y (mod m)
don't post the same question in multiple channels
sorry I will not do it anymore
it is fir y divides m, there is a remainder x
then m = xy
no
Does the book give any definition?
probably I forgot to read a chapter can I tell you tomorrow please?
Ok ☺️💫
x≡y (mod m) means the remainder of x/m equals the remainder of y/m
why?
anyways it is still a useful heurisitc regardless
it depends on the algorithm you use for performing division
the choice of remainder is not unique
e.g. you could choose remainders in {0, 1, ..., m-1} but also {-m/2, ..., 0, ..., m/2}
well either way you would choose the same one for both divisions
fair enough
eh, there are implementations where you get wrong results
-1 not being equivalent to m-1
its a bit weird to say -1 divided by m is -1 with remainder m-1
well just because we arent as intuitively used to dividing negative numbers with remainders
In what "implementation" do you get a wrong result 🧐
some programming languages produce negative remainders on negative inputs and positive remainders on positive input
in general there is no correct choice when you pick a residue, so its better to "make all choices at once" and use the correct definition
I came across the question after the previous one, and I used a similar idea to solve it
How should I go about this problem? To give you some context the chapter is about Binomial Theorem when the previous one was about Induction. Do I need to expand the left side and then do some algebra to get the right one or what?
Well yes
try a combinatorial argument