#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 21 of 1
does a(x0+nk) not distribute to a(x0)+a(nk)?
It does
what is nk mod n
O nvm I misread,
What you have so far will just show it holds for some k from definition of divisibility
Your goal is to show it holds for all k
So you should adjust your approach
And I am suggesting you consider what a(x0 +nk) is for all integers k
Hey dose any body need help here
how to find solutions to $2^x \equiv -x \pmod{13}$?
silverwildflower8
i know how to find solutions if there isn't an x on the right side using indices
but im not sure how to apply those here
the modulus is small enough here that you can probably just check all of them
is there any way to do it without checking all of them
So first I was stumped with this but then I found the smallest natural number for which that congruence relation holds. That number is x=12. Then I note the remainders that powers of 2 cycle through (mod 13). 2^12 leaves a remainder of 1 and so 2^(12^k) leaves a remainder of 1 as well for all integers k>0. Now I must find when 12^k leaves a remainder of -1 so that 2^(12^k)+12^k is divisible by 13. Since 12 leaves a remainder of -1, it amounts to asking when (-1)^k leaves a remainder of -1? That of course is when k is odd. And you can check for urself and find that powers of 12 are either congruent to 1 or -1 mod 13 and they alternate -1,1,-1,1,.... So I have found infinitely many natural numbers x for which ur congruence relation holds. I will leave it up to you to determine if that is the only values of x for which the relation holds
ah that makes sense
thx
ur welcome.
let a,b,c,d be natural numbers. if ab = cd, then a = xy, b= zh, c = xz, y = yh
if i wanted to use this in an exam, what theorem would i quote?
I would rather prove it
I know it as four number lemma
Why is it that the sum of the digits of primes never equals some number 3k , k>1
because otherwise the number would be divisible by 3
(divisibilty rule for 3)
let a,b,c,d be natural numbers. if ab = cd, then a = xy, b= zh, c = xz, d = yh
does anyone have a simple proof for this ??
let g = gcd(a, c)
then by the definition of greatest common divisor, there exist integers x and z such that a = xg and c = zg
since g divides both a and c
we have a = xg and c = zg for some integers x and z
substituiting into the equation ab = cd
(xg)(b) = (zg)(d)
cancelling g from both sides (since g is non-zero as it divides a and c)
xb = zd
and so on..
how to prove the change of base formula for indices in modulos
can you state the formula you're talking about?
what do I do if for the chinese rest theorem im working with non partly external mods
like I have mod 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9
I don't understand the question. Can you be more specific about the situation that you can't use the chinese remainder theorem with
so I have this system of mod x I need to solve for
they are in total 5
My problem here is that I have mod 5 mod 6 mod 7 mod 8 and mod 9 as the rings I am working with
but
8 6 and 9 6 are not partly external
I was thinking about finding the smallest common denominator but then Im not sure for what value of x Im supposed to solve for
And about the gdc well Im still not very sure, for 6 and 8 would work nicely with 1 mod 2, but with the 6 9 I am not sure
would be 0 mod 3
but is that it?
because If im working with now just mod 2, 3, 5 and 7
then everything changes
like Im pretty confused and trying to brainstorm the solution here
i think what i'd do is, decompose it into powers of primes
so 5, 7, 8, 9, we leave as they are
x = 3 mod 6 is the same as x = 1 mod 2 and x = 0 mod 3
then with mod 2 and mod 8, you just have to check that they're compatible (if it was x = 1 mod 2 and x = 6 mod 8 for instance then there's no solutions), and then you can just ignore the mod 2, because mod 8 is more information
same with mod 3 and mod 9
and then it's just 5, 7, 8, 9, and those are all coprime
@merry cradle Love fluttershy pfp
i was talking about for primitive roots g and h, $\text{ind}_g(x) \equiv \frac{\text{ind}_h(x)}{\text{ind}_h(g)} \pmod{\varphi(n)}$
silverwildflower8
managed to figure it out though
the case where $\gcd(a,2^{15}-2^3)=1$ is of course straightforward, but how do we proceed when that's not the case?
elrichardo1337
oh maybe it's like
the divisibility automatically holds for those primes that it has in common with $2^{15}-2^3?$
elrichardo1337
@weary rune basically they want you to prove that each of 5,7,8,9,13 divides a^15-a^3
since these numbers are pairwise coprime, it follows that a^15-a^3 is divisible by their product
yea i figured it out on my own, thanks tho
is there a way to write a solution that's not quite as longwinded as the one here?
more worryingly the reasoning for the "s odd" case seems to be entirely incorrect
what about the cases where s is not 1 or 3 less than p-1?
@weary rune I did a similar problem and here was my solution:
so basically for the p=1 mod 4 case
s is odd because a power of a primitive root evaluates to -1 when the power is (p-1)/2
oh aight
i’m reading ur proof rn, which part is this?
for the 3 mod 4 or 1 mod 4?
ohhh i see, sry abt my mix up
yeah, 8a seems a little wordy to me
8b looks solid
whoever dms me i will give them elementary math paper for them to solve
What an enticing proposition!!!!
This offer is so tough to accept!!!!
wrong channel
You may find better luck in #prealg-and-algebra but I fear even then you will struggle to find help.
lmao
hey uh, did you mean q = 15 or q-1 = 15?
it's the entire set
all the elements
sorry I suddenly decided to try this problem out again and I think I know what I'm supposed to do but forgot a lot of stuff
so like since the cyclic group of order p-1 has order p-1 which is the same as summing phi(d1) + ... + phi(dk), and in this supposed set when we count we're going <= phi(d1) + ... + phi(dk) (because supposedly some are being 0), but the sum has to be p-1 anyways so they must have both the same amount of orders for each divisor?
as far as I remember we replaced q-1 by q, so that q is supposed to mean "q-1"
the number of elements in a finite field is always a power of a prime
ok but I solved it yeeey
ty for your tips they made no sense to me 5 months ago but now that seems so obvious lol
yours' and toposphere's
"E2: Given an integer a, prove that the correspnding element [a] in Z/nZ is invertible if and only if gcd(a,n) = 1."
is [a] just the residue mod n?
in which case it's a very straightforward proof using division algorithm and gcd?
Well, if $\gcd(a,n)=1$ then there exists $x,y\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that the linear combination $ax+bn=1$ is minimal.
bondalton
How could you prove that $\overline{a}\cdot\overline{x}=\overline{1}$?
bondalton
$ax-1=bn,$ so $ax\equiv 1\pmod{n},$ seems pretty straightforward
elrichardo1337
if we want to minimize a, then we turn to the division algorithm
pull out as many ns as we can
and then it should work
so does "reduces to" mean that we're subtracting the equations? how did that happen? I've no clue where that equation came from and the next absolute value stuff also. why is that equal to 5 if a_{i+1} is not equal to a_{i}?
<@&286206848099549185>
I've understood everything else including depending on whether i is even or odd
srry for the ping guys im not sure if im allowed to use this in this channel
"This equality simplifies to either A or B, depending on whether i is even or odd" simply means that if i is even then you have A, and if i is odd you have B.
"reduce to" ≈ "lead to"
could you please explain the step before -- how did it lead to 2(a_{i+1} - a_{i})
I know this maybe trivial but I'm a beginner :(
just use this:
x = y (mod 10) => x-y = 0 (mod 10)
Could I get a hint for this problem?
I’m still trying to show that $\psi$ is multiplicative. I know there’s a way to solve it using CRT, but the textbook hasn’t introduced congruences yet, so I’d like to avoid using it
eigenpuppet
My current approach is to find an expression for $\sum_{d|n} \psi(d)$, which would hopefully be multiplicative, then applying Mobius inversion
eigenpuppet
a. If $p, q, r$ are prime numbers and $p\neq q$, what is $gcd(p, q)$? What is the smallest positive integer of the form $px + qy$ where $x, y \in \mathbb{Z}$ ? What is the smallest positive integer of the form $rpx + rqy$? If $p\mid rq$, prove that $p \mid r$ and deduce that $p=r$.
b. Use part a to prove that it is not possible to find four distinct prime numbers $p, q, r, s$ such that $ps-qr=0$.
duk
I know gcd(p,q)=1, and thus the smallest positive integer is 1 from bezout, giving px+qy=1 , and i can get the RHS to be r(px+qy) and then just r, but im confused obout the LHS.
...the LHS of what
why would you set it equal to anything...?
im having a hard time convincing myself that r is the smallest positive integer
well r | r(px+qy)
oh
thats what I do?
i can work from that
thats clever actually
thank you
one other quick clarification question
$\mathbb{Z}^{\times}_{12}$ is jus the set of integers coprime to 12?
duk
{1,5,7,11}?
beacuse its asking m to constuct a mulitplication table to see if i suggests that set is a group
and if it is {1,5,7,11} it is a group but if its {1,2,3,...,11} it is not a group
its jsut the notation confusing me
i would guess {1,5,7,11} but also probably they defined this notation at some point so if you can just find that that will tell you what it means here
yeah my professor must have said it in class but i cant find it in my notes
im just going ot assume it is
beacuse ottherwise the problem is way more pointless
thanks
for 3.2, is it sufficient to say $g^m\equiv\pm 1\pmod{p}$ but we cannot have $g^m\equiv 1\pmod{p}$ since that would contradict our order assumption?
elrichardo1337
I don't know why this holds.
wow what a very specific and informative statement!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
what about it doesn't make sense? why?
yes
Guys does there are any theorem like this:
For n consecutive real numbers,their product is divisible by 1.2.3....n
Real numbers? is 0.5 * 1.5 divisible by 2?
OK so...
Using mathematical induction
Right, this is just (n+k choose n) is an integer
So there you go. It's the binomial coefficient theorem I suppose
is it?
😭
Yeah at first I just don't know why product of 3 consecutive integers is divisible by 6 and I smh figured out and generalized it
Out of curiosity, what are the pre-requisites (if any) to learn about elementary number theory, if I'm just trying to self-learn?
If you are familiar with proof writing, you’ll be fine
Alright, nice
really when i started
i was 13 yo iirc
i knew freaking nothing outside school
like i did some non routine maths for own curisioty characterizing nth fibonacci number on my own and stuff which i didnt learn formally
just to clarify i only did for MO
so really ig that much is enough '
I'm doing a unit on Euler's theorem/Euler's Phi function, but I don't believe this part was gone over in class. Would anyone be able to help me get started on solving this?
hints: ||you want to calculate 27^162 mod 100||
||use Euler's theorem||
That mod 100 is exactly what I needed, thank you!
One more problem. I want to use induction here, but I don't know if I can. I think im supposed to use the properties of the phi function with primes, but i dont know where they'd fit either
Here's what I have so far
induction doesn't work
you can use the definition: phi(n) = the number of integers in the set {1,2,...,n} that are coprime to n
||try to make some pairs||
we don't learn numbers like this in my elementary school 😞
Multiply 27 by itself 161 times, take the last two digits and you have your answer.

I think I can see where you're going with this, but could you clarify a bit more on what I should try pairing based on?
For example, for n=14 we can make the following pairs: (1,13), (3,11), (5,9)
you can generalize this
Does it have to do with the second number in the pair being 14 - the first number?
yes
aight i think i have it now, thank you very much!
Does this proof look okay? It feels like it's missing something @primal pewter
you should also mention that k≠n-k
Isn't that already given since gcd(n,k) 1? Since if n-k=k, then n =2k
yes, it follows from gcd(n,k)=1, but it should be mentioned in the proof
@eternal pike 10000 = 2^4 * 5^4 and by CRT it is enough to prove that a^1000 = 1 (mod 2^4) and a^1000 = 1 (mod 5^4)
||you can use Euler's theorem for this||
right since a^euler(n)=1 mod n if gcd(a,n)=1
so euler(625)=500, HENCE A^500=1 mod 625, so (a^500)^2=1^2=1 mod 625
@primal pewter
@eternal pike yes, that's correct
chat
am I wrong with the comment
under the definition
like there's no such thing as a non-finite cyclic group no?
then it wouldn't be a cyclic group
also here ^n isn't to denote exponentiation
it's just repeated applications of the binary operation of the group
I'm just not sure if a non-finite cyclic group is a thing
yah but then would it be called a cyclic group?
there's no cycles
by definition a cycle would cause it to be finite is what I"m tryna say
but I don't know if non-finite cyclic groups is a thing
that's why I'm asking here
interesting
so the comment is indeed wrong
so is that all the definition of a cyclic group?
where the fuck is the cyclic in that
pretty misleading naming if you ask me
but oh well
well it still has a lot of similar properties. so why not call it cyclic aswell. you have to get used to suboptimal names in math
Sir are you saying T1/2/3/4/2.5 is not genius naming?
hello guys
if i want to compare two functions that have different points
how do i do it?
would it be to check the integral?
and give it some volume?
well what should that comparison do
check the difference between the real solution and the approximated solution
but it doesnt make any sense because i have a singularity in my function and i dont know if the integral is finite or not
this doesnt fit in #elementary-number-theory prolly
in Z[x], if p(x) is an irreducible polynomial and p(x) | f(x)g(x), does that imply p(x)|f(x) or p(x)|g(x)?
Z[x] is a UFD so indeed irreducibles are prime.
Find all numbers $n \in \mathbb{N}$, such that $\varphi(n)$ is prime.
For this problem I found $n = 3$ as a solution, when assuming that n must be a prime too. With that and a little trying around I found out, that this also works for $n = 4$ and $n = 6$. However.. I have to find a general form for n or proof that, there's no other $n$ that satisfies this equation. Could someone help me out with that or provide a little hint to me? 😅
Edlingem
have you calculated a few more values of phi(n) ?
the case n prime is solved as unless n = 3, n-1 is even and therefore not prime
Otherwise you may want to remember that phi is multiplicative...
then there's just the case n = p^k left to handle
But there could always be another p, k such that phi(p^k) is also prime isn't it?
I claim you shoudn't need a hint for that one
it's not hard to work out from the explicit formula for phi
You mean phi(p^k) = (p - 1)p^(k - 1) ?
which is clearly composite except in easily found cases
thought this was numerical analysis sorry
I thought like, that that one theorem only applied if the thing has a multiplicative inverse for non-0 values
also what's ufd
soooooo
Dunno what you're referring to. The acronym "UFD" stands for "Unique Factorisation Domain."
yeah that
I forgot what a domain is
I meant that I assumed that being a unique factorisation domain needed that multiplication had an inverse (excluding 0)
which isn't true in Z
No
is this proof of that theorem that if p/q (in reduced form) is a root of an integer polynomial f(x), then the leading coefficient is divisible by q and the lonely coefficient by p correct?
f(x) = (x-p/q)g(x) (over Q[x])
qf(x) = (qx - p)g(x)
multiplying by a convenient integer d
dqf(x) = (qx - p)z(x) (with z(x) in Z[x])
so qx-p divides dqf(x), so it divides one of the terms, and obviously it's f(x), so
f(x) = (qx-p)(ln-1x^n-1 + ... + l0)
with lk an integer
so when you distribute it, the leading term is qln-1x^n and the lonely term is -pl0, with proves the theorem
also what's the name given for the coefficient in x^0? I call it lonely but I forgot if it has a name
standard name
The constant term
ty
looks like a fine proof on a quick read
finding remainder of quotient 3^302 divided by 28 without calculator.
Can someone tell me if there is a simple approach to this, or whether it comes down to using several arithmetic tricks?
(please don't tell solution though, I just would like to know if I should search an alternative to doing lots of arithmetic)
the key observation is that if you have two numbers x and y and you want the remainder of xy, then instead you can take the remainders of x and y, multiply those together and then take remainder again. which lets you have much smaller numbers
the general topic is called modular arithmetic
yeah this is what i mean by "lots of arithmetic"
try calculating just the first few
if i want to compute it it involves several calculations, unless I'm missing some more insights
It can't be more than phi(28) = 12 multiplications anyways
3^3=27=-1 btw
That insight makes it 2
please mind I didn't want too much of a solution
thanks for the help so far
Guys i need help im taking elementary number theory this semester and i could use some help for a problem as follows (p,p+2) is a primetwin with p >=5 then p ≡5mod6 i assume that this quite a easy problem but i have no idea how to approach it even for example in algebra or topology u define structures and then proof certain statements relations between objects within the realm of those structures and given lemmata so if somebody gives u a set and you’re supposed to proof its a group u check the axioms but with number theory its so different so my question by extend would be how do you approach number theory statement. Because to me those don’t like proper mathematical excersices more than math Olympiad problems which i never did.
What happens to p+2 if p is 1 mod 6?
given that 2 \equiv 2 mod 6 what do u think
I spent the last 4 years working a number theory problem with no formal training on number theory. The closest I've been is linear and discrete, and that was a long time ago. I've forgotten most of the math I know.
Anyway, $$e^{\sum_{x_{1}=2}^{x}\ln\left(\left|-\frac{x_{1}}{2\pi}\left(\arcsin\left(\sin\left(\frac{\pi\left(x-\frac{x_{1}}{2}+1\right)}{x_{1}}\right)\right)-\arcsin\left(\sin\left(\frac{\pi\left(x-\frac{x_{1}}{2}-1\right)}{x_{1}}\right)\right)\right)-\frac{\left|x-1\right|+\left|x-x_{1}+1\right|-\left|x-x_{1}-1\right|-\left|x+1\right|}{2}\right|\right)}$$
I posted this in math discussions, but I don't know if that's the right place.
I'm not looking for help so much as understanding.
Jarhyn
Anyway, it's a prime indicator function. You can actually drop the e and the exponentiation and find the max of that and the line at 0, and it still works.
I don't know enough about prime indicator functions or what the challenges are or even what challenges people are trying to overcome, and (a little bit) whether I'm wasting my time.
g
what is the general procedure for these? does it involve using euler's theorem and seeing if things line up?
I don't think you should be looking for a "general procedure" there.
hmm
You should find a solution mod 5
in both cases i see that x^20=1 mod 25 by euler
do the solutions mod 5 cover all solutions mod 25 necessarily?
Every solution mod 25 is also a solution mod 5, at least.
So solving mod 5 would let you eliminate a lot of possibilities mod 25.
would i need to manually check the remaining ones
Don't think in terms of "need to". Think in terms of "find something that works", and don't (at first) worry about whether that's the only thing that could possibly work.
That could get you some of the way for x^4=1 -- it tells you that every fifth power (of a unit!) will work.
hensel's lemma will guarantee that the lift is unique if you satisfy the conditions
we didn't cover that in class 😭
bummer!
I was just going to say: https://youtu.be/nrH2vs04TyQ
This lecture is part of my Berkeley math 115 course "Introduction to number theory"
For the other lectures in the course see https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8yHsr3EFj53L8sMbzIhhXSAOpuZ1Fov8
We describe a method due to Hensel and Newton for lifting a solution of an equation mod p to a solution mod a power of p.
The textbook is "An intr...
the teacher was literally just reciting this shitass textbook verbatim
hmm i think i have smth for a
considering the congruence mod 5, we have x^3=1 mod 5 and x^4=1 mod 5
therefore, letting k=ord_5(x), k divides 3 and k divides 4
but that forces k to be 1, and thus x to be 1
taking this back to mod 25, it's easy to see that 6, 11, 16, 21 don't work, while 1 does
so answer 1
we can kinda reinvent part of hensel without doing the full thing
like once you solve for some a that makes a^3=1 mod 5, you can then substitute in x=a+5b and see what b can be
(a+5b)^3=1 mod 25
a^3+3a*5b = 1 mod 25
since you know a^3-1 = 0 mod 5, you can factor out a 5
5 * ( (a^3-1)/5 + 3ab) = 0 mod 25
since you have two things that multiply to make something 0 mod 25, and one of them is 5, then must be
(a^3-1)/5 + 3ab = 0 mod 5
that's a linear equation for b that's uniquely determined, so there can only be 1
one possible b?
For each a that works.
Yes, agreeing with what you found by trial and error here.
aight aight
I will need to sleep on this lmao, tired and my exam is day after tmrw
thanks for the help
goodnight goodluck
i haven't looked at the formula in enough detail to say for sure, but based on just what it looks like... yeah i suspect this probably isn't very useful
the concept of a "formula" is arbitrary and ill-defined anyway
the interesting thing about any new discovery about prime numbers will be that it actually expresses a pattern that wasn't previously known to exist, not "is it in words or is it a pile of symbols"
and my guess looking at that is that once you simplify all the $\arcsin(\sin(...))$ and stuff out, it comes out to ``a number is prime iff its only divisors are $1$ and itself'', which is not a new discovery
bee [it/its]
if there is some new insight about the prime numbers here then the first step would be to convert it out of this ridiculous encoding to a statement in words
if the encoding was in itself somehow useful, then it would probably be more because of the general facts of what you can use tricks like absolute value, arcsin(sin(...)), and summation, to represent, with the special case of prime numbers being just one example of a far more general result
More, it goes to discussing what I've been led to believe is an important result: prime indication at sum 0-sqrt(x) ln(f(x))
I've not done.much with it because I got it to that point just this weekend and have a day job and am very lazy after work.
That was ultimately my goal: prime indicator with a single sum operation through sqrt x
Thank you for your response BTW
I'm led to understand that things in the form $$\sum_{x_{1}=0}^{x}\ln\left(\left|J\left(x_{2},x_{1}\right)\right|\right)$$ are "important"
Jarhyn
meh, bad pasting is bad...
a is trivial by Lagrange but not sure how to approach b
by Fermat I see that a^p=ar=a mod p but now sure what to do with that
anything?
i have a “fakesolve” by considering when r=1 but obviously that doesn’t work in the general case
If a is invertible, that means r = 1
ah aight
so i could argue the only possible values of r are 0,1?
since if a is not invertible then that means a=0 mod p, r=0
i am trying raising to p power to be able to use Euler
and then the order of r mod p^2 is 1 or p
is this a correct start ?
The really big question I have is if O sqrt(x) ln(n) as an operational cost basis for a prime indicator function is a noteworthy accomplishment.
It doesn't matter if people understand it yet. I still have to write the paper, if it is. Technically, I need to get help writing the paper from someone else.
...what are x and n here?
ok if i'm guessing correctly what that means... that's the exact same complexity as trial division, "check if each number up to sqrt(n) is a factor of n", which is an algorithm that's been known about for at least 800 years and is also pretty much the slowest way to check if a number is prime
I'd reduce that mod p and use fermat's little theorem to show r=1 or 0 mod p
just consider the congruence mod p at first?
yeah
that seems pretty easy, just not sure how to "boost" it to mod p^2 in general
(our prof didn't go over this well at all)
you can think of it as determining the digits of the number in base p
so when you solve it mod p, you're getting the first digit, then mod p^2 you can use that to help get the second digit since it's already determined
computationally what does that look like
are we claiming that the original congruence is unsolvable if r is not 0 or 1 or am i barking up the wrong tree
yeah, we'd show that first
x=a+bp is the number in base p, with a,b digits as usual from 0, 1, 2, ..., p-1
is that the general form of the solution?
yeah, in general a base p number will be like a+bp+cp^2+dp^3+...
but because we're looking at it at most mod p^2, the higher digits are thrown in the trash
see what I mean?
that's second
first you throw away the "p's place digit" by reducing the equation from mod p^2 to mod p to solve for the "units digit"
then once you have it, it is fixed and you can go back up to mod p^2
hmm ok
so when it's mod p, we only get a solution if r=0 or r=1
does that hold for mod p^2 as well or is this where the "digits" stuff comes in
im guessing not
but how to show?
well instead of thinking if it holds or not, you can think of it as determining the units digit of r
r=ps or r=1+ps are the only options next would be a way to think of it
we might have to, I guess let's be more concrete about it
yes please lmao 😭
$$x^{p-1}=r \mod p$$
Now we're saying $$x=a+bp$$ so plug that in and we get,
$$(a+bp)^{p-1}=r \mod p$$
since $$p=0\mod p$$ the $$bp$$ term dies and we're left with just
$$a^{p-1}=r \mod p$$
Now if $a=0$ we have $r=0 \mod p$, and you use Fermat's little theorem for when $a \ne 0$ to see that it must make $r=1 \mod p$.
Merosity
oh ok we use that form from the outset
yeah, similarly we could have said r=s+pt let's say, and now we determined how a affects s
let's just split it into the two cases, a=0 mod p or a !=0 mod p which makes r=0+pt and r=1+pt respectively, and we have to solve for b and t now
so I can do one case and then we can try to do the next case together
aight
Actually I'll let you help a bit, let's do the case: $a \ne 0 \mod p$ and let's do the same thing but mod $p^2$.
$$(a+bp)^{p-1}=1+tp \mod p^2$$
Expand out the binomial on the left there
Merosity
aight
all terms besides the first two cancel leaving us with
$a^{p-1}+a^{p-2}bp(p-1)\equiv 1+tp\pmod{p^2}$
elrichardo1337
elrichardo1337
nice
and now do we rearrange?
$a^{p-1}-1\equiv p(a^{p-2}+t)\pmod{p^2}$
elrichardo1337
to get all the p terms onto one side?
I think factoring the p out is good, and I like to have them all on one side personally
I don't think it really matters but might make the reasoning clearer
a^{p-1} -1 is divisible by p, since that's really the original result we worked out showing that's 0 mod p earlier
oh huh
a^{p-1} = r mod p I guess is what it really looked like but same thing if that's unclear
for this case r=1+pt?
yes exactly we're just doing the r=1 mod p case first
ok
and we said a !=0 mod p for now yeah
ok cool so
the way I think of it, working with stuff mod p^2 is harder because you have nonzero things that multiply together to make 0. But mod p, there's nothing that's nonzero that multiplies to make 0 mod p
it would be nice if we could turn this into a mod p problem instead of a mod p^2 problem
and we can
do we divide out p from both sides + the modulus now
$$p(\tfrac{a^{p-1}-1}{p} - a^{p-2}-t) = 0 \mod p^2$$
Merosity
you can't really "divide the modulus out" but sort of
the fact that p*x=0 mod p^2 means x=0 mod p
maybe I should use a different letter than x here, not trying to confuse with the previous x
yea
we already know p takes up one of those so yeah
what's left must be divisible by p still, ok cool
oh you left out b up here and I copied your mistake
oop lmao
so work it out to that point of what we have and let's see what we can do
$p\left(\frac{a^{p-1}-1}{p}-ba^{p-2}-t\right)\equiv 0\pmod{p^2}$
elrichardo1337
so $\dfrac{a^{p-1}-1}{p}-ba^{p-2}-t\equiv 0\pmod{p}$
elrichardo1337
well the r from the problem was fixed and we can't change it
so there's really only one free variable here, can you solve for it?
yup
elrichardo1337
elrichardo1337
since the fraction vanishes by fermat?
nope fraction doesn't vanish because it's divided by p
ah rip
a^p - a = 0 mod p is what lets us divide it by p, so we already "vanished" that part of it if that makes sense
yea
cool, so hey we're done
b is uniquely determined at this point and we just solved for it no problems
let's wind back to the start
one b for each of the p-1 choices of t?
p-1 choices of a
t is not something we choos
r=s+pt was forced on us from the start
oh
and probably we could work out the argument in general
without ever really specifying anything but I guss we'll find out, let's just do it yeah
you want to try to start it out and see how far you get
sure
I just made ramen earlier so about to start eating it, so take your time lol
lmao aight
in that case, it looks like the entire LHS cancels?
bc a is 0 mod p
well
if p=2, the a term is left behind
p>2, everything vanishes mod p^2
$0\equiv pt\pmod{p^2}$
elrichardo1337
how many solutions does this generate?
for p=2, a-2t=2b mod 4
but 2 is not invertible mod 4
a/2-t=b mod 2?
and for p>2, t=0 mod p
does this imply no solutions or
well pt=0 mod p^2 means t=0 mod p so it sorta forces what's possible there for r
since b isn't anywhere to be found, it can be anything
so p-1 sols as well for this one
and i take it it's no sols for any other values of r that don't have s=0 or s=1?
actually p, not p-1
but it also means r=0+0p
hmm
the problem statement claims that either there are 0 sols or p-1 sols
idk whats going on there
well we just worked it out
the 0 case means x=0 mod p and r=0 mod p^2
oh i meant "0" as in "no solutions"
ah, that's here when t !=0 mod p
keep r in mind as being fixed and we sort of have to answer to it
oh aight
the problem statement also said "r coprime to p^2" so i think that resolves the discrepancy i was having earlier
the case with p solutions seems to be out of scope for this problem lol
aight thanks for the help!
my exam is tmrw i hope i don't bomb 😭
thanq
N is bigO(n). X is the number. See chapter this:
https://nap.nationalacademies.org/read/10532/chapter/18#245
"n is O(n)" does not clarify it at all, because i still have the question of... what does the "n" in that "O(n)" mean
but ok yeah it looks like i guessed mostly correctly - this is the same complexity as trial division, and in fact i think it is trial division, so it's not really new at all
the fastest known unconditional deterministic primality test takes O((log x)^6) time, and if you allow probabilistic tests (tests that work most of the time) or tests that depend on unproven conjectures (so they might always work but we don't actually know) then there are even faster methods, by comparison O(sqrt x) is so slow it's only useful if either the numbers are really small or you just don't care at all about how fast it is
in order to prove that a^2 - b^2 where a,b are integers can represent any odd integer, what approach would you choose?
I would explicitly construct a representation
so doing transformations to a^2 - b^2 until it is in a form 2n + 1 or similar?
No
Well kinda
But you are free to choose a and b however you like and you should use that
it works though
add a case distinction in and it appears the prove leads somewhere
oh wait maybe i made a mistake
think it worked
no case distinction. just what you said: choosing however i like
thanks
is it a good idea to use this thing instead of the Extended Euclidean Algorithm to solve for modular inverses, in the context of problem sets?
i dont understand the contrapositive part
i would view 'with' to be the same as 'and'
and i see contrapositive as
a not divide c -> a not divide (bc) or gcd(a,b) not equal to 1
you are right; it is not quite the contrapositive
but it's true nonetheless
how do we know that Z[x] is an UFD?
cus the proof I know that K[x] is an UFD assumes K is a field
is this related to the theorem that f(x) is irreducible in Z[x] iff it's irreducible in Q[x]?
http://homepage.math.uiowa.edu/~goodman/22m121.dir/2005/section6.6.pdf
here's a quick reference
in particular: if R is a ufd, R[x] is a ufd
so i came across an interesting concept from a comment i saw on reddit, and im hoping someone can point me towards more info. Essentially the idea was to assign a group of people 1 prime number each, in order to track a relationship that a person would have to a potential "thing". So imagine if we had an ordered pair set of people in the form of (person, prime) and an ordered set of "things" in the form of (thing, composite) where the composite number is a product of all the primes of each person who has a relationship to whatever that thing is. This way you can quickly find if a thing has a relationship to a person by checking if the person's prime evenly divides the composite number. So my questions are:
- Is there a name for this concept?
- Is there an alternative so that the composite number doesn't get stupidly large if we have more than a handful of people with a relationship to a thing?
p.s. im aware that this is the fundamental theorem of arithmetic that's not what im looking for :p just to be clear
Easiest way is to just kill it using primtive root
Let $g$ be a primitve root working p^2
lucid
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
so $g^{(p-1)t}=r(mod p^2)$
lucid
say $r \equiv g^k$
lucid
so we basically want no of solutions of $(p-1)t \equiv k(mod p(p-1))$
lucid
an alternative is to create just a list of names of the people and throw out the primes altogether if you really want to do it quickly 😛
Does anyone know of any quick intros to/references on the legendre symbol? I just need to get somewhat up to speed to use it for exercises in my algebra text
pls ping : )
Most likely "the entire chapter on quadratic reciprocity in your algebra text".
hm. the algebra text doesn't contain anything on quadratic reciprocity and has introduced the legendre symbol in an exercise which I had trouble understanding
Huh, I didn't think it was used for anything other than quadratic reciprocity.
In that case https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quadratic_reciprocity might be a start -- or just ask here about whatever confuses you.
That might be true, and the exercises are probably "quadratic reciprocity" results. It's just that it feels very unmotivated and as if the author wanted to stick on some applications to the ring-theoretic results that we've been considering
I'll take a look at the wiki, cheers
ivan niven
thanks
the bit on it in ireland rosen is fine
they give you the prime factorization so you can use the multiplicativity property of the euler phi function
,w phi(221)
is there a way with less machinery involved?
use the multiplicativity property of the euler phi function
,w phi(17)
I dont get it
do you know what phi(p) is when p is a prime number
every number less than p is not divisible by it, and p’s only prime factor is itself.
what is the difference between coprime and reltively prime
got it
they’re the same thing
no need to apologize
at a minimum, google for how to find an egyptian fraction representation - then try to do that. If you are not able to do it, then post what you've tried.
help
Isn’t it just representing a fraction as a sum of fractions with numerator 1?
When in lowest terms
Yes, but the terms must be different.
So you can't just say 1/13+1/13+1/13+....+1/13.
Evidence of their purpose is pretty much nonexistent. My personal guess is that they initially thought it would lead to unique representations, and by the time they discovered counterexamples to that, tradition and inertia kept the system around.
is that egyptian fraction representation
Yes.
milanesa de pollo
,, 15 \cdot 99^{7000321}
milanesa de pollo
And 99 == -1 (mod 100)
"The two last digits" is another way to say the congruence class modulo 100.
Do you disagree that 99 == -1 (mod 100)?
What?
I need more hints
sounds like you need a book or course on the subject to give you more structure to learn these topics
Yeah, it sounds like you're not really conversant with modular arithmeticl, in which case you shouldn't be trying to solve "last n digits of such-and-such" problems.
i've observed very similar behavior in a lot of other channels that they're active in
they're asking about stuff that it is apparent is above their level, without the foundational skills necessary
any recommendations for such books?
I think Silverman's A Friendly Introduction to Number Theory is a nice book, but might be too friendly depending on what you're going for as an intro
I see, I'll go though that and see, complete beginner here so it should be fine. Thank you!
cool enjoy
how do I use little fermat theorem to find all the residues of a^3 mod 7
and why since 7 is prime I dont need to check all the residues
Wtf
(a^3)^2 maybe?
if 7 does not divide a, what does that mean for the residues
why don’t you try it out first
0^3,…,6^3 mod 7
what values do they take on?
and how can you explain why they take on the values they do take on using Fermat?
Since the exponent is already smaller than p-1, I don't think there's much to do for Fermat's little theorem in this particular task.
the exponent is (p-1)/2 though, so Fermat is helpful
Hmm, right.
I do understand the proof but I'm also contemplating what happens if you sub in n = 4 into n = d1 x d2
if n =4 then d1 x d2 - 1 = 3 so it wouldnt work
it makes sense now
x^2 ≡ 251 mod 779. how to prove that this has solutions? it is easy to show that x^2 ≡ 251 mod 19 and y^2 ≡ 251 mod 41 has solutions but how can i write down the prove in a good way
once you established that those congruences have solutions, choose "a" a solution for the first one and "b" a solution for the second one;
then consider the system
t ≡ a (mod 19)
t ≡ b (mod 41)
So x^2 ≡ 251 mod 19 ≡ 4 mod 19, then x ≡ 2 mod 19 implies x^2 ≡ 4 mod 19, similarly y ≡ 13 mod 41 implies y^2 ≡ 169 mod 41 ≡ 5 mod 41 ≡ 251 mod 41
yes, that works
just a remark: we don't necessarily need actual values for a and b
one can establish that they exist using Legendre's symbol
how would you write it formally regirous as a full answer?
so that's a good start; then consider the system that I mentioned and use CRT to establish that it has solutions
then generate a solution for x^2 = 251 (mod 779) based on t
what do you mean by generate. Since i have found such x and y then
z ≡ 2 (mod 19)
z ≡ 13 (mod 41)
than z has a unique solution modulo 779
so i think thus z^2 ≡ 251 mod 779 has solutions direclty
yes
but im unsure of the formality writing way
i also did it in that way before
but have a bit trouble about how to write it down formally in a good way and reasoning
since x^2 ≡ 251 mod 19 ≡ 4 mod 19, then x ≡ 2 mod 19 implies x^2 ≡ 4 mod 19, similarly y ≡ 13 mod 41 implies y^2 ≡ 169 mod 41 ≡ 5 mod 41 ≡ 251 mod 41, there is a z in Z by CRT s.t.
z ≡ 2 (mod 19) (implies z^2 ≡ 251 (mod 19))
z ≡ 13 (mod 41) (implies z^2≡ 251 (mod 41))
thus this system has a unique solution for z^2 modulo 779. Since 251 is a solution, by uniqueness this implies z^2 = 251 mod 779 has a solution.
you should mention CRT when you introduce z
by CRT there is z such that...
I won't write "z ≡ 2 (mod 19) and z^2 ≡ 251 (mod 19)" because the second one is implied by the first one, so it's not like we have two conditions
such that "z=2 (mod 19) and z=13 (mod 41)"
and then mention that this implies z^2=251 (mod 19) and z^2=251 (mod 41)
here im a bit unsure of saying z^2 ≡ 251 mod 779 has a solution. I would rather say that by CRT z^2 has solution modulo 779
but there the information that z^2 ≡ 251 mod 779 is missing
we don't need unicity for this part, and in fact z is not unique modulo 779 (only z^2 is unique)
the point here is that CRT guarantees that the conditions z^2=251 (mod 19) and z^2=251 (mod 41) are equivalent to z^2=251 (mod 779)
why? i dont see it clearly from the definition.
"Let p, q be coprime. Then the system of equations
z ≡ a (mod p)
z ≡ b (mod q)
has a unique solution for z modulo pq."
so the system z^2 = 251 mod 19 and z^2 = 251 mod 41 has a unique solution for z^2 mod 779
namely z^2 = 251 mod 779
the system
x=a (mod p)
x=a (mod q)
has a unique solution mod pq, but "a" is a solution, so x=a (mod pq)
but we don't really need CRT for this argument: we have p | x-a and q | x-a, so pq | x-a
the other direction, that if x = a mod pq then x = a mod p and x = a mod q, just follows from the fact that if two numbers are equal mod pq they're equal mod p
oh i see now ur pont
yep that clears
yeah the point where crt matters is uniqueness
there isn't any other z^2 such that z^2 = 251 mod 19 and z^2 = 251 mod 41, that isn't equal to 251 mod 779, by crt
i see
is this now a rigorous proof?
here's a way to get an explicit construction, although it's not minimal it's clear when you reduce it mod 19 and mod 41 that it collapses back down since it either goes to 0 or 1 by flt:
z = 2*41^18 + 13*19^40
Is 2 the right answer for a) and any hints for b)? In the proof of a) I noticed that the two solutions will be given by a ≡ 0 mod 2^12, a ≡ 1 mod 5^12 and a ≡ 1 mod 2^12, a ≡ 0 mod 5^12. Starting with the first, this means a = α2^12 so substituting in the second equation α2^12 ≡ 1 mod 5^12, so I guess I can write down the solution in terms of the inverse of 2^12 modulo 5^12, but that doesn't seem sufficient?
@shrewd gust the answer is indeed 2 for a)
you can use CRT to finish your proof
for b) you can work inductively by noticing that any solution for the equation modulo 10^(k+1) is also a solution for the equation modulo 10^k
Oh what, so the solutions are just 376 and 90625 for all k >= 5?
no, because 376 mod 10^3 is not the same as 376 mod 10^5, for example
but the idea is to get information from smaller modulo
Right, I see, but what is true is that the other solution for k=5 has to be congruent to 376 mod 10³, correct?
Because otherwise there would be 3 solutions for k=3
Let me see if I can get that to work, thanks a lot!
Mhm, I spent some time to calculate by hand that the second solution for k=4 is 9375, but I guess this isn't the winning strategy
Basically I solved (a+376)² ≡ a+376 mod 10^4 by hand to find a ≡ 9000 mod 10^4
Is there a more intelligent way to do the lift?
I'm thinking about finding some recurrences
according to WA these should be the solutions, so I guess there are going to be many calculations
Yikes
One way is to start with 5 and keep squaring it until you get a to enough digits, then get the other one as 1-a since a^2-a=0 has two solutions a(1-a)=0 which is the other one, so you get both for free.
alternatively you can use the Newton recursion x_{i+1} = x_i - f(x_i)/f'(x_i) which actually doubles the number of digits with each iteration, so ceil(log_2(12)) = 4 steps that way
there's more to say about either method but I don't wanna swamp you - lmk if you have any questions or doubts
Can anyone help me with these problems I have zero clue how to do it
If you really have no clue, then cheat and do part (ii) first. You'll then notice a (very clear) pattern in which elements you can find inverses for, and you can then go back to (i) and pretend you knew all of the time that was the answer you had to justify ...
Thank you
is there a simpler method than euclidean algorithm?
oh
there isn't
nvm
there is: in a finite commutative ring every element is either a zero divisor or a unit.
since 16 = 2^4, and 8 = 2^3, any even class in the ring is a zero divisor. thus all the units are the odd class.
we only have to compute explicit units for prime numbers. then we just need to check 3, 5, 7, 11, 13. clearly 3 and 11 are paired, and 7 is paired with itself. then 5 and 13 must also be paired either with themselves or each other. 25 is not 1 mod 16 so they must be paired with each other, and it's easy to check 9 and 15 using (xy)^-1 = x^-1 y^-1
i personally consider this strictly easier than computing a shit ton of things with the euclidean algorithm.
hint for this:
in a finite commutative ring every element is either a zero divisor or a unit
||let R be a finite commutative ring (with unity, i guess) and let a\ in R ||
||consider f: R --> R, x \to ax||
note: in this case you can probably just look at it and do it but imo this is more generally useful
It looks like you're assuming the (canonical representative of the) inverse of a prime must itself be a prime? That happens to be the case here, but it's more by accident than by design because almost all of the odd numbers under 16 are prime anyway.
But for example the inverse of 3 modulo 256 is 171, which is not prime.
(I agree that such ad-hoc reasoning, or even exhaustive search, feels preferable to the the extended euclidean algorithm for moduli as small as 16, though).
also maybe worth noting that e.g. 3*7=5 mod 16, so knowing the inverse of 3 and 7 would be enough to find the inverse of 5. a number being prime in Z does not mean its prime in Z_n
fair!
oooh, def fair!
having said that, checking the normal primes works fine in cases like these too, i think
The real underlying point is that whether or not a number is prime in N has essentially no bearing on the properties of its image in Z/nZ. Indeed, every invertible element of Z/nZ will have both prime and composite representatives in N.
Eulers totient function is so cringe. What information can you even derive from an arbitrary natural number n just from knowing how many natural numbers less than n are coprime to n?
It feels like a random piece of trivia as opposed to an important function which is the engine behind some neat theorems that I want to understand.
The order of the group of units of Z/nZ is $\phi(n)$
eigenpuppet
This lets you compute inverses in $U(Z/nZ)$
eigenpuppet
And this again leads to Euler's theorem, which is an important tool for modular exponentiation.
HM well
last time i used euler tiotent
was becuase exponential
or it just serves as a helpfull notation
knowing a formula for which helps us do other things
I found all of these random number theory functions less cringe after I learned about the dirichlet convolution and how all these multiplicative functions form a group. Makes them a lot easier to play with
for instance, a proof that the multiplicative group of a finite field uses $\sum_{d|n}\varphi(d)=n$. That sum on its own at least isn't hard to derive knowing about some basic Dirichlet convolution stuff like the Mobius function.
Merosity
@primal pewter if it's not too much trouble would you mind checking my proof
isn’t the Euler totient usually introduced directly in the context of euler’s theorem lol
There is an error when you express x^n - 1 in terms of S_n. It should be S_n = x(x^n - 1)/(x-1), so x^n - 1 = (x-1)/x * S_n.
However, this doesn't affect the calculation of the gcd, so the rest is correct.
Notice that the calculations can be done the same way directly on x^a - 1 and x^b - 1, without expressing them in terms of S_a and S_b.
Thank you
I didn’t see the direct way but now I understand
suppose g = gcd(4, p - 1) = 2 then p - 1 = 2k where k is odd
im still confused by how k must be odd
(if k was even then g = 4)
i need more explanation for this one
you can plug that in directly, gcd(4, p-1) = gcd(4, 2k) if k is even then you could write it as k=2n and it would be gcd(4,4n)=4
Thanks 👍
not sure it's related to the topic but is there a way to represent this in a simple expression? $$d_{m-1}\cdot a^{m-1}+d_{m-2}\cdot a^{m-2}+\cdots+d_{0}\cdot a^{0}$$
horizon2.0
at first i thought sum of geometric series but that doesnt work
sigma notation
well yeah but i meant like some closed form, not sure sigma notaion will be of use to me, trying to prove that when moving from number base $a$ to number base $a^n$ you can take $n$ digits and convert them to a single digit in base $a^n$
horizon2.0
summation by packets
Partition the summation space into different sets, then sum over the sums over each subset
anyone has any ideas for this?
this is special case of ramanujan’s theta function but im not sure how i’m suppose to manipulate the series to get to RHS
Im stuck at this Problem in number theory if 6m+1, 12m+1, 18m+1 are prime there Product is a Carmichael number iam supposed to proof that but don’t know how can somebody help me out.
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
<@&268886789983436800>
Idk, but maybe you can shift n such that the sum is even about 0 and reduce that to a sum from 0 to infinity?
But what you have so far doesn’t look right
(Theorem.) Every integer $n \geq 2$ is either a prime or a product of primes.
James
Since m is the least criminal, both a and b are "honest".
how did they deduce that?
or more clearly, how did they deduce that a and b are honest from the fact that m is the least criminal?
weird, they say it's not a "product of primes" but then say since it' snot prime, it's composite. I'm not really aware of a difference between "composite" and "product of primes"
does that make the proof not valid in some way?
I'm assuming they define it in the context of the preceding 3 pages I've missed there to make the distinction
clever? debatable
specifically this bit here looks like a contradiction to me to deduce, because it can't be composite since they specify it is not a product of primes
so any reasoning after that where they factor it as a composite makes no sense to me
so they try to make a distinction between "product of primes" and "composite numbers", where there isn't any?
but since this is page 4 of chapter 1, I'm guessing they like introduced these terms really quickly and this is like some kind of silly distinction they made to get started
I don't know without reading
or well, I won't read but you can reread and tell us 😛
they claim that m must be composite(aka a product of primes), but just before that they say m is neither prime nor a product of primes(aka composite)
strange
Rotman is considered good for Algebra
Okay, this definition makes sense with the proof you sent. Usually composite numbers are defined as a product of primes, but here it is not so. The definition only tells us composite numbers are not primes. It is our job to show that not primes must be a product of primes
so 1 and -1 are composite
hmm
oh okay
I suppose the motives of the author(s) was to make the most minimalist(clean?) definitions possible, and deduce as much as possible. This strategy seems to have backfired.
tbh it's not even clear that 1 and -1 are not prime from their definition either haha
no I take that back, they do specify n >= 2 to be prime

what about this tho?
I am not still not able to clearly see this
If m is the least criminal, all the other numbers smaller than m must be honest
Its like saying 3 is the least number greater than or equal to 3, so every number smaller than 3 must be smaller than 3
Haha happens, especially when you are in a mess of definitions like we are here. It is easy to lose track.
This book came in highly recommended
I resonate with the writing so far
it has a certain rhythm to it
I also skimmed some parts about permutation groups
how do i find a solution to a linear diophantine equation ax+by=c?
extended euclidean algorithm
Something obvious, but I just wanted to confirm; here, we say the greatest common divisor of 2 integers can never be greater than max( |a|, |b|) because of the case where one of the integers is zero, right? Because if both of them are non-zero, the condition would reduce to gcd never greater than min(|a|,|b|)
it says
If a and b are not both 0
so no i don't think that's what's going on
i think you're right that the bound min(|a|, |b|) is true, it's just not what they decided to use
which is fair, there isn't actually any benefit in this situation to using a tighter bound, we just need that one exists at all
no, one of them can be zero, right? Just that both a and b should not be zero is what they mean ig
...oh right yeah that is what it says, i read it as "both not 0" lol
ok so yeah you're right
Ok, Thanks
How do I solve the modular equation
x^(12) ≡ 4 (mod 17) if 3 is a prime root of modulo 17?
Find the power of 3 that works
3 9 10 13 5 15 11 16 14 8 7 4 and then 12 2 6 1
So 4 = 3^12
How kind of them, you can skip step 2 here
hi weird question but
if a ≡ 2 (mod 3), b ≡2 (mod 3) does a/b ≡ 1 (mod 3)
btw a ≡ 0 (mod b)
division doesn't exactly work the same way in modular arithmetic, while Z3 is a field and you can talk about 1/b, this won't hold true for every Zn. Instead you can think about 1/b as the multiplicative inverse of b, b^-1. With that in mind notice that 2^2 = 1 mod 3 so 2 is its own inverse, or rather b^-1 = 2 mod 3. Thus "a/b" = ab^-1 = 2*2 = 1 mod 3
can anyone help me with numbet theory question,
Find all pairs of positive integers ((a, b)) satisfying
[a^2 - b! = 2024.]
Fate
As soon as b! is divisible by a larger power of 2 than 2024 is divisible by (8), you will always have 2024+b! divisible by exactly 8 and no higher power of 2. But this can never be solved since 2^3 is an odd exponent while a^2 has an even exponent.
yeah it's pretty confusing to say in words like that haha
in general if you have integers n and m which are are divisible by different powers of a prime number, then n+m is divisible by exactly the lower power of the two primes and not more than that
is that some theorem?
so 5+25 = 30 is exactly divisible by 5 because 5 is divisible once and 25 twice
It is trivial to prove
the high brow way of calling this is "the p-adic's ultrametric inequality's strong property" lol
alright, so how would u formally "solve" the task? that it is just 45 and 1
They just did
find the smallest b so that b! is divisible by a power of 2 larger than 8
then you have to check all those cases up to that point to be sure
okay
Maybe it helps to look at an example, let's say you pick the large value b=10 then we have a^2 = 2024 +10! = 2^3 * 253 + 2^8 * 14175
Now that we have a^2 = 2^3 * ( 253 + 2^5 * 14175) you can check that (253 + 2^5 * 14175) is odd.
This means whatever power of 2 is dividing a^2 will be 2^3, but 3 is odd while every power of 2 in a^2 will have an even exponent, so it can't be solved.
I would have just said, consider mod 16. seems like the easier perspective
thanks
do u know how to do this find all pairs ((x, p)), where (x) is an integer, (p) is a prime number, and they satisfy the equation:
[x^3 + x^2 + x + 1 = p^2.]
Fate
good point that's easier. The way I worked it out was literally just |a|^2 = |2024+b!| = |2|^3 (when |2024|>|b!|) with the 2-adic absolute value, so I was trying to make that friendlier but it's too wordy haha
what have you tried
I'm playing around with factoring it to find a simpler solution. I have proved that this is the only one that works though by other methods
yeah that's right cause you already got the only p even solution
actually that looks like that solves this looking mod 4 already
We have (x²+1)(x+1)=p²
So either x²+1=p² and x+1=1 or x²+1=x+1=p
The first case gives x=0 (not possible, since p=1 isn't prime) and the second gives x=1 and p=2
ye that is right
Prove that the only integer solution to the equation ( x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 4xyz ) is ( (x, y, z) = (0, 0, 0) ).
Fate
@torn escarp
Suppose there exists another integer solution, then one can prove that x, y, and z are all divisible by 4. Let x=2m, y=2n, z=2l. You will get m²+n²+l²=8mnl
And now repeat
You will get an infinite decreasing sequence of nonzero integer solutions
Which isn't possible
on some real shit
came across this problem
I have a hunch that the solution permutation is of the form
$$[1, \cdots, k - 1, n - 1, n - 2, \cdots, k]$$ I'll try to prove it later
Abdullah Zero 🇵🇸
thus, the permutation up to 1 ... k-1 is just the sum of first k-1 squares which can be done in O(1) time, but how about the second partition of the permutation?
is there a way to compute the dot product of say [i..j] * [j..i] in constant time?
Would anyone like to do a study group for elementary number theory?
Just wondering: is there any possible use that the Collatz Conjecture could have if proven?
possibly any tricks or methods used to solve it would be reused or generalized to tackle similar problems in arithmetic dynamics
ok
The problem itself is not important except for its stubborn resistance to being solved, especially considering how elementary its statement is.
Can I get a tip on this question? I've been able to prove that the common divisor sets of (a,b) and (a, b + ka) are the same, which shows that gcd(a, b) = gcd(a, b + ka) for any a, b, k in Z, but I'm not sure how to proceed from here...
I'd reason that gcd(a+b,a-b) = gcd(2a, a-b), and that needs to be either gcd(a, a-b) or 2·gcd(a, a-b).
But that's a bit handwavy, so for an actual proof I expect it would be neater to go for Bezout's identity.
With Bezout, you can assume ma + nb = 1, and note that (m+n)(a+b) + (m-n)(a-b) = 2(ma+nb) = 2, so gcd(a+b,a-b) is 1 or 2.
For the other one, note that (2m-n)(2a+b) + (2n-m)(a+2b) = 3(ma + nb)
Good observation
This seems like something that should be easy, given $a, b \in \mathbb{N}$, what $m, n \in \mathbb{N}$ satisfies:
$$a^{m+n} \mod b = a^{m} \mod b$$
So we can rearrange this to: $a^m \left( a^n - 1 \right) \mod b = 0$
If b is prime, this seems pretty easy with fermat, m = 1, and n = b
This might be cleaned up a bit, but we can split it up with the chinese remainder theorem into all the prime powers of b, then we're solving $a^m(a-1)=0 \mod p^k$ where $k=v_p(b)$.
Merosity
nice thing is this means when $v_p(a)>0$ we have to have $m \ge \frac{v_p(b)}{v_p(a)}$ and when $v_p(a)=0$ we have $ord_{p^k}(a) | n$
Merosity
so that completely answers it, although I didn't really explain how I came to that
I can go through the details if you want, or if you wanna try working through some of that on your own as mod p^k now
Yes you didn't but I think that does answer it. I'll need to try get the details down here.
Here k = v_p(b) means, in b's factorization how many powers of p appears in it.
yeah, so like b=12 let's say, v_2(12)=2 and v_3(12)=1
the main trick I'm leaning on is v_p(a) =0 or >0 splits into entirely distinct cases and handling those from there is "easy" after that
Also your saying:
If $s \mod t = 0$, where $t$ has prime factors $p_1^{k_1}, p_2^{k_2}, \dots$
Then we can be split the problem with CRT into
$s \mod p_1^{k_1} = 0$, $s \mod p_2^{k_2} = 0$ and so on
yeah exactly
What does ord_{p^k} denote here?
I'm trying to interpret this question:
I don't know what "gcd(a, b) = d for any d in Z+" means
ord_m(a) means the smallest number r you can pick to make a^r=1 mod m
Ah right
Does anyone actually know what it's asking us to prove here?
Yeah, so it's saying, if for any d, we have gcd(a,b) = d and we can find an (x,y) such that ax + by = d, then gcd(x, y) = 1
Ok, since gcd(a, b) is a fixed number, then for all but one d value this is like a F => T type statement?
I'm guessing since d is a common divisor of a and b, we can divide ax + by = d by d?
Yeah, I get the algebra, but I'm having trouble parsing the statement
Like we can totally remove d and just replace it by gcd(a, b) right?
Yeah.
I read the statement is, given some a, b, d such that satisfies: gcd(a, b) = d and ax + by = d
Show that gcd(x, y) = 1, I might be wrong though.
if d != gcd(a, b) then it holds vacuously so I think we can throwaway d though
The problem statement is somehat confusingly worded with the "for any d in Z+" in the middle of the sentence.
Yeah, it makes d and a,b's relation seem weird.
What it should be that some a,b,d where gcd(a,b) = d or for any a,b let gcd(a,b) = d
Hmm, also interestingly I believe we can prove this without the algebra
But from a bit of experience, I'm pretty sure it should be interpreted as:
Show for every d in Z+ that if gcd(a,b)=d and ax+by=d, then ...
since gcd(a, b) = 1, there exist x, y st ax + by = 1, but changing roles of a ,x and b, y, we've found a linear combination of x, y that yield 1, so gcd(x, y) = 1 as well, does this seem valid?
I don't think your allowed to assume gcd(a,b) = 1
Ah I see my bad
Right, so I guess we do need that bit of algebra
Along the same lines I wanted to prove that {ax + by : x, y in Z} is the set of all integral multiple of gcd(a, b). For simplicity let g := gcd(a, b), then for any ax + by, then we have that (a/g)x + (b/g) y where a/g, b/g, in Z, does this prove the claim?
I believe you have proved it. It depends on how detailed you want your proof, but you can also try to prove a/g is in Z and why it implies gcd(x,y)=1, though some might consider it trivial.
Sorry in the question I just posed, it's certainly possible that gcd(x, y) != 1
I'm trying to show that set {ax + by: x, y in Z} (e.g. x = y = 2 works) is the set of all integral multipesl of gcd(a, b)
Oh this is a different question from this one?
Yes, this is a new one
Oh okay.
It just used some similar algebra
I was just trying to say given any ax + b y in that set, we know that g divides it by our previous observation
But I think more work is required because we need to show we can get any multiple, so for example the multiple 5g, we would need to show thats in our set S
I think I have it now.
This proves that if an elements is in S, then it is an integer multiple of gcd(a,b).
To prove that if we have an integer multiple of gcd(a,b), then it is in S, it's just applying Bezout and multiplying.
Symbolically, you've proven: r ∈ S → gcd(a,b) | r
but not: gcd(a,b) | r → k ∈ S
Genuinely have no idea how someone comes up with this so quickly.
you are what you eat, 
Looking at this one:
I'm not sure if this question is wrong or if I'm interpreting it wrong, but if say a = 3, and b = 5, then wouldn't 3, 8, 13 all of the same remainder when divided by b = 5? If that's the case, does anyone know what they actually meant here?
they're wrong, since all the integers are a+bn, they're all a mod b.
I'm not really sure which direction they wanted to go with it, I'm thinking they meant a, 2a, 3a, 4a, ..., (b-1)a all mod b
I'd bet that's what they meant, and if they didn't, it's still a very useful thing to know
Yeah I think that's correct, I'll try proving that one
