#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 22 of 1
Does this follow from x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 0 mod 4?
yea
0 and 1 are the only squares mod 4
Ah
0^2 = 0
1^2 = 1
2^2 = 0
3^2 = 1
Yeah
Ok now for each of x, y, z instead of 89 possibilities we have 45
Still a lot
Perhaps we can do some more modding so we can reduce the possibilities?
it’s more like half of that btw
if you just solve it over the nonnegative integers the ones with negative numbers can be made from those
if (x,y,z) is a solution so is (-x,y,z) and (-x,y,-z) and such
and vice versa
Really? Somehow this doesn't feel right when looking at x + y + z = 78
o
The squaring we did was just in the => direction
i forgot the original question was not to solve x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 2036 lol
i think what i said is still ok though?
This?
like if we just want to find all solutions x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 2036
yea
they won’t all be solutions to the original system
but still ok to just look at this over the nonnegative integers
True, the solution set will be a superset of the one we're after (after also including (-x, y, z) and so on from (x, y, z))
So 23 possibilities for each of x, y, z
not sure of a way to do it other than brute force :(
you could take cases on one variable (say x) and then check if y^2 + z^2 = 2036 - x^2 has any solutions with that theorem that tells you when a number is representable by a sum of two squares but idk how efficient that would even be
and when there is a solution(s) idk a good way to find but there is probably a way
Well atleast it's reduced down to 23 possibilities, thanks! Perhaps there isn't a way other than brute-forcing, since no general formula for diophantine equations exists
there is a way to do this very quickly
ya but sums of squares are well studied
What is it?
snow 
by Vieta's, if
[ x + y + z = 78, \quad xy + yz + zx = 2024, \quad xyz = d, ]
then $x$, $y$, $z$ must be the integer roots of the polynomial
[ X^3 + 78X^2 + 2024X + d ]
making the substitution $X = Y - 26$, you arrive at
[ Y^3 - 4Y - 17472 + d = Y(Y - 2)(Y + 2) - 17472 + d = 0 ]
oh i used Z in my working
oops
quick inspection of Z(Z - 2)(Z + 2) tells you that in order for the cubic to even have 3 real roots, you require 17472 - d to be between -3 and 3
thats finitely many cases to check
How?
the cubic has turning points at 3 + a bit
Ah
Wait, why 3 + a bit? It's at -1 - a bit and 1 + a bit, no?
i meant the y-coordinate in that graph
Ah
the x-coordinate is quite irrelevant
Ok, so yeah, makes sense, 17472 - d needs to be between -3 and 3 because of that
Why?
because Y(Y - 2)(Y + 2) is
Ah
although i hope its visually obvious that d = 17472 is the only option
Yep
This is because we want integer solutions, right?
yes
Ok, so d = 17472 and now Y(Y-2)(Y+2) = 0, so Y = 0, Y = 2 and Y = -2
X = Y + 26 and so X = 26, 28, 24
And then we get Z from x + y + z = 78
Thank you!
Oh, X is from the polynomial
the roots of Y(Y - 2)(Y + 2) = X^3 + 78X^2 + 2024X are -x, -y, -z
Ah
so x = -26, y = -28, z = -24
oh thats
thonk
i messed up the signs
so the roots are -24, -26, -28
and so x, y, z are 24, 26, 28
Ah
But (24, 26, 28) is not the only triple that solves this
,w x + y + z = 78, xy + yz + xz = 2024 solve for integer
Ah
True, thanks a lot!
How did you think of substituting X = Y - 26, btw?
its just centralising the cubic
hi, can you have negative factors of a number?
like for 25, -5 and 5 could both be factors of 25 right? I'm guessing the "regular idea" of factors exist on Z?
so is (-5) = 5 like do we treat this as the same over a certain ring?
sorry i mightnot have the perfect description here cuz i haven't done any ring theory
-5 and 5 are so-called associate elements. you have -5=(-1)*5 and -1 is a so-called unit in the ring Z
which means that there exists an integer k with (-1)*k=1 (so k=-1)
in Z this is still relatively uninteresting cause you only have +-k, but in other rings more things can be associate to each other
so wait would you call them "negative factors" over Z then?
considering they're the same to an extent (lack of my precise vocab ig)
cuz each positive factor has its "negative factor" as its associate element
i'm just curious cuz how do you respond to a "total number of factors" question for example
generally you only care about positive factors
because negative factors just dont add anything meaningful
so going back to a perhaps trivial question
the total number of factors of 2^3 * 3^2 is 12 right?
instead of 24
because i've seen a solution manual which said 24 but like yeah i agree with this so i was confused why they did that
well it will always depend on who you ask
for these types of problems I would only consider positive factors but in the context of a ring theory class I might include all of them
cool, thanks
but then you would also often just say one of each set of associate elements
yeah i see a stackexchange response
and they say (5) = (-5) over a ring ig
so technically it'd still be 12 right?
if u consider each as one
but yeah okay i guess it depends on context
the () is special notation which means ideal
no idea what that is tbh
it doesnt itself say anything about 5 and -5 being equal
they both generate a set (the set of all multiples of 5)
ohh
and in ring theory these types of sets are important
and because they both generate the same one, it often makes no difference whether you look at 5 or -5
cause actually you are interested in the set
so wait then if they both generate the same elements
cuz both sets would have all multiples of 5
since we allow negative multiples
then why is negative multiples a thing then?
even there it'd be positive integers based on what we just mentioned right?
well a multiple of 5 is a number of the form 5*k where k is an integer. it doesnt say anything about k having to be positive or negative
these additional restrictions wouldnt make sense over other rings
and it would also make other stuff just way less nice tbh
I see, let me think about this
and if i have any questions i migth get back
Thanks for now
is the group of all numbers relatively prime to a less than a under multiplication isomorphic to the cyclic group of order phi(a)?
Usually not.
that's sad
you might look into the carmichael function a bit
also, is that thing that a² = 1 modb implying a = +- 1 modb also valid for b relatively prime to a or only b prime?
ty
ok probably not
damn it
I came up with this proof but can't finish because i can't prove c is a prime.. is there a way to do so or my proof is wrong..
Please ping me if you can help
It is the right path
As a hint let a=7^7^k
Then c = (a^7+1)/(a+1)
Im sorry but i can't get how this implies c is never a prime );
I tried binomial but its not working too..
it doesn't directly you have to do a lot of algebra
it's kinda a dumb problem
here is a full solution
uh weird question but is there a general way of knowing if the sum of two squares is a sum of three squares?
like a general classification like there is for pythagorean triples
I tried completing the square, difference of squares, modulo reduction but none of them worked..the best i got was that if a²+b²=x²+y²+z² then $$ x=2x_0 \vee 3x_0 \vee 4x_0 \vee 5x_0 \wedge y=2y_0 \vee... $$ and same with z.. which just increases the efficiency in hit and trial.. doesn't really help in generating a general way of solving it..
ideal_37
Hey can anyone see though them once...
Ask me if you don't get the writting.. i can write it once more(with clear handwriting) if its not readable..
,rccw
and yeah q=2 does not change anything..
If the proof is correct then part 2 and 3 should follow form case 1 and 2 respectively...
i.e. the new $S_1 \wedge S_2$ are not changed..
ideal_37
Ping me if you got something
what does the wedge do?
anyways I think I got a handle on the specific problem I was trying to solve cus I got a very restrictive inequality
I'm actually in a bit of negation rn cus I'm thinking "damn that's so obvious, why would that problem be considered hard?" after spending days to find this idea out
Adam
$ \wedge $ is used for "and"
$ \vee $ for "or"
Oh it's just the logical operator
Thought it was like an advanced operation
This is about how the number of steps can be reduced in Euclid's algorithm by taking $|r_{k+1}| < r_{k}/2$
Autumn
In the example they showed
12378 = 4.3054 + 162
3054 = 19.162 - 24
162 = 7.24 - 6,
24 = (-4)(-6)
I did it this way:
12378 = 4.3054 + 162
3054 = 162.9 + (-24)
162 = (-24).(-7) + (-6)
-24 = (-6).4 + 0
I was wondering why did they take 24 as a divisor instead of -24? Is there a rule to divide only the positive form of the remainder? And so they took it as a divisor? In the last step they take (-6) as a divisor instead of 6. I don't know when to take the positive or the negative
well they got 7, you got -7 as the quotient. so the signs just cancel anyway
often its just easier to think about positive numbers
Given $p,q,r,s$ integers such that $ps-rq \neq 0$ how do you count the number of solutions of
\begin{align}
z_1^p = z_2^r \
z_1^q = z_2^s
\end{align}
for $z_1,z_2$ complex numbers in the unit circle?
jfab
Ok I reduced the problem to
finding the number of solutions $(x,y)$ of residues $\bmod ps-rq$ such that
\begin{align*}
px &\equiv ry \bmod ps-rq \
qx &\equiv sy \bmod ps-rq
\end{align*}
Could someone help me with this :(
jfab
we're assuming pq,r,s are all integers?
raise (1) to the q power and you can make it in terms of just one variable by using (2). Then since it's nonzero divide through and you get (z_2)^{ps-rq}=1 and since it's algebraically closed you'd have to have exactly ps-rq solutions
hopefully I'm not being too reckless on that, I'm preoccupied atm but ping me if you have any questions
raise to the q power or multiply by q
raise to the power
no but wait
you get the two conditions
that $z_1,z_2$ are $ps-rq$ roots of unity
jfab
yeah I see what you mean
how do you conclude that $z_1$ is completely determined by $z_2$ is what I'm saying
jfab
what I did
I'm too busy at the moment but in a few hours I might be free
was expressed $z_1$ and $z_2$ as $ps-qr$ roots of unity
jfab
this
finding the number of solutions $(x,y)$ mod $ps-rq$ such that the system is satisfied
jfab
I'm pretty sure it works so I just have to count the number of solutions but I have no idea how. I noticed that the solutions form a subgroup but nothing else
so in particular the number of solutions must divide $(ps-rq)^2$. That's all I got
jfab
yeah no worries, thanks btw!
also when you say on the unit circle, you mean of finite order? might be possible to sneak in infinitely many solutions
mm what? I don't think so for example if p=3 , s=1 , q=r=0 you solve for z_1^3 = 1 and z_2 = 1 so you have 3 solutions
in general you might have infinite solutions if p,q,r,s are not integers no? but if they are integers since we saw that they have to be roots of unity
then you have at most finitely many pairs to choose from
good point
Can someone help me following this last part?
I'm not quite sure what fact is being used...
(n-1) choose (k-1) is an integer and gcd(n,k)=1, so when you multiply n/k on it and it remains an integer, that means the 1/k factor must have been "absorbed" by (n-1) choose (k-1), and so the n remains unscathed
Ahh that's a really nice way of putting it
I need help with number theory. I'm trying to figure out how to prove Law of Quadratic Reciprocity by assuming the truth of the following conjecture:
But I can't tell if the part of the question (not shown) that tells me to prove quadratic reciprocity might actually be a typo, and instead wants me to prove this conjecture using the law of quadratic reciprocity. Does anyone know if it is possible to prove the Law of Quadratic Reciprocity from the above conjecture alone + Legendre symbol manipulation? Thanks.
And if anyone has suggestions for how to proceed in this proof, that'd be great
Actually I might have figured this one out...let's see will delete this if so
let f be a polynomial with integer coefficients in k variables such that only single-variable terms have a nonzero coefficient, for example x^2 + 3x, 2x^3 - y^2, but for example NOT x^2 + xy.
I've noticed that I can find reducible polynomials of this form for k =1 (obviously) and k = 2 (such as a difference of squares, and some other identities), but I've been completely unable to find any such polynomial for k > 2, I tried a limited brute force search and all of the polynomials I tried were irreducible.
is there some easy argument to show that none exist? rewriting it as a system of diophantine equations, heuristically it seems improbable that one would exist but perhaps there is some crazy counterexample
Is there any particular reason why you're working with integer coefficients here?
I want to be able to study these polynomials modulo an integer
interesting question, I feel like there should be a nice answer to this
you probably already know this, but without loss of generality you can use rational coefficients without causing issues, since you can always multiply through to make integers
We're basically quotienting by the ideal generated by the set of all pairwise products of variables here right?
are we?
This just came to mind lol, and I'm too sleep deprived to verify whether this is right myself
maybe, idk I'm about to head to bed soon too lol
Lmao
I found a relevant paper
1102706460.pdf
nice find! that seems to answer exactly my question if I'm reading it right, there are no counterexamples. pretty cool
I had a doubt in one of the statements made here.
For reference, by the formula of $a^{m}$, they mean
$$a^m = p_{1}^{me_1}p_{2}^{me_2}\dots p_{k}^{me_k}$$
which is basically prime-power factorisation of a raised to the power m.
Here in the proof, they say that the product $a_1a_2\dots a_r$ is an mth power, which implies this product equals some $t^m$ ryt? and then as t has its prime power factorisation, each prime in t will have its exponent divisible by m, and so any $a_i$ will have some of those prime $p_i$ with the complete exponents of the $p_i$ 's with it.
The thing is that in the proof, they took the product $a_1a_2\dots a_r$ as a, they did say that a is an $m^{th}$ power but taking it as just a caused confusion earlier, here too they mean that a is some $t^m$ ryt?
NightBaron
Good day. How can I solve simultaneous congruences if the moduli are not relatively prime?
prime factorize the moduli
how to proof that 2 groups are not isomorph?
like
the four group of klein and Z_4
(im to lazy to make the cayley table)
generally what you do to prove any two things aren't isomorphic is find a property that one has and the other doesn't
in the case of groups of order 4, one of them has an element of order 4 and the other doesn't
what are properties i could use for this apart from the orders of elements?
abelic would work i guess and uh what else?
well obviously there's the order of the entire group
but also like, any property, like you can look at properties of normal subgroups or something, or the size of the centre of the group, or...
alrighty
can ou tell me what the group $S^1$ is?
you_are_me
...not without further context
let me take a picture
Here
for the permutation group we use a different notation so it isnt that one
bee [it/its]
with the operation of multiplication
alright thanks big man
yo ok so there is a vague explanation of an inverse of a rest class in a certain ring
$[2]{2001}$ has as inverse $[1001]{2001}$ right? cuz $[2x1001]{2001}=[1]{2001}$
or am i completely misunderstanding this?
you_are_me
the x is a multiplication sign
bee [it/its]
oh ye i forgot how to get the dot lol thanks for telling me that too
how do you calculate $3^{302} mod 101$?
you_are_me
there are like lots of theorems here but i dont understand
like wtf is the euler function and stuff
idk im so confused
You should read Euler's theorem and come back to this question. In general it's a good idea to look at the content surrounding a question if you don't know how to tackle it.
hi, i need a reference for introductory nonlinear diophantines
any pdfs or lecture notes?
Square and multiply would be a nice way. Split up the powers and reduce mod 101 on the way
————————————
„Determine a primitive root mod 17 and use it to find all solutions to x^4 === 1 mod 17.“
I got a primitive root 3 of 17 but I don't know how this should help me with this congruemce..😅
if $a$ has order $k$ mod $n,$ then $a^h$ has order $\dfrac{k}{\gcd(h,k)}$
elrichardo1337
you know your primitive root has order 16, how can we finish?
Maybe split up the ^16 into two ^4's?
if $x^4\equiv 1\pmod{17}$ what can you say about the order of x?
elrichardo1337
You can write this as
\begin{align*}3^{302} \pmod{101} &\equiv 3^{100} \cdot 3^{100} \cdot 3^{100} \cdot 3^2 \pmod{101}\
&\equiv 3^{100}\pmod{101} \cdot 3^{100}\pmod{101} \cdot 3^{100}\pmod{101} \cdot 3^2\pmod{101}\end{align*}
From Fermat's little theorem you know that $3^{100} \pmod{101}$ is just $1$, while $3^2 \pmod{101}$ is 9, you get
$$1 \cdot 1 \cdot 1 \cdot 9 \equiv 9 \pmod{101}$$
Rubix
max val for order would be 4?
so order <= 4
But how does the order contribute finding the concrete x's?
and where does this formula come from?
incorrect, the order of x must divide 4
so the order of x is 1, 2, or 4
Okey
or, using this result, we need gcd(h,16)=16, which obviously only occurs when h=16
(we take a to be our primitive root, 3)
if the order is 2, then we need gcd(h,16)=8
that is, h=8 and x=3^8=-1=15 mod 16
if the order is 4, then gcd(h,16)=4, so h=4 or h=12
and x=3^4 or x=3^12
that is, we have expressed all the solutions in terms of one primitive root
So those 3 would be the only possible values for x, as their order divides 4?
ord(3^4)=4
ord(3^8)=2
ord(3^16)=1
hi this might be trivial, but can someone explain how this shows that (p - 1) | (n - 1)
we know n is carmichael and that p | n
Ah i se.. but how should I come to check ^12 in particular? Is it just trying out until i got 4 solutions?
I showed the method above, read back
yes, but it's just some brute-forcing for the different powers of 3?
no
for small moduli like 17 this casework approach doesn't take long at all
One last question 😅 : why do I know, that for powers of one primitive root I already get one solution?
I could search for another primitive root and do the same.. couldnt I?
Or is it, because this polynomial can only have exactly 4 solutions?
you can take any primitive root and generate all the solutions
fundamentally it's bc of how the orders work
huh
This is partially true
It has at most 4 solutions
so as soon as i got 4.. i can stop
In number theory, Lagrange's theorem is a statement named after Joseph-Louis Lagrange about how frequently a polynomial over the integers may evaluate to a multiple of a fixed prime. More precisely, it states that if p is a prime number,
x
∈
Z
/
p
...
it's just about finding 4
Yes
Wait, is every element of $Z^X_{13},\cdot$ a generator?
you_are_me
nvm i made a big oopsie
In general, a cyclic group has this property (that every nontrivial element is a generator) iff it has prime order or order 1. Noting the group of units mod 13 has 12 elements, this is impossible. In fact the only primes for which this works are 2 and 3.
you are thinking of Z_13. but Z_13^x is the group of units mod 13, which has 12 elements
bjshnog
I just found 2+2 guys!
Ideally, this would be in english and this goes in #linear-algebra anyway
ζ(−k) = −Bk+1/k + 1
is this true
doesn't contain a proof
that's a different question than this
im extending the question
you'll have to learn some calculus and google a bit to find a suitable resource probably
bruh you sure only calculus will suffice
I've walked through a proof of it myself
mind posting?
idk, some analytic number theory book
dang
{s*t: s, t in S}
thanks
Let $p_1,...,p_n$ be all different uneven prime numbers and let $a=p_1 \cdot ... \cdot p_n$. Proof that for every $b \in Z$ with greatest common denominator of $a$ and $b$ equal to 1 the equation:
$$x^2= b ; \text{mod} ; a$$
Always has 0 or $2^n$ solutions in ${ 0,...,a-1 }$
you_are_me
they use chinese remainder theorem which i understand
and then they say so we just have to proof that every equation has 2 solutions
and then we get 2^n solutions
but i dont understand that argument
OOOH WAIT I GET IT I THINK
nope i still dont get it
what don't you get?
so i have to proof that the equation x²=b mod a has 2^n solutions or zero but im stuck on the 2^n part so like i got until the system using the chinese remainder theorem and then they say now it is enough to proof that each of these equations has 2 solution and thats where they lost me
suppose we know that each of those equations has 2 solutions
i dont get it like if one of those equations has 2 solutions then that doesnt mean that that solution is of the original equation right?
they do i get how they proof that i dont get how tha fact that each equation having 2 solutions will result in 2^n solutions
then for each of the equations we can pick one solution
each possible way of picking the n solutions gives rise to a system of congruences that has exactly 1 solution (by crt)
there are 2^n possible ways to pick the n solutions, hence 2^n solutions
huh but you pick an x?
and then try to find a solution of that system?
but x is supposed to be a solution to everything?
im soooo confused
we pick the x (mod p_i)
still dont get it
this is the rest of the solution btw
i give up imma do something else
Can someone help me with Solovay-Strassen test?
I computed the first term mod 31 but I don't know how to calculate JAcobi symbol (2/31) wouldn't i need to know that 31 is prime to use anything of the quadratic reciprocity law?
basically any solution (a_1 mod p_1,a_2 mod p_2,...a_n mod p_n) that satisfies that is going to satisfy x^2=b as well this holds in converse direction as well
2 ways to choose each a_i
standard high school combi says 2^i ways to set (a_1 mod p_1,a_2 mod p_2,....,a_n mod p_n)
I don't understand how this is a complete proof. It's not enough to show that each congruence has two solutions, you must also show that each solution mod p_i gives rise to a different solution mod a. For example, take p_1 = 5, p_2 = 7 and b = 4; then x = 2 is a solution both mod 5 and mod 7, but somehow they give rise to different solutions mod 35
nvm, I got it
How exactly did you use it? And where are you stuck?
.
yooo the last two digits of 76^n always seem to be 76
is this true? how does one prove this?
Notice 76^2 = 76 (mod 100) and it follows from induction
oohhh damn! nice
By the same reasoning this occurs for all a with a^2 = a, called idempotents, and since Z/100 = Z/4 x ZA/25 and neither of these rings has any nontrivial idempotents, the idempotents of Z/100 are precisely stuff which is 1 or 0 mod 25 and 1 or 0 mod 4 which gives us only 0,1, 76, 25
(indeed 25^2 = 625)
So I guess 76 is kinda special in that respect, nicely observed
This method will then generalise to any n instead of 100 ofc
<@&268886789983436800>
Proof: $$(l+m)+n=l+(m+n)\hspace{.5cm} \forall l,m,n \mathbb{N}$$
Using induction over m:
Start: m=0
$$(l+0)+n=l+n=l+(0+n)$$
Assume:
$$\exists m \in \mathbb{N}:(l+m)+n=l+(m+n)$$
Step:m+1=m*
$$(l+m^)=(l^+m)+n$$ (Definition)\
I dont get this step and the following one.
$$=l^+(n+m)$$
$$=l+(m+n)^$$
$$=l+(m+n^)$$
$$=l+(m^+n)$$
Benschko
$$(l+m^)+n=(l^+m)+n$$ (Definition)\
$$=l^+(n+m)$$
$$=l+(m+n)^$$
$$=l+(m+n^)$$
$$=l+(m^+n)$$
Since you defined $m^* = 1+m$, similarly $l^* = 1+l$ so you can replace $ l^*$with its value and you get
$$l+(m+n)+1 $$
If you add it to the bracket it becomes
$$l+(m+n+1) = l+(m+n)^$$
Or you can add 1 to either of the two in which case it would be
$$l+(m^+n) $$
Taaha_Tariq
I may have changed the terms but you get the idea. Right?
What are some generally useful ways for solving diophantine equations?
Factoring, modular arithmetic, bounding, thinking about prime factorisations, infinite descent and in general recursive constructions
Diophantine equations are usually very unique though and there isn't a general way to solve them
You just have to try a lot of things until something sticks
9696996 and 6661661161 are perfect square numbers
Take the equation mod 3
Thanks a lot
solve in integers?
for 25 you can use the same type of trick Daniel showed you
show your attempt to solve these
what contradiction did you show
For (example 25) ı take mod 4 so x²=2 (mod 4 ) but x² can be only 0 or 1 so ıt cant be 2 for mod4 so its condradiction
İs it correct
@torn escarp
yup
Thanks for help bro👑
- For how many integers n; n3 + 4 number
divisible by n2-n+1
!showwork
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
sorry ı understood
Can someone help me solving it?
i have a solution but this channel is too small to contain it
😔

I write in book margins imagining I'm Fermat
easy stuff
For how many different values of the integer d, each of which is divisible by d and whose sum is 999? How can 49 positive integers be found?
this doesn't quite make sense
what are you summing, divisors of d including d itself?
And if someonre prove it send me pls
so for d=1 you have 998+1, 997+2, 996+3, ... right
No for example 1+1+1.....48 piece and the last piece951
İt can be
But its for d=1
How many d can we find
Bro i look for on internet and its fermats last theorem and ı found a pdf
I don't understand what you're doing at all
Think of a number d, we will choose 49 numbers that can be divided by d number and their sum will be 999.
Maybe its more clear
İf not its not an important
I see
stars and bars gives you a solution to the d=1 case, and it looks like it can be fixed up a little when d|999 (which is necessary) to make it work for the other cases
if you're not familiar with stars and bars, I'd suggest you learn that first and solve the d=1 case
But the best option we can choose is 8
I think only 1 and 3
What about you
So 2 numbers
oh you don't actually care about counting the number of ways of doing this?
just if it's possible for at least one way?
I care but ı don find anything so ı asked this channel
1, 3, and 9 will all be possible since 999/9 = 111 can be cut into 49 pieces
since 999=3^3*37 and 999/37=27 < 49 you can't do anything else there
Oh yes correct
like I said, I just gave you a solution above, stars and bars
And can ı ask one more question
you should probably work the solutions out to this first before moving onto another problem
Okey thanks again
let me know what you get, and show your work
if we know nonnegative integers a,b exist such that
N=2^a-3^b
then is there a simple way to find them?
say 1909 for example
you can probably get some information with modular arithmetic
like if we look at it mod 4, 2^a vanishes, so it's just -(3^b) = 1909 = 1, 3^b = 3, so b = 1 mod 2
N = 2^a - 3 * 9^b
now look at it mod 9, 2^a = 1, so a = 0 mod 6
N = 64^a - 3 * 9^b
mod 64, -3*9^b = 53, 9^b = 25, ...ok yeah maybe this isn't the best approach, discrete logarithm is actually pretty hard
I don't think this is technically the discrete logarithm problem because you can use the p-adic logarithm to solve it, which is a bit simpler since it boils down to the same series as you'd use in R, but with convergence in Q_p
well I use "solve" loosely here lol
the main point is you can arbitrarily gain further exponents in either the 2 or 3 -adics with a simple algorithm
the same way as hensel lifting, to help make it clear the distinction between this and the discrete log
thanks for your help. now i got it!
oh right yes of course, the fact that it's mod a power of a prime does make it easier doesn't it
I doubt this is the most efficient way to solve this but I wrote a little gp program demonstrating a way to brute force it:
a=100; b=0; L=1/log(2+O(3^100)); for(B=0,100, A=lift(log(1909+3^B+O(3^100))*L); if(A<a,a=A;b=B)); printf("%d %d\n",a,b)
this outputs a, b in a few milliseconds as:
12 7
basically I'm approximating up to 100 digits in the 3-adics and then returns the approximation as an integer. The smallest integer is considered to be the likely solution since generically you expect the log to output an irrational number so won't truncate
this is kinda lame tbh relative to just regular brute force checking
Hey I'm looking at congruences and trying to understand how fractions work with respect to that, my goal is to say
$ \frac{a}{b} \equiv a b ^{-1} \pmod{ n}$
so far I know that we must have $ b \mid a $, is the only other necessary condition that $b$ has an inverse mod $n$ ?
cuppajoeman
Suppose that $n = 7$ and $a = 3, b = 4$, in this case can we write
$$ 3 (4)^{-1} = \frac{3}{4} \pmod{ 7} $$
or is that wrong because $\frac{3}{4}$ is a rational?
cuppajoeman
meant (equivalent not equal in the above)
yes it is incorrect we are working in the integers mod 7 not the reals or rationals
But in general the notation 1/4 represents the multiplicative inverse of 4, in whatever system right, so isn't that technically correct?
Like it's technically correct, but incredibly confusing, or is it actually wrong...
yes
i'd say you should clarify what it means if you were going to use that notation
but if you do clarify it then i don't really see a problem with it?
to be sure, it's a non-standard notation though?
yes
...well, depends on the context somewhat
i can imagine seeing division used to mean multiplicative inverse mod n if it's explicitly in the context of like, working in the ring (in the abstract algebra sense) Z/nZ
wait so are you trying to say that 0.75 is 3(4)^-1 mod 7?
or is it just the notation you're reffering to?
The reason why I ask, is because sometimes we do stuff like this:
$$3 * 4 \equiv 10 * 4 \pmod{ 7 } $$
and then we can do:
$$ \frac{3 * 4} {4} \equiv \frac{10 * 4}{4} \pmod { 7 }$$
so that
$${3 \equiv 10 \pmod{7}$$
cuppajoeman
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
no just the notation
So my question is that these steps are acutally wrong right?
There's no intermediary "fraction step" it just goes from the first line to the last right
no these steps are correct
yeah that's correct
writing it as "/ 4" is somewhat unusual but there's nothing mathematically wrong here
Assuming we are using the notation right?
it's just another way to write "multiply both sides by 4^-1"
mod 7 is a finite field btw
No , the cancellation happened, inside of Q, not inside of the modular system
That's why I'm saying it's a problem
(you do have to check that 4^-1 actually exists but that's a thing with algebra over the reals too, it's the equivalent of "can't divide by 0" except in this case 7 = 0 etc.)
ok if that's what you intended then that sounds like it is just wrong
because it has to fail when you try to divide by something that doesn't have an inverse
$0 \cdot 7 \equiv 1 \cdot 7 \pmod 7$ \ \ $\frac{0 \cdot 7}7 \equiv \frac{1 \cdot 7}7 \pmod 7$ \ \ $0 \equiv 1 \pmod 7$
bee [it/its]
if "0 * 7 / 7" is interpreted in Z/7Z, then it's an invalid division by zero
if "0 * 7 / 7" is interpreted in Q, then the issue is that two integers that are equal mod 7 might not be equal as rationals
or if you try to say they're "equal as rationals mod 7" then the issue is that that equivalence relation doesn't respect the operations on Q (namely dividing by 7)
So I think the answer to my question is that $$a b^-1 \equiv \frac{a}{b} \pmod{n} $$ where the fraction is interpreted as a rational iff $b$ is inverible mod $n$ and $b \mid a$ right?
cuppajoeman
well that requires you to define what $a \equiv b \pmod n$ actually \textit{means} when $a$ and $b$ are rationals
bee [it/its]
a and b are integers
a/b is a rational, but turns out to be an integer because b | a
ok fine, it requires you to define what $p \equiv q \pmod n$ actually \textit{means} when $p$ and $q$ are rationals
bee [it/its]
these are different letters so we don't know in advance that they're integers
no because a / b is an integer
well no it might not be
b | a
which means we need an expression like $2^{-1} \equiv \frac12 \pmod n$ to be meaningful and in fact false
bee [it/its]
so what does an expression like that mean
well in that case your statement is false, because $2^{-1} \equiv \frac12 \pmod n$ is actually true (for $n \neq 2$, if $n = 2$ it's not defined), but $2 \nmid 1$
ok, so we should weaken the iff
bee [it/its]
thanks for the help with this btw
yeah i think basically the statement you want is just, if $b \mid a$ and $b$ is invertible mod $n$, then $a\cdot b^{-1} \equiv \frac ab \pmod n$, interpreting the right-hand side as division of integers/rationals
bee [it/its]
the hypotheses imply that a/b is an integer so you don't get the problem with "what does putting a rational there mean"
I'm solving some exercises, and one of them asks us to prove that
$$\choose{2p}{p} \equiv 2 \pmod{p}$$
and I'm looking at something like:
$$\frac{(2p)!}{p!^2} $$
in a modular equation, so we know it's an integer, but it's representation is as a fraction
cuppajoeman
$\binom{2p}{p} \equiv 2 \pmod p$
yes exactly
bee [it/its]
it simplifies to
$$ \frac{(p + 1) \cdots 2p}{p!}$$
cuppajoeman
So that simplification occurred in the realm of rationals right?
see, it got you too
that's not the multiplicative inverse in the modular system
it's the multiplicative inverse in Q
?
For example if p = 3, then (6 choose 3) = 10, which does make sense
there's a problem with that idea
yeah i know how binomial coefficients work, what are you claiming "got me"
you can divide by p!
yes
which is why we evaluate the binomial coefficient in Q
sorry I don't get this then
because we're doing it in Q
that's me giving the reason why we didn't evaluate it mod p
i.e. that's how you can tell that we must have done it in Q
if we had done it mod p, it would not have worked, therefore we didn't
Right, following now
I thought you were saying there was a problem with what I wrote, but I see what you're getting at
So far we have
$$\binom{2p}{p} \equiv \frac{(p + 1) \cdots 2p}{p!} \pmod{p}$$
cuppajoeman
yep
(well we don't really need the "equiv mod p" those are just equal, as integers)
yes, equal as well
probably the next step is to cancel the other factor of p
the $p$ in $p! = p \cdot (p-1)!$ with the $2p$ on the top
bee [it/its]
and then we can start looking at it mod p because all of the factors of p (aka 0) will be gone
Right, so we get
$$\binom{2p}{p} \equiv \frac{(p + 1) \cdots 2p}{p!} \equiv \frac{(p + 1) \cdots (2p - 1) 2}{(p - 1)!} \pmod{p}$$
cuppajoeman
also just equal as rationals
You see here I start getting a little confused, because by wilson we know that (p - 1)! is equivalent to -1, and I wanted to use that, but I'm sure I can because it's in the form of a rational...
(that's actually overkill here, we don't need wilson's theorem)
well, now the numerator and denominator both don't have a factor of p
Ok
so it's actually fine to reinterpret the division as being division mod p
(the only reason we couldn't do that earlier is that we would have ended up dividing by zero)
are we using the above fact?
yep
ahhh, ok finally I get this
and also the fact about primes that a number is invertible mod p iff it's not divisible by p
Right
so since we know that p does not divide (p - 1)! then we know that (p - 1)! has an inverse right?
yep
and then we know that p + i is congrueng to i, so we can then replace each (p + 1) ... (p + p - 1) with (1) ... (p - 1), which is (p - 1)! get cancellation and it leaves 2
yep
very cool
Hello. I have some trouble to show some results used in a paper. It seems at first look that it is an elementary problem, so i post this there. I have a polynom f(T) with all his coefficients integer. I define g(T)=f(AT+B), with A,B integer. How can i show that if a prime divide f(n) for some n in Z, p divide g(m) for some m in Z (p not dividing A)? All help would be appreciated, it is probabely not to difficult but i bug on this..
It's false. For instance take f(T)=T then 3 divides f(3). But now pick g(T)=f(3T+1) = 3T+1 and this is never divisible by 3.
Yeah but 3 divide A in this case
It is mayby not clear in my msg, but I take P prime dividing f(n) for some n, and not dividing A as defined in the last msg
However I am actually indeed not sure that the result is true. The result used in the paper is more precisely that the set of prime dividing f ( I. E there exist n such that P divide f(n)) is the same as the set of prime dividing g with a finite number of exceptions
doesn't look like you mention any restrictions on A,B except that they're integers
any other constraints or can you just send the paper or screenshot of it
Is it okay to use a calculator when studying number theory? Would you miss out on useful intuitions?
Yes, calculator use is fine, as long as you don't need to rely on it for arithmetic with one or two digit results ...
Thanks
Again, the real result used seems to be that : The set of prime divisors of f(T) and f(AT+B) coincides except at finitely many places. It is trivial that that prime divisors of f(AT+B) are prime divisors of f(T) (p |f(An+B) so p|f(m) with m=An+B). So we just have to show that, with finitely many exception, a prime divisors of f(T) is a prime divisors of f(AT+B). My conjecture is that, for every prime divisors of f(T), excepts those who don't divide A, divide f(AT+B).
I actually just have the paper in physic format but here is a of where it is used:
what you originally asked and what the lemma are saying are different things
No, i talk about what appear in last ligne of the proof of lemma 3.3
He want te replace f(T) with 1/df(AT+B) given by lemma 3.2 But to to be allowed to this, f(T) and 1/df(AT+B) have have the same set of prime divisors with finitely many exceptions. As the 1/d doesnt play any role, i direclty took f(AT+B)
And yeah, A, B aren't really random there, but he reuse some kind of similar arguments multiple time, replacing f(T) with f(mT), and replacing f(T) with f(p_0...p_rT+r)
okej, so actually i figured out how to proove this
i'll be 100% honest, i don't really have an exact NT problem to discuss here, but i've got small ideas/concepts that i'm hyperfixated on
mostly recurrence relations, and the interactions between different arithmetic functions
i've put some focus into recurrence relations of the form $a_{n+1} = f(a_n)$ where $f$ is some recurrence relation but i haven't really done much with the concept
nonpost
tell us about the interactions
you mean something like the Dirchlet product?
a bit of the Dirichlet convolution, yes.
well i learned about them and i got hyperfixated on them. for weeks i've been fixated on arithmetic functions and their properties
nice
one of the big things that intrigues me with number theory (or studying any ring tbf) is the way that addition and multiplication interact with each other
i find that a lot of arithmetic functions seem to revolve more around multiplication than addition (take for example, the multiplicative and/or additive functions)
it makes me wonder how addition can be explored when it comes to its interaction with these arithmetic functions
i ask myself questions like: can you find anything interesting about say, $\sigma_0(n + 1)$ in terms of $n$ and $\sigma_0(n)$?
nonpost
things like this intrigue me to no end
That is interesting
Have you found anything
Intuitively I don't think it's likely because divisors are about prime factor distributions and those are essentially unpredictable under addition in such general terms as this
I'm working on a number theory problem rn
Prove that if p is a prime and n is a positive integer, then the equation x(x+1) = (p^2n)y(y+1) has no solutions in positive integers x, y.
I think the fact that [x * (x+1) ] / [ y * (y+1)] is an element of the natural numbers is key
i haven't looked into the question i had just mentioned, but i did find that the recurrence relation $$a_{n+1} = \sigma_0(a_n)$$ will eventually hit a fixed point for any initial value
nonpost
this is a cool idea
Have you looked at $\sigma_1$?
Daniel
although that evidently only becomes constant if the initial value is 1
it's a completely open problem how many $n$ there are such that $2^n + 1$ is prime
bee [it/its]
five are known, and it's suspected that's all of them, but we don't even know if there are infinitely many
so yeah probably you're not going to get much
never knew
i'm kinda too stupid to figure out how exactly that ties in with what i'm talking abt but cool nonetheless
well we know a lot about the divisors of 2^n
but then we can't answer even very basic questions about the divisors of 2^n + 1
ohhh i get ya now
idk about that, we know a few things like if n is odd then 2^n+1 is divisible by 3
oh wow
i trust you 100% on that but i'm gonna try and prove it myself just cause
well idk what the context is here for what bee is telling you, didn't read what you were talking about here
but the fact I said stands on its own at least
in fact we can prove a much stronger result that n must be a power of 2 to be prime
the context was me saying something along the lines of "i wonder if you can write $\sigma_0(n+1)$ in terms of $n$ and $\sigma_0(n)$"
nonpost
since n and n+1 are relatively prime but sigma_0 is a multiplicative function, that's probably not worth thinking about
you're probably right that it's not worth giving the light of day but for me, that's kinda the fun stuff in NT – the seemingly basic questions that you just can't crack (also n and n+1 are coprime? never knew)
you could save yourself from banging your head against the wall if you learned just a little bit of basic NT
Silverman's Friendly Introduction to Number Theory is what I recommend as a fun book
gcd(n,n+1)=1 follows from the euclidean algorithm btw
i've done fairly basic NT (i suppose) for a while, it somehow never came to me that n and n+1 are coprime until you said it
not once crossed my mind
also as a hint for this problem, fermat's little theorem should help
hint for this problem: use the geometric series
i somehow proved in this in my head while completely forgetting about fermat's little theorem (making a simple problem a fair bit more complicated than it needed to be), i thought "well, the multiplicative group of Z/3Z is isomorphic to C_2 and 2 would of course be the element that isn't the identity so it has to be of order 2. if it's of order 2 then raising it to an odd power would just give it back, so in terms of the isomorphism, an odd power of 2 would be congruent to 2 (mod 3) so adding 1 would give 0, making it divisible by 3" instead of using the theorem i already knew that made the problem trivial
lol yikes
I guess for what it's worth it's good to have fermat/euler's thms and see how they're really special cases of lagrange's theorem from that perspective
which is 2
rnicol02
Am I on the right track
I didn't solve the problem yet
Maybe I'll work on it later today
Yes
I'm thinking I'd use the fact that consecutive numbers are relatively prime to sort out how the pieces on either side of the equation can be equal
but that kinda boils down into a lot of annoying casework, probably a better approach
i posted a question in groups-rings-fields, that might be better suited for here: https://discordapp.com/channels/268882317391429632/496784958430380033/1259802530280640554
i put it there, because i found it in an abstract algebra book, but it's actually about modular arithmetic
I am struggling with this simple existence proof for the fundamental theorem of arithmetic. I don't understand how we can assume a, and b are prime or a product of primes.
Here is my attempt to explain it to myself, let me know if the notation doesn't make sense:
If we "let S be the set of integers greater than 1 that are primes or products of primes", how do a, and b seem to magically appear in that set?
I know that a and b are less than n, but how do we know a and b are primes or products of primes?
The proof also says "since we are assuming that both a and b belong to S", but I didn't see any previous statement that we made this assumption.
The proof assumes that every integer less than n is in S. a and b are less than n, so they are in S. By definition, any integer in S is either prime or can be written as the product of primes, so a and b are either prime or the product of primes.
still dont understand, we are just assuming that a and b are primes?
how do we know a and b are primes?
Nowhere was this said
We're assuming that every number less than n is either prime or the product of primes
a,b are less than n, so they are either prime or a product of primes
ok, i understand that we are assuming those integers which are less than n are either prime or a product of primes, thus a and b are either prime or a product of primes based on that assumption, but how are we proving that the assumption is true?
i am struggling with the second principle of mathematical induction
this is not making sense to me yet
essentially it says, n is an element of the set since a and b are either primes or products of primes... i mean, of course this is true if a and b are elements of S, but how do we know that a and b are elements of S? just because they are less than n?
Yes, because they are less than n
this is just way over my head, it's like how can we just assume that?
That's how induction works:
- show a base case is true
- show that if it is true for k < n then it is true for n
- then it's true for all natural numbers
Imagine you want to prove that it's possible for you to climb a ladder. To do this it is sufficient for you to prove that
- you can get on the first step of the ladder
- when you are at a step, you can go to the next step
If you can prove these two things, then you have proven that you can climb the ladder, by induction.
appreciate your patience in trying to help me wrap my head around this
i guess my misunderstanding must be with the initial statement, that we are stating that S is a set of either primes or products of primes, and that the same set S also includes all integers less than n
how can such a thing be stated?
and I think I understand this, it's like, you don't need to prove you can climb every rung
Yes exactly
That's the idea of induction
the problem for me: if it's less than n, it's a product of primes or a prime
thats the thing we're trying to prove!
You can go from step n to step n+1, and you can get to step 1.
No, you're trying to prove that any positive integer is a prime or a product of primes
This is not the same, because you're right we can't just assume that S consists of all integers, that would be circular.
yes! i think you understand my confusion
So, the key is that we don't assume S consists of all integers, we assume it consists of all integers less than n. Then we prove that given S contains all of these, S must also contain n. Because we know S contains 2, we can then conclude it must contain 3, and therefore 4, and therefore 5, etc.
we assume that it consists of all integers less than n, but we never SHOW that it contains all integers less than n?
maybe a different example would be better
maybe there is some simple proof i can look at and then i can come back to this one
Yes this is the key idea in induction; that it isn't necessary. Like in the ladder example, you don't have to show you can climb all the way to the n'th step. You just need to show you can go from n to n+1 and you can get on the first step.
ok, then maybe go back to the a and b for a second
there are many proofs by induction, you can probably just google "proofs by mathematical induction"
when we say n must = a * b
i was able to understand the first principle of mathematical induction after a few examples
the second one is just giving me a really hard time
i think the second one must be the first one, but in reverse, kind of?
The second one is basically the same. In the first principle we assume that it's true for just k and show that it's true for k+1. In the second principle we assume that it's true for all k < n and then show that it's true for n.
where im stuck is the n = ab, a, b \in S
yeah its actually more the same as the first principle, not the reverse
This is because if n=ab, then a and b are less than n. And we assumed every integer less than n is in S.
if we didn't make that assumption, then how can this work?
It can't
this is probably very obvious to everyone else
You need to assume it's true for k < n
Nah induction is probably one of the most conceptually challenging ideas when starting out proof-based maths
Everyone I know including myself struggled with it
yeah i dont want to just regurgitate the steps, i want to gain a deep understanding
im not saying thats what you are doing, of course!
but yeah, i dont want to give up on this topic until i fully understand
how can we make assumptions and then make inferences based on assumptions? maybe my real question is, why and how does the second principle of mathematical induction work?
which I think @coral venture you stated with the ladder example
Do you agree that the ladder example is true
Like that would be a fine proof in your mind
your ladder example makes perfect sense
Induction is formalizing that intuition
Of going from one step to the next
The reason it "works" is because we assume it works (as an axiom)
(if it helps: you can derive the second principle from the first principle, by just doing induction on the statement "P(k) for all k < n" (where P is whatever it is you're trying to prove is true about all natural numbers))
then, using your same example, number 2, how do you know that you can get down to the rung below the one you're on?
it's the thing you're trying to prove, not the assumption?
the way i think about induction is that it's basically saying, every natural number can be constructed by starting at 0 and then repeatedly adding 1
for any particular natural number, if you know how to "build" it like that by repeated +1, you can use that structure to "expand out" the proof
In the ladder example I wanted to prove I could climb up to whatever step I wanted
like if you want to show P(5)
by the base case you have P(0)
and then by the inductive step you have P(0) -> P(1), and P(1) -> P(2), and P(2) -> P(3), and P(3) -> P(4), and P(4) -> P(5)
Yes and in complete induction it's
P(0) and P(1) and P(2) and ... and P(n-1) -> P(n)
That's what the set S represents btw @flat scarab
All the integers in S are the ones for which we know they are either prime or the product of primes
you start from the "zero" case and then apply the "successor" case 5 times, because that's how you "make" the number 5 in the first place, that's what it is
hmm... maybe if you guys have a couple minutes we can do a quick call.
I can't sorry
no worries!
i also can't, but also i think i'm probably faster at communicating through typing than i am through speech, so i don't really see what the point would be
ok, using this example, how can we build to the case where n = ab?
...well, that depends what n is
well induction is more saying "n is either 0 or 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 or 7 or 8 or 9 or..."
is "n can be prime or a product of primes" an axiom? or we are trying to prove this?
"n can be a prime or a product of primes" is what we're trying to prove
without induction, you could imagine a number that you can just keep splitting into factors forever, without ever hitting the prime numbers
but induction effectively says that that can't happen: if you take a natural number, and keep going down, you must eventually hit 0
you mean like, if you keep dividing, you would eventually hit a prime greater than or equal to 2?
no i mean you never get prime factors at all
im not sure there is a number you can divide forever
yeah there isn't
yep
and induction is basically how we know that we got just the natural numbers and not anything else
ok, so i think i am starting to understand
you take n, it becomes a * b
a is composed of c * d
either c is a prime or a product of primes
c = e * f
e is a prime or a product of primes
e = g * h
am i thinking right?
yeah pretty much
although the phrasing with induction is more analogous to a structure of like
we take 3, alright well that's prime
we take 4, that's 2 * 2, and we know we already did 2
we take 5, that's prime
6 is 2 * 3, we already did 2
7 is prime
8 is 2 * 4, we already did 2
[...]
n is a * b, we already did a somewhere up there
and you can see here the concept of getting to n just by doing +1 repeatedly
we have n steps, and each step refers to some of the previous ones
hmm... maybe it's more like this: n = a * b, n - 1 = c * d, n - 2 = e * f, ... you don't need to keep going
kind of?
i mean there's multiple different ways of looking at it
another equivalent phrasing of induction is that any nonempty set has a minimum element
and so we say, ok, suppose some number isn't a product of primes, then there's a smallest number that isn't a product of primes
well ordering principle?
and then if we decompose that into smaller numbers, we know those smaller numbers must be products of primes, because otherwise the number we started with wasn't actually the smallest one
so to wrap this all up, 1: we do the base case, 2: we can show n = a * b and we know that the numbers are either primes or they're not?
@patent acorn @coral venture is this question better for proofs-and-logic?
it is about elementary number theory, but i guess there is some overlap
is it possible to move it there?
you can just re-ask your question
by the way, i still dont understand, but i did a few more examples, and they were very easy to understand, so maybe i am coming closer
Also i think you will get more answers in #proofs-and-logic
This channel is (sadly) usually pretty dead
we will reignite it!
Have you met induction and strong induction?
i want to show that 1 is relatively prime to all integers, using the definition of relatively prime. does the following proof seem correct? i do realize that this is kind of short and unnecessary, but i am trying to receive feedback on my logical flow of ideas, that is the goal here
does this sound better?
"greatest common divisor" should at least involve 2 numbers
greatest divisor would be fine
yeah thats fine
@west glade i think the following is a little bit better yet, although more wordy:
yes
look for a counterexample for C
Yeah but how?
there are only finitely many possibilities to try
but the fact that a=b mod 5 is helpful
with a>b
try a=b+5, a=b+10, a=b+15, etc... as a line of possibilities for instance
plug n' chug to a+b=24 and see what works
does this seem like the right way to typeset this modular arithmetic problem? please critique, also feel free to look at the problem and of course how the modular arithmetic was performed as well
Normally id use $\equiv$ rather than $=$ but honestly that’s just a stylistic preference
Pseudonium
Otherwise it’s completely correct
Maybe the only thing id add is an extra line saying $\equiv 15 \pmod 7$
Pseudonium
Between the second-to-last line and the last line
need some feedback on another modular arithmetic problem:
You should use \equiv and \pmod.
$\pmod$
computerman4774
not a big fan of that, do i need to?
$3 \equiv 5 \pmod 2$
bee [it/its]
is that the "standard"?
You asked for critique of the typesetting ... ¯_(ツ)_/¯
yeah im fine with you suggesting that
but is it expected/standard?
Yes, \equiv and \pmod is the standard notation.
You can also just declare in prose that you're working modulo 7, and then use =, and no explicit mention of the modulus in the equation itself.
ah yes, I forgot about that second option. now that you mention it ive seen that before.
but thanks, if its standard to use \pmod and \equiv, i will
having trouble understanding, can you write it as latex?
how do i show that the number of elements with order d is phi(d) modulo p?
consider the subgroup of elements with x^d=1
is there a way without group theory?
How does it go?
perhaps its similar to the group theory one
alright I’m just going to learn group theory
Hey given two multiplicative functions I've been seeing that they're equal when they agree on prime powers, just to confirm, agreeing on primes is not enough is that right?
It is not enough
For example, the totient function has phi(p)=p-1 for prime p, but phi(p^n) = (p-1)p^(n-1) for a prime power.
If we want the totient to be "multiplicative" (which we really do!) we need a concept of multiplicative that is flexible enough that knowing the values on the primes doesn't tell us everything about the function.
Or for another example, the Möbius function and the Liouville function both take the value -1 on every prime, but they're not the same function.
Here he's reducing 2^m + 3^n = x^2 to mod 3; what exactly is happening in that first step after "Sps"? I get that 3^n is 0 mod 3 but why can he just get rid of it in the expression like that?
i.e. what are the mechanics of reducing an expression modulo n like this?
well if 3^n=0 mod 3, then 2^m+3^n=2^m+0 mod 3
if two things are congruent mod n, then you can just replace one with the other
hey everyone, wondering if someone could take a look at a proof i did and provide some feedback:
What is the definition of equivalence modulo n that you are given?
... it follows from the division algorithm that r_1 = r_2
Does it? What if r_1 is less than r_2? But in any case, isn't this already assumed?
Since n divides a-b, r_1 - r_2 = 0
This needs more explanation.
This isn't a complete proof in my opinion. I can see how to fill the gaps but I'm not convinced you have considered them. (In fact I think you haven't realised that you've actually tried to prove the same direction twice!)
this is true because if the quantity $q = q_1 - q_2$ divides $a - b$ then the quantity $r = r_1 - r_2 = 0$.
computerman4774
Why?
I don't think this is immediate
I have a reason why, but can you explain it?
(N.b. You have simply restated what you claimed again without further justification)
the definition of something to divide something else, is that $a = qn + 0$
computerman4774
So?
$r_1 - r_2$ has to be $0$
computerman4774
You are just again claiming the same thing
OK let me put it another way
10 = 2*4 + 2
im using the definition of the division algorithm
ok, so because i don't agree with you, that means i am not interested in working through this?
it would be nicer if you write the unique integers q1,r1 such that a = nq1 + r1 and 0 <= r1 < n, and the unique integers q2,r2 such that b = nq2 + r2 and 0 <= r2 < n before you proceed to prove the biconditional.
... it follows from the division algorithm that r_1 = r_2
By definition (this is from Gallian's book i'm assuming), a mod n = r1 and b mod n = r2, so when proving the forward, you're already given r1 = r2
Since n divides a-b, r_1 - r_2 = 0
What exactly are you using to reach the conclusion that r1 - r2 = 0? It seems like you are using: "Given A,N,Q,R are integers where N > 0, if A = NQ + R and N | A, then R = 0", where in the proof, you are taking A := a - b, N := n, Q := q1 - q2, and R := r1 - r2. But this statement is false; Boytjie provided a counterexample where A := 10, N := 2, Q := 4, and R := 2. In this counterexample, we see it is true that A = BQ + R and N | A, but it is not true that 2 = 0.
Of course the whole of the converse is to show r1 = r2, but the above statement doesn't allow us to reach r1 = r2 immediately. So there are gaps which need to be filled in
thank you for explaining this, need a little time to think through it
if a number is a divisor, then the remainder is 0
@warm bison here, i reworked the first part, i think it is slightly better now, what do you think?
2 divides 10 and the remainder is zero
Vanellope von Schmugz
thank you, i have a new version of this i need to post, will write it up in a bit
this is exercise 9 from section 0 in joseph gallian's abstract algebra book, right? then "a mod n = b mod n" is the correct notation (rather than "a (mod n) ≡ b (mod n)")
"a mod n" in this context refers to the following:
Suppose a,n are integers where n > 0. By the division algorithm, there are unique integers q,r which satisfy a = nq + r and 0 <= r < n. "a mod n" is defined to be this value of r
Let a = q1n + r1 and b = q2n + r2 where q1, q2, r1, and r2 are unique.
this isn't what the division algorithm says; you should really say "there are unique integers q1,r1 which satisfy a = q1n + r1 and 0 <= r1 < n", and something similar for b and n.
that and my previous comment are the only two issues i see
Let $S= {2^k3^l: (k,l)\in\mathbb{N}^2}$.
Prove that $\forall s\in S, \exists {s_n} \subset S$ a sequence and some $m\in\mathbb{N}$ s.t. $s=\sum_{k=0}^m s_k$, and $\forall i \leq m, j\leq m, i \neq j \Rightarrow s_i \nmid s_j$ and $s_j \nmid s_i$.
VirtualCode
My first thought was to write 3=2+1 and expand using the binomial theorem, but after wracking my head trying to prove the second condition I realized that doesn't even fit the first one (s_n in S)
what do you mean?
made some changes, @rugged pasture (changed to a \equiv b (\pmod n))
Yes
If you are being asked to do this you have likely already seen a few different methods
Perhaps you have seen Euler's totient function, or perhaps you have seen people show you how to calculate something like 4^1000 mod 10 by inspecting small powers.
You are not going to be expected to compute 63^25 then work it out mod 1000. That would be a ridiculously bad approach.
you should explain why n dividing a-b implies r1 - r2 = 0. Why can't it also be a multiple of n?
the definition of c divides d is that there is no remainder
right, so you should explain why there is no remainder. For there to be no remainder, either r1 - r2 = 0 or r1 - r2 is a multiple of n. So why is it not a multiple of n?
because what you have is n divides a sum of numbers, one of which is a multiple of n. You haven't shown that the other number is not a multiple of n.
I’m sorry I don’t know how to go any deeper than what I said before
You basically have n | x + y
you know x is a multiple of n, that isn't enough to say y = 0 without further reasoning.
