#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 14 of 1
there are about 3 separate cases I considered in order to funnel it into that
they're not too serious tbh
_basudev
d(100-n) is small, so try to check cases of 9(n-2) close to a multiple of 170
This problem is quite an annoying case check, old bmo1 was more like this
There are at most 90 cases for naive brute force
Therefore the problem is to just reduce the case checking
Yes bmo1 2001
I funking hate case work dude 
waaaa i hate that i struggle so with even the most elementary number theory problems… they’re so freaking elegant i feel left out

can someone rec me a book with REALLY simple number theory exercises?

but simple exercises only mean u ain't gonna learn and be challenged much
i have the exact same problem 😭
i did the ones in judson and rotman the first chapters lol
sorry for late response but.. It's actually quite easy I'm just dumb, here's my take (2 different approaches) $$$$
- Check all the intervals
$$ab \geq 0$$ and $$ab \leq 0$$
So basically if a and b are of the same sign, or different sign
For $ab \geq 0$, it's simple: $|a+b| = |a| + |b|, |a-b| \geq 0 \implies |a+b| + |a-b| \geq |a| + |b|$.
For $ab \leq 0$, it's quite the same: $|a| + |b| = |a-b|, |a+b| \geq 0 \implies |a+b| + |a-b| \geq |a| + |b|$.
$$$$ - Just dig right in
I don't know what it's called in your country, but in my country it's called the absolute value inequality, it states
$$|a+b| \leq |a| + |b|$$, equality is achieve when a and b are of the same signs.
Hence: $|a + b + a - b| \leq |a+b| + |a-b| \implies 2|a| \leq |a+b| + |a-b|$.
Note: $|a-b|$ = $|b-a|$, so we do the same thing but for $|b-a|$ $$$$.
Finally, $|a+b| + |a-b| \geq 2|a|$ and $|a+b| + |a-b| \geq 2|b|$, in other words: $2 \cdot |a+b| + |a-b| \geq 2|a| + 2|b| \implies |a+b| + |a-b| \geq |a| + |b|$.
as for your pointer 2, we call it the triangle equality
oops messed up texit
oh rlly
like the $$|a+b| \leq |a| + |b|$$ you mean
....
oh yeah it is
k thanks
Atom
oh my god ykw im gonna stop editing that
7 being coprime with ten, it generates the entirety of Z/10^2023 Z
Then you easily know its order
oh nvm, I had that property in mind for the additive group
we're looking for the number of elements in the multiplicative subgroup generated by 7
yes it divides phi(10^2023) = 10^2023 * 1/2 * 4/5
I think in general finding the order of an element is very hard, unless n is prime
If $\pi^2$ is irrational then surely $\pi$ is irrational?
Contrapositive $\pi=\frac{a}{b}\Rightarrow \pi^2=\frac{a^2}{b^2}$
Max
Yup
Silverman's A Friendly Introduction to Number Theory might be what you want, the exercises vary between easy but also some open ended questions
wonderful, thank you

@opal obsidian
What
You can do exercises from the AMC competition
for Euler's totient function, why is this the case?
how do they get the $p^{k-1}$ term in that equation?
Kalgar
I am not seeing it
I can observe that they are crossing out mulitples of p
so are they saying that there are $p^{k-1}$ multiples of p from 0 up to $p^{k}-1$?
Kalgar
I don't see how
yep
the fact that it's a power of a prime isn't really relevant here, for any two numbers n and m there are n multiples of m up to nm
is this supposed to be an obvious fact lol
I don't see
seems pretty unintuitive ...
wait hang on i'm getting mixed up about what n and m are, sorry
Lol
the multiplies of m less than nm are 0m, 1m, 2m, 3m, 4m, ..., (n-2)m, (n-1)m
and 0, 1, 2, ..., n-2, n-1 is n numbers
yeah, since p^k is a multiple of p, it means exactly 1/p of them are divisible by p.
Wait, why must the gcd always be positive?
is this based on a previous discussion or is this a new question
on its own, it really doesn't matter if you include -1 or not in the gcd, since -1 is an invertible integer
you could always divide it out or multiply it in without affecting the other integer divisors
every positive number n could be rewritten as (-1)(-1)*n to make it appear to have -1 as a divisor, if that feels better to you too
Yes.
Any help will be appreciated
1, c, 7c-8
So u2 | u3 is already a big constraint.
Then I guess going a bit further limits it to probably just one case where it actually works and for which you find a proof
Next term is 9(7c-8) - 15c = 48c - 72 = 24(2c-3) adds even more constraints, etc...
my preliminary guess is all divisors of c must be of the form +-1 mod 12
Is a complete system of residues a powerset, or simply a set
i.e. are the set elements equivalence classes (sets) or only the equivalence class representatives themselves
sounds like you're using the term 'powerset' incorrectly, the powerset of A is the set of all subsets of A
I think I see what you're asking, is the set of residues a set of integers or is it a set of sets of elements of the same equivlance class
maybe your book or whatever cares about this, but in practice you can interchange between either thinking of your operations on the equivalence classes or just by using a single representative
for instance even + odd = odd, i.e. thinking of these as the operations on the equivalence classes, you could just as well just pick a representative from these sets and use that, 2+1=3 and replace 3 with 1 since they lie within the same equivalence class
How?
I don't think that original guess is worth thinking about anymore, at least I think this is probably better to pursue
How do you come up with this ?
Cause the first few terms immediately reduce it to 1 value
Then I didn't attempt to prove it for this one
I only looked at the first term u_3 and then after seeing that restricted it to 4 terms I didn't bother looking further than that
I came to this roughly 2 ways but I didn't think them through very far, I don't feel like they'd be helpful here to sigmascribe so I won't distract them with it
it's probably wrong too
||u4 further restricts it to 2, so that would make it not a solution, which is kinda sus||
||cause I think c=2 still holds after u6||
||unless I just programmed it wrong I have u_3=12 and u_4=98 for c=2, which doesn't work||
Ah yep I forgot ^ is not exponentiation in python lol
Bitwise AND moment
when c=2, I think u_n=n!, I think we can probably confirm that by plug and chug
yeah that works if you plug it into the recursive formula and work it out
just confirmed it
(2n+1)(n-1)! - (n^2-1)(n-2)!
= (n-1)!(2n+1 - (n+1)) = n!
yey
nifty, I suppose if we wanted to be devious we could have made arbitrarily bad k-term recurrence relations by pulling n! apart
probably where this problem originated from originally
just some asshole cooked this idea up
asshole 😭
take simple thing -> mess it up for no good reason -> slap "olympiad/competition problem on it" -> torture children
I think we could generalize this method of torture by taking any function we like, preferably one that already satisfies some other recurrence relation, then expanding it out and separating terms, adding and subtracting random junk, then removing the function we used and placing it with some random one with some free parameter
why are you coming up with the torture mero
takes one to know one 
okay geez still tho we only know a few values which work for this
yeah, but as long as we're making a trapdoor we can take our time to try random stuff, if it's too difficult/annoying to confirm we can just pick something else
What is gauss's theorem
Surely they're not expecting me to use a theorem that I haven't even heard of ... in the proof of a proposition right?
gcd(a, p) divides gcd(a, pq), because p divides pq
and the only positive integer that divides 1 is 1
ok help me test this new problem I just made.
For integers $c$, the sequence $u_n$ of integers is defined by $u_1=1$, $u_2=c$, and $u_n=-(n-1)u_{n-1}+nu_{n-2}+n^2$ for $n\ge 3$. For which values of $c$ does this sequence have the property that $\gcd(u_n,u_{n-1}) = n$ when $n \ne 2 \mod 4$?
Merosity
no idea how difficult this problem is for the record, I'm going to be attempting it myself, but I have a distinct solution in mind
I just don't know if it's unique or not
you know what I messed up on that gcd condition damn
should be the gcd is n when n is odd, n/2 when n is even
😭
hopefully that's right now, I'm tired lol
ok I think I've effectively proven that it's unique
actually I'm pretty sure the gcd condition is superfluous too
I'm still trying to freaking write the code to compute the sequence ffs smth is WRONG WITH MYU COMPILER ISTG
but whatever, red herrings are nice
err, wait that doesn't make sense without that condition we'd just be able to put all values of c, jeez I'm tired w/e
i picked up the silverman and will dig into it once i find the time, but if anyone else comes asking for a very simple introduction i just stumbled across this:
it is VERY simple
just what i need

seeing it is by Weil makes me doubt
well they were originally lecture notes from a course he gave in the university of chicago, and seeing the introduction he was mocking the target audience and was very much against these lecture notes being published at all haha
sounds more like him?
hey guys apologies if this is rude but Im stuck on a question in the probability -statistics channel if anyone has a moment to help me, only asking because I noticed this channel was active and im in a rush
is this a uni library?
still working this sht out
ah ic
pog
honestly i can’t get over how big it is
and i still i always ask for more

admittedly, brainlessly
hedonistically, mwahaha

i’m sure i could phrase that more erotically if i wanted to
without losing the originally intended, innocent interpretation
What 
no, just $\gcd(u_n,u_{n-1}) = n$ when $n$ is odd and $\gcd(u_n,u_{n-1}) = n/2$ when $n$ is even. no extra mod 4 conditions after that either
Merosity
yeah
The sequence $u_n$ of integers is defined by $u_1=1$, $u_2=c$, and $u_n=-(n-1)u_{n-1}+nu_{n-2}+n^2$ for $n\ge 3$. For which values integer of $c$ does this sequence have the property that for every $n$, $\frac{\gcd(u_n,u_{n-1})}{2} = n$ when if the gcd is even and is equal to $n$ if it is odd?
o h .
Kiameimon | Welt Rene
wot
if n is even, then $\gcd(u_n,u_{n-1})=n/2$. If n is odd, then $\gcd(u_n,u_{n-1})=n$.
Merosity
here, this is fool proof now: $\gcd(u_{2k},u_{2k-1})=k$ and $\gcd(u_{2k+1},u_{2k})=2k+1$
Merosity
I'm having a brain fart here
why is $k(\floor{n/p^k} - \floor{n/p^{k+1}}) = \floor{n/p^k}$
who says it is?
take k=1 and the floor(n/p^k) parts drop off leaving floor(n/p^2)=0 which is false when n>=p^2
here's the full context
Telescoping sum
Has anybody done with my question?
Mate, we're not going to do it for you; people have given you ways to approach it so maybe you should look into those
what's the name of the subset S ⊆ Z^2 of coprime pairs
The set of coprime pairs of integers 
Does my proof work, and do I actually need the highlighted line to complete the proof?
yes its necessary so you dont have any overlaps which make the ei non even
how do you prove this inverse statement
I am not familliar with the structure of a claim being "P => q1 OR q2 OR q3 OR ... OR qn"
do I do ... induction?
but I have a final case
n= m2-m1
I think it's annoying how they've written it, I'd rather write it as a=b mod m_1 and then a=b + c*m_1 mod m_2 then with c ranging from {0, 1, ..., m_2/m_1 - 1}
maybe it'd be a bit clearer if I defined d = m_2/m_1 so that you can see m_2 = d*m_1 and c ranges from {0, 1, 2, ..., d-1}
idk, maybe how they've written it is fine too, it's a matter of perspective/taste I suppose. The way they've written it makes it pretty clear that they're adding multiples of m_1 until eventually they run out, if they add another m_1 it will be m_2 which is the same as the first case which adds 0 mod m_2
hopefully this at least helps make it clearer what you're supposed to prove here
Thanks!
btw, can such statements of the structure "P => q1 OR q2 OR q3 OR ... OR qn" mentioned above be proven directly?
where p and q_i are individual statements themselves
depends, it's sort of too generic of a question to answer
ah ok
I thought there would be a general method that works most of the time
like with the "...then the following are equivalent" statements
where you prove q1 => q2 => q3=> q1 type thing
I guess I'd probably seek to try to find a common pattern among the q_i at least
to try to find some commonality to focus on rather than do each one individually if I could help it
...there's never really a "general method" to proving anything interesting
What is the issue?
Seems trivial enough
the prime factorization of m and n:m = p₁^a₁ * p₂^a₂ * ... * pₖ^aₖ n = q₁^b₁ * q₂^b₂ * ... * qₖ^bₖHere, p₁, p₂, ..., pₖ are distinct prime factors of m, and q₁, q₂, ..., qₖ are distinct prime factors of n.
Am I on right way?
let's consider the divisors of mn. Any divisor of mn can be written as d = p₁^x₁ * p₂^x₂ * ... * pₖ^xₖ * q₁^y₁ * q₂^y₂ * ... * qₖ^yₖ, where 0 ≤ xᵢ ≤ aᵢ and 0 ≤ yᵢ ≤ bᵢ for all i.
σₖ(mn) = Σ (p₁^x₁ * p₂^x₂ * ... * pₖ^xₖ * q₁^y₁ * q₂^y₂ * ... * qₖ^yₖ)^k
But you didn't finish the prove. Now you have to show its equal to sigma_k(m) *sigma_k(n)
Wait
I just realised I did the profo werong
i can't use induction can i
since it's not true **for all **c
this is wrong right?
I know but am I on right way?
I mean yeah, you used and transcribe in mathematics all informations and this is always a good way to start. But it is not a waste of time to sometime try blindly a problem and make mistake, especially if the proof is not to long ( as in this case ).
we need to obtain terms like (p₁^x₁)^k * (q₁^y₁)^k and so on. These terms are present in both σₖ(m) and σₖ(n)
σₖ(m) * σₖ(n) corresponding to common prime factor
factors of m, we can write them as σₖ(m) = Σ (p₁^x₁ * p₂^x₂ * ... * pₖ^xₖ)^k
σₖ(n) = Σ (q₁^y₁ * q₂^y₂ * ... * qₖ^yₖ)^k.
Since the individual prime factors are raised to the power of k, these terms are multiplicative in nature. And since the prime factorizations of m and n are coprime, their corresponding terms in σₖ(m) and σₖ(n) are also coprime.Therefore, when we multiply σₖ(m) and σₖ(n) together, we get σₖ(m) * σₖ(n) = σₖ(mn), which proves that the function σₖ(n) is multiplicative for all real numbers k.
anybody is alive?
i think it'd be easier to prove it for distinct primes sigmak(p^aq^b) and then you can do general m and n by induction
nix (axler hater)
Thanks for the suggestion but please check my further work
This is right?
that doesn't look right
your work is hard to read and doesn't look like it's actually proving it. why is sum(p's and q's)=sum(p's)sum(q's)?
σₖ(n) (the sum of the k-th powers of divisors), we have:
σₖ(p^a * q^b) = 1 + (p * q)^k + (p * q)^(2k) + ... + (p * q)^(ak) + (p * q)^(k + k) + ... + (p * q)^(bk)
σₖ(p^a) * σₖ(q^b) = (1 + p^k + p^(2k) + ... + p^(ak)) * (1 + q^k + q^(2k) + ... + q^(bk))
Assume that σₖ(m) * σₖ(n) = σₖ(mn)
m = p₁^a₁ * p₂^a₂ * ... * pₖ^aₖ
n = q₁^b₁ * q₂^b₂ * ... * qₖ^bₖ.
By induction
σₖ(p^a) * σₖ(q^b) = σₖ(p^a * q^b)
you still haven't shown that σₖ(p^a * q^b)=σₖ(p^a) * σₖ(q^b). and your σₖ(p^a * q^b) is missing a lot of terms. where is +p^k or +q^k?
as a hint, try to separate $\sigma_k(p^aq^b)$ in terms of the powers of $p$. so you have $p^0$(stuff with $q$'s)$+\ldots+p^a$(stuff with $q$'s)
nix (axler hater)
σₖ(p^a * q^b) = p^0 (1 + q^k + q^(2k) + ... + q^(bk)) + p^k (1 + q^k + q^(2k) + ... + q^(bk)) + ... + p^(ak) (1 + q^k + q^(2k) + ... + q^(bk))Notice that the expression in each parenthesis is the sum of k-th powers of q^k, q^(2k), ..., q^(bk), which is σₖ(q^b).
Hence, we have:σₖ(p^a * q^b) = σₖ(q^b) + p^k * σₖ(q^b) + ... + p^(ak) * σₖ(q^b)
we have:σₖ(p^a) * σₖ(q^b) = p^0 * σₖ(q^b) + p^k * σₖ(q^b) + ... + p^(ak) * σₖ(q^b)
are you using chatgpt
lol i guess so. i thought it was odd putting so much effort into writing like σₖ and p₁^a₁, since that's not easy on a keyboard. but that's what you get if you copy chatgpt output
Nope
well. yeah. i got suspicious because there was a lot of writing/symbols with very little substance. that's what chatgpt does when it tries a hard proof. it just sort of flails around writing a lot of things that don't show what you need to show.
this looks like they copied what i said into it, and then it tried to write something that sounds like it. this is the complete reverse of what i suggested. "assume sig(m)*sig(n)=sig(mn)" and then show that "sig(p^a)*sig(q^b)=sig(p^a q^b)"? that's silly.
if it isn't chatgpt well, then... that's very unfortunate. and i'd recommend they put more time into writing a better proof than using ascii to write math instead of latex.
I wonder why it’s ascii math…
wdym ascii math
σₖ as opposed to \sigma_k
Do we consider variables like A as 65
huh
what is k
also x^2 \equiv 1 (mod p^1) should not have 2^(1+1) = 4 solutions for p prime??? It's a field: it has at most the degree of the polynomial (so in this case, it has at most 2)
Can you tell me 2here is this particular topic. I want to learn it@eternal shoal
They didn't describe what us K in the question
probably some positive integer
wtf is any of this question?
right??
Maybe I'm being obtuse, but I don't immediately see how CRT is relevent unless there's a fair bit of info missing
Don't worry too much about this question then. Seems pretty bogus to me
but you can look into the Chinese remainder theorem, and maybe quadratic residues.
nvm quadratic residues is overkill
perhaps it's like how many solutions are there to x=±1 mod p where p divides n
I suppose if you know the number of prime divisors...?
Sure, if you know the prime decomp of n you could make an argument with CRT, that makes sense. We don't have that here 
That's true
@vast cliff do you have the rest of the solution to post
of course
wh... what?? how can there be two solutions mod 1?? this is so wrong it's baffling.
I don't know what they are doing. I am totally confused with this question
I tried to learn it
well, the equation x^2 = 1 (mod 2^k) has four (incongruent) solutions so something is definitely fishy here
if p is an odd prime, x^2=1 mod p^k has exactly two solutions for all k≥1. if n=2 there is one solution, n=4 has two, and n=2^m for m≥3 has four solutions.
so it depends on how many unique prime divisors there are. it'd be a lil annoying to get a formula because of how wacky things are for even n. but the number of solutions will be a power of 2.
but as to how one is supposed to pick 2^k+2? that's just silly. there's no k even given in the problem. and there's still that random e≥3 like wtf

Yeah taking p=2 this is extra fishy... Only, 2^k elements but 2^{k+1} solutions 
Prove: There are no integers b and c such that $7b^2-c^2=2$
Kalgar
7b^2-c^2=0 is not equivalent to 2=-c^2 mod 7. It implies 2=-c^2 mod 7
Anyway, you can try all values of c mod 7 to see that there are no c such that 2=-c^2 mod 7
(alternatively use legendre symbols if you know that but if not nvm)
$\legsym{-2}{p}=1\iff p\eq1,3\bmod{8}$
nix (axler hater)
if you can use that
Where does the modulo 8 come from?
quadratic nature of 2 and -1
look up the supplements to quadratic reciprocity
no that's a different 8. though they probably pop up for similar reasons
Why are they allowed to consider mod 8 in their example then
"As an alternative, consider modulo 8"
why is that allowed
if two integers are equal, they should be congruent mod any integer
I think from an application of Gauss' lemma
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gauss's_lemma_(number_theory)
Gauss's lemma in number theory gives a condition for an integer to be a quadratic residue. Although it is not useful computationally, it has theoretical significance, being involved in some proofs of quadratic reciprocity.
It made its first appearance in Carl Friedrich Gauss's third proof (1808): 458–462 of quadratic reciprocity and he proved i...
yea see under "Applications"
this is just one of those number theory problems that you can either have a mildly long direct proof (from having to compute all the options) or basically a one line verification as long as you can use the quadratic nature formulas
these were all the ones my number theory prof let us use on exams
7 was too complicated lol
never heard of this 'quadratic nature' thing before
as long as you know how to derive them from quadratic reciprocity I guess it's just a handy shortcut table or something
for fun, try to see if you can work out the 'quadratic nature of q' table entry
I've seen them referred to as supplements to reciprocity before.
I am trying to show that there exists some integer x where x is congruent to a mod n and gcd(x,n) = 1 iff for all integers x with x congruent to a mod n we have gcd(x,n) = 1.
I can do the <- direction but I need a hint on the other one. Maybe assume that d = gcd(x,n) but im not sure what that does for me.
maybe the contrapositive would help?
gcd(a,b)=gcd(a+bk,b) for all integers k
i dont see how that helps me
Maybe you should spend some time thinking about it, because as it happens it is the key observation needed.
I have been lol. d = gcd(x,n) = gcd(x,n + xk) implies there is integers a,b such that d = ax + b(n+xk) = ax + bn + bxk = x(a + bk) + bn
a + bk is an integer, say p, so xp is congruent to d mod n
Note that if a = b (mod n) then (a,n) = (b,n).
So since we have an integer x = a (mod n) such that (x, a) = 1, then lets suppose that l is an integer such that l = a (mod n). then we know that x = l (mod n) implies that (l,n) = (x,n) = 1.
shouldn't it be (x,n) = 1? other than that I am following.
your hint also gives (a,n) = 1 since i am assuming (x,n) = 1 so i think thats where it comes from
You repeated the variable twice which is confusing, there exists an say x with that property, we want to show that for all integers (it could be different than x)
that could work also
im lost on what to do. I dont know how to show that this will hold for all integers.
I want to use bezout but I dont know if thats the right direction
'[
I just proved it for all integers that are congurent to a mod n
My dude you have been going through a whole buttload of stuff involving Z[sqrt(2)]
Maybe you should try using stuff you know about Z[sqrt(2)]
what does this question means?

I have
but I don't think it's applicable here is it?
I don't have a unit in Z[√2]
I'm gonna spoil this wildly(!) and say yes, it is applicable.
I tried my butt off
where are my units!?!
I have a^2-2b^2 as a diff of two squares (a+b√2)(a-b√2)
Units are not relevant.
but those aren't necessarily units, so I can't use the property of the norm N(x)=±1
before we go, on could you at least tell me what "properties" I should be expected to know?
becuase I actually haven't taken an abstract algebra class yet
this is from number theory
in fact, this is all that the Q actually tells me
The question told you everything you need to know.
$x\bar{x} y \bar{y}=\bar{x}\bar{y}xy=\overline{xy}xy$
Kalgar
$(a+b\sqrt{2})(c+d\sqrt{2})=ac+ad\sqrt{2}+bc\sqrt{2}+2bd=(ac+2bd)+(ad+bc)\sqrt{2} \in \mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{2}]$
Kalgar
Hence we can take $z=xy$
Kalgar
then $z\bar{z}=e^2-2f^2$ for $e,f\in\mathbb{Z}$ as req.
Kalgar
that ok? : D
Yup
Can you help me ?
Find all integers $n$ such that $$\prod_{k=0}^{n-1} (2k+1)+\sum_{k=1}^n (2k-1) +1$$ is a perfect square
Joseph.P
$$\prod_{k=0}^{n-1} (2k+1)+\sum_{k=1}^n (2k-1) +1=\dfrac{(2n)!}{2^nn!}+n^2+1$$
Joseph.P
So for me the only solution is n=3 but how do I prove it
simple observation, if n is even then it's congruent to 2 mod 4 which is never a square, so we can work under the assumption n is odd
pushing that a little bit further and looking at it mod 8, it'll be 3 mod 8 when n is 1 mod 4 and it will be 1 mod 8 when n is 3 mod 4, so we know now that n must be 3 mod 4.
I think there are some interesting things to say about that product of odd numbers mod 2^m in general, but I don't have time to look into it
that's saying every even number has the remander of 2 when divided by 4 which is not true 4k = 2(2k) is not congruent to 2 mod 4
I'm not sure if you're misunderstanding or agreeing with me, but whe n is even, then the expression is 2 mod 4 which is not a square
I think merosity meant the expression, not n lol
I could be wrong, someone check, I'll be busy for a while tonight so can't check now
Oh my bad lol
unfortunately this is where the trail runs dry because once you have a number that's 1 mod 8, there's nothing stopping it from being a square mod 2^k for arbitrarily large k
so probably best to stop thinking about 2 to solve this problem I think
maybe some kind of quadratic reciprocity approach is what it needs
@stable peak where'd this problem come from
What can I change that would make it possible
well it might still be possible
another approach might be to try to look at gaps between squares, unforutunately since the product grows too fast, we can't use n^2 as a kind of wedge
like if we were lucky we could have said something like, $$(n+1)^2-n^2 > \frac{(2n)!}{2^nn!}+1$$
Merosity
and that would preclude it from hitting a square again, if this approach makes sense to you
maybe it can be fixed somehow
I think I'm being vague, so as an example problem if I asked you to find all the times n^2+5 is a perfect square, you could immediately see that once (n+1)^2 - n^2 > 5 we have that the gaps are just too large between consecutive squares to work
Thanks
could anyone suggest any good resources on quadratic diophantine equations?
General quadratic diophantine equations? ax^2 + bxy + cy^2 + dx + ey + f = 0
If so then I do not know. I do know how to solve equations in the form x^2 - ny^2 = 1 which is a Pell equation, and solved via continued fractions.
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1041345
Seems to give a technique
If you have more than two variables, I really have no idea.
Thanks!
Yw
HOW
FLT
how 2023 isn't prime
*Euler totient function
oh i thiink i get it, thanks
Why is it impossible for there to be integers such that
|b-a| = |c-b| = |d-c| = ... = |g-f| = |a-g|
Well that's not true, there do exist integers with that property
a = b = ... = g = 0
distinct sorry
the equation says to place k distinct integers around a table and take absolute differences with the right neighbor
probably some use of the triangle inequality
Hint: Fix delta = |b - a|. Then suppose b is greater than a. Then c cannot be equal to a, so where does this leave space for c?
oh I see
that's a nice way to think of it intuitively
but you have to use induction
on the number of variables
to actually prove it
I think
Im trying to prove if $p$ is prime and $ a^2 = 1$ (mod p) then $a = +/-1 $(mod p) , the proof is as follows, suppose $a^2 = 1$ (mod p) \implies $a^2 - 1 = pl$ for some $l \in \mathbb{Z}$ then $a^2 - 1^2 = pl$ \implies $(a - 1) (a + 1) = pl$ so since we have that $(a^2, p) = (1, p) =1$ it follows that $(a^2,p) = (a , p) = 1$ (this is obvious because if the prime $p$ does not show up in the canonical representation of $a^2$ then it clearly doesn't show up in $a$ hence they are relatively prime)
jayz
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so there is a fact that states for $(a,b)$ if $b|c$ then $(a,b) = $ $(a + c, b)$. since we have that $p$ clearly does not divide 1 or -1 \implies $(a,p) = 1 \neq (a + 1, p) and (a,p) = 1 \neq (a - 1, p)$ there fore $(a + 1, p) = d$ and $(a - 1, p) = k$ such that $g,k > 1$ hence $p$ shows up in their canonical representations and hence $p|(a+1)$ and $p|(a-1)$ therefore $a = +/- 1$ (mod p) as needed.
jayz
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does anyone know how to solve this problem? I simplified the expression to the following $$11(m^2 + 10m + 35)$$ and from there I just tried to find an m (by optimised trial and error) that gave a factor of 11 when substituted into the inside quadratic but that seems really inefficient, anybody got other tips?
CrazyCuber217
idk random idea,
(m+n)(n-m)=5(2m^2+22m+77)
Hi, i have a question: If i have two positive numbers a and b that a<b. Let M=a(a+1)..(b-1)b, how many pair of (x,y) (x,y>0, x,y in N*) that x,y is divisors of M and lcm(x,y)=M?
looks like we can break it down for each x|M, we can count the number of divisors y that divide M/x. I denote the number of divisors of n as tau(n):
$$\sum_{x|M}\sum_{y|\frac M x} \tau(y)$$
Merosity
whoops I think I've written that wrong, should be
$$\sum_{x|M}\tau(\frac M x)$$ since for each $x|M$, there are $\tau(\frac M x)$ possbilities for what $y$ can be to satisfy the lcm condition
Merosity
so long as that's correct, there's a fair bit we can go further than this but I don't want to rob you of the fun of working it all out
😳
you know what a multiplicative function is or dirichlet convolution?
sorry i dont know
how'd you come to this problem
so you're trying to get a computer to get the answer quickly for a single number or multiple numbers or what
than i came to this problem😳
what are you actually doing as your goal here
for the competitive programming problem
that changes what we are satisfied with saying "done" pretty substantially
😳
like this won't mean anything to you, but to me I was content saying the answer is: $$\prod_{p\le b}\frac{b-a+s_p(a)-s_p(b)}{2(p-1)}$$
Merosity
like that gives us something that's gross to compute on a computer and not worth implementing in that form imo
Thank you, i just got a hint from that @torn escarp
I'd probably just stop at recognizing this is the number of ways to write M as a product of 3 numbers which is a multiplicative function and using the fact that prime factors will always be <= b will help us look at each individually should prevent us from computing large factorials which I assume is the issue
there's a good middle ground between these two
I would recommend learning about Dirichlet convolutions and multiplicative functions, you can probably find info about them online like brilliant.org or something like that @brave citrus
oh thanks
a multiplicative function satisfies f(mn)=f(m)f(n) when gcd(m,n)=1
lots of number theory functions have this property
it lets you focus on just how it behaves for powers of a prime
examples are: number of divisors function, sum of divisors function, euler phi function, and many more
where did you find this question?
it was a question for last year's IOQM exam
got it
should I explain?
What is the IOQM?
sure.
if you expand the expression you get 11(m^2 + 10 + 35) = n^2
m^2 + 10m + 35 has to be divisible by 11
m^2 - m + 2 has to be divisible by 11
Use trial and error to find m = 5 mod 11, 7 mod 11
from there I just did trial and error to get m = 18, n = 77, m + n = 95
Maybe try transforming it into Pell’s equation. You would be able to parametrize all integer solutions that way.
it's the indian version of the AMC, you qualify for the IMO via the IOQM series of exams
Probably not good for a contest problem though.
not familiar w pells equation, but i've seen some people use it as a solution for similar problems so it might be pretty viable
Oh that’s good. Still, my primary concern would be that the solution you care about corresponds to the fundamental solution, which would make Pell’s equation a pretty useless approach. Something to keep in mind as you learn about it / use it.
Our framwork will be N^2. Let A=(x_1,x_2) , B=(y_1,y_2) in N^2 , instead of measuring in the usual way we will consider the distance d(A,B)=gcd(x_1-y_1, x_2-y_2).
Q1: Let ABC be the triangle of sides a=d(AB) , b=d(BC) and c=d(AC) , then gcd(a,b)|c , gcd(a,c)|b and gcd(b,c)|a.
Q2: Given a,b,c in N such that gcd(a,b)|c , gcd(a,c)|b and gcd(b,c)|a , then there exists a triangle with those sides.
What's your question, what have you tried so far
I try to prove both statements. So far I have not thought much of it
is anyone here familiar with mann's theorem? i am quite confused about the motivation behind some parts of his original proof (primarily the construction of additional sets, similarly for artin and scherk's proof)
just as a general note (I am not familiar with this theorem/proof): not everything is always "motivated". sometimes it's just the result of hours upon hours of work. and the only motivation is that it works
fair enough, but honestly some parts of the proof just seem so out of the blue that i cant help but feel like im missing some critical insight
Mmm, ik this is a programming problem but I wonder how I could involve a bit of NT trickery to write an efficient algorithm.
To state the problem, given 2 natural numbers a and b which are >= 1 and <= 10^9, find the smallest value of x+y such that (a+x) | (b+y), where x and y are both nonneg integers
Can I get numerical methods help here?
what sort of numerical method?
also, 
So
I have f(x)=2-x-ln(x)
I need to separate the roots and identity some [a,b] interval
I followed an example report, separated the function into
2-x=ln(x) and made the graph, found an intersection
It's not some easily identifiable number but whatever
What next?
If anything makes sense of what I wrote
- this doesn't require numerical methods. Simply set the function equals zero and solve for x.
- #precalculus seems to be more appropriate for this
It's a prerequisite
I found x it's not a problem
You don’t really need it but the number is W(e²) where W denotes the Lambert W function.
do u think that (B+Y)/(A+X) must be either ceil(B/A) or floor(B/A)? i have a guess that it is like this but not sure how to prove
Thanks but this will probably confuse me more or make no sense
For now
Interesting... oh lemme provide some test cases to come up with hypothesis-es
A, B
11, 23 , output 2
8, 16 output 0
4394, 993298361 output 65
95392025, 569922442 output 2429708
8399283, 10293 output 8388990
just count for d | n, how many k in {1,2,...,n} will satisfy gcd(k,n) = d
hello
my number theory is very bad
if gcd(a, b) = d does that imply that we can find integers x and y such that ax + by = d
ah
yes
In mathematics, Bézout's identity (also called Bézout's lemma), named after Étienne Bézout, is the following theorem:
Here the greatest common divisor of 0 and 0 is taken to be 0. The integers x and y are called Bézout coefficients for (a, b); they are not unique. A pair of Bézout coefficients can be computed by the extended Euclidean algorithm...
i need to take a number theory course what i learned in discrete i completely forgot my god
thank you
hi all, does anyone have some general tips for problem solving in number theory
im in this advanced nt course, first year uni, and the hw questions are pretty hard. 5 possibly olympiad level problems
I think you need more context
We're working in Z[i], so I assume this is something to do with the norm N(b) = bb̅
If p divides b then -1 is a quadratic residue mod p
That holds in Z[i]? Also I don't see how that helps?
are a and b integers?
well
b must be an integer
is a an integer
if a is not an integer, and can be complex, then this is false
I think
wait nvm
a,b will be integers
well do you know fermats theorem? @sudden hemlock
fermat's little theorem?
no
there is a theorem that says when can an integer n be written as the sum of two squares
in this case, all the prime divisors of b are congruent to 1 mod 4
so you could show that an integer all whose prime factors are congruent to 1 mod 4 can be written as the sum of two squares
rip
I mean
you can find all solutions to y^3=x^2+1
that is probably easier, but I dont really see the point of the exercise
yeah, someone just said that when finding the solutions the thing I posted above was "obvious"
which ig, if you consider the theorem
can someone help me out with this? tau is the number of divisors (natural divisors)
i have noticed when you plug in n=p, p is prime, you get a prime p out
What is tau(n)?
that means that the set 4n/tau(n)^2 is infinite
number of natural divisors of n
if n=p1^a1*...*pk^ak
then tau(n) = (a1+1)...(ak+1)
tau(6)=4 bcs 1, 2, 3, 6 divide 6
tau(p) is 2 since there are only two natural divisors of p: 1 and p. So tau(p)^2 = 4 which means 4p/(tau(p))^2 = 4p/4 = p
yeah
but that doesnt solve the problem
i mean the set of the numbers of the form 4n/tau(n)^2 is infinite
but that doesnt mean that the wanted set is finite
could anyone help me get started with this problem, im not even sure where to begin
start by writing out some Hasse diagrams for simple numbers like 6, 7, and 8
see if you can figure out any patterns or what causes them and then make more examples to check and keep iterating on what you think is happening
Am I drawing the diagram correctly for 8 and 9?
yes
I don’t see where the middle one comes up so far
If the second one were to be the Hasse diagram representing the divisors of some integer N, then you can firstly observe that such an integer N must have two prime divisors (why?). Then think about what this tells you about the multiples of these primes
It might help to relate this back to the illustrations you’ve drawn up for each of the integers that you’ve come up with
eg 8 only has one prime divisor (2), 6 has two prime divisors (2, 3)
If the prime factorization of $n$ is $p_1^{\alpha_1}\cdots p_k^{\alpha_k}$ we know that $\tau(n) = (\alpha_1+1)\cdots(\alpha_k+1)$. So we're looking for numbers that can't be written in the form $$m=4\cdot\frac{p_1^{\alpha_1}}{(\alpha_1+1)^2}\cdots\frac{p_k^{\alpha_k}}{(\alpha_k+1)^2}.$$
We can immediately see that every odd prime factor in $m$ must come from $n$.
Furthermore, the only way to make one of the $\frac{p^\alpha}{(\alpha+1)^2}$ factors contribute less than 1 to the product is for $p=2$ and $p=3$. The smallest product we can get from this is $\frac{2}{4}\cdot\frac{3}{4}=\frac{3}{8}$.
(Edit: No, 4/9 · 3/4 = 1/3 is smaller -- but no matter, the important thing is that we can't get arbitrarily close to 0.)
Troposphere
just for fun I computed powers of 2 that appear in the first 10^something in gp
for(n=1,10000000000, m=4*n/sigma(n,0)^2; if(isint(m)&&Mod(m,2)==0&&!isprime(m)&&isprimepower(m), print(n, " ", m)))
1 4
9 4
128 8
1152 8
8100 16
10000 64
32768 512
64800 32
90000 64
294912 512
320000 512
1679616 1024
2880000 512
4147200 512
6350400 256
9144576 1024
12960000 1024
interesting problem, reading your work now
I think I had a good argument that squares of large enough primes cannot arise as 4n/tau(n)² -- then I thought I saw a simpler way around it and deleted what I'd written before noticing that what I wanted to replace it with wouldn't quite work ... :-(
Rescuing from the deletion log.
Now let's look at $m=p^2$ for some large prime $p$. We must then have $p^2\mid n$. If $n$ contains more than two factors of $p$, its $\frac{p^\alpha}{(\alpha^p)}$ is already at least $p/16$ times as large as $m$, and when $p$ is large, there's no way the other contributions can cancel that out. (Not to mention the additional factor of $4$ in the expression for $m$).
Troposphere
On the other hand, if $n$ contains exactly two factors of $p$, their contribution is $p^2/9$, so we need the contribution of other prime factors to cancel out $\frac{4}{9}$ -- or in other words, we must have $n=p^2b$ with $b/\tau(b)^2 = \frac{9}{4}$.
We can now do a somewhat sprawling analysis on the number of factors of $3$ in $b$, but I'm fairly sure the outcome is that this is impossible.
So all squares of sufficiently large primes are in your set: it is countably infinite.
Troposphere
Oh! Instead of the sprawling case analysis, rewrite to $4b=9\tau(b)^2$ which implies that $b$ must be a square. But then $\tau(b)$ is odd, so $4b=9\tau(b)^2$ is impossible.
Troposphere
oh niiiiice
ok I think I see, suppose m is an odd square, then tau(n)^2 m = 4n implies n is a square. Then this implies tau(n) is odd. But tau(n)^2 m can't be odd and a multiple of 4, contradiction. So all odd squares are not touched
Yeah, we don't need my initial musings about the particular formula for tau, or wanting squares of primes in particular.
thanks a lot guys
mm does one hit a positive natural density of naturals?
the only sets considered so far seem sparse in some way
How about the set of even numbers?
One channel is enough for your question
Sorry i was not sure which channel to post to
I don't know where to ask this so i feel this is the best place to ask
does the sum of the set of all real numbers equal 0?
that is not a well defined notion, to sum all real numbers together
When we defined what an infinite sum is, 1) we usually consider only countable sums (indexed by integers or natural numbers typically) and 2) we must take some sort of limiting process for it to make sense. This is done by considering the limit of the sequence {a_0, a_0 + a_1, a_0 + a_1 + a_2, ...}, and defining it to be the sum of the sequence if the limit exists. You can't sum over all real numbers with this notion of infinite sum then
Thanks!
Other question, if you have an infinite set and remove an element from said set, does it maintain the same cardinality?
Yes
how can i explain it to a dense reddit mf
he claims
"You cannot remove an item from an infinite set because infinity is not a value,"
"Infinity is a concept. It is not a countable number and it's not within the set of all real numbers. You cannot perform operations on it, and any that you do is merely a hypothetical. You cannot derive any conclusions from that."
i'm pretty sure they don't, and if they do i'm very impressed
ultrafinitists
getting a mathematics degree both without understanding what an infinite set is, and without knowing how to acknowledge that you don't know the definition of a technical term instead of confidently making stuff up...?
reddititis
Likely they are lying and simply trying to appear to have more credibility.
other question
does the numbers between 2 and ∞ have the same sum as 1 and ∞
what's "∞"
There is something interesting here though for the integers
The meaning is clear: one can group the integers st the series (0) + (1 + -1) + (2 + -2) + ... converges to 0
So presumably if we want to show that such a definition would be ill-defined, we want to come up with another grouping of Z that converges to a different sum
That series does not converge to 0.
In fact, unless the series absolutely convergent, then rearranging the terms will, in general, change what the sum converges to
You can't "group the terms together" either
ugh fine Ill do it formally
Define a grouping of a countably infinite set S to be a partition into countably infinite finite parts P_i,
and define p_i = sum(k for k in P_i). Then we say that the sum of S partially converges to x if the partial sums of the sequence (p_0, p_1,...) converges to x.
So Z partially converges to 0 under the grouping P_0 = {0}, P_1 = {1,-1}, P_2 = {2,-2}, ... . The question is if we can construct another grouping of Z that implies that Z partially converges to another number also, which will show that our definition of partial convergence is not unique and therefore not worth considering as a notion of convergence.
Interesting ideas! I’m pretty sure there is no grouping that results in it converging to another number, but you can make groupings that cause it to diverge to infinity and to me it seems like that’s also an issue for this definition
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3472833/the-sum-of-all-integers-is-equal-to
This answer provides an idea that shows how to construct rearrangements converging to other numbers
It’s a symbol with properties your probably already familiar with
Well infinity is many concepts so it really matters what you actually mean when you write infinity
well i'm not familiar with them
oh yes, cool! Thanks!
So, this question was in an Algebra book but this feels more of NT so here it is -
Define $f : {0, 1, 2, ..., 10} \to {0, 1, 2, ..., 10}$ by $\$
$f(n) = (4n^2 - 3n^7)$mod 11 $\$
(i) show that $f$ is a permutation.
numbily
the obvious thought is you could just check them all (there's only 11 numbers)
but if the question is interesting then i assume there's something quicker...? and i'm not sure what it would be
Yeah that's exactly what I am thinking, is this just computational or is there some clever trick involved
I think this works, factor it as $f(n)=n^2(4-3n^\frac{11-1}{2}) = n^2(4-3 \left(\frac{n}{11}\right))$ here $ \left(\frac{n}{11}\right)$ is the legendre symbol. this means:
$f(n)=n^2$ when $n$ is a QR
$f(n)=7n^2$ when $n$ is a NR
since $11 \ne 1 \mod 4$ it means $-1$ is a NR and so $n$ and $-n$ are not both QRs. Further, $\left(\frac{7}{11}\right)=-1$. This proves f is an injection. Because this is a finite set, it's a bijection.
Merosity
that formatted beautifully... lmao
for fun, we can generalize this to make permutations this way as, $$f(n)=\frac{d+1}{2}n^2-\frac{d-1}{2}n^\frac{p+3}{2} \mod p$$ with picking $p=3 \mod 4$ and $d$ a non residue mod $p$. Then the problem becomes a special case of picking $p=11$ with $d=7$.
Merosity
Bro, this was chapter 1, section 1 exercise in an Algebra book. No way I am supposed to use legendre polynomial, I should just use python or sage to compute it 
Thanks for the interesting solution though
haha fair enough, was fun though
because I just saw something very similar by chance, do you perhaps have a reference to something about permutations of that form? or is this just something you wrote down now?
yeah, and afterwards I ended up deriving a more general version give me a min to type up my derivation
Merosity
thank you
yeah I'd be interested to play around with this more myself, since it's kinda interesting
like what subset of permutations do we get from these, do these contain enough to always generate the full set of permutations?
I suppose it should be said this always fixes 0, so it might be worth trying to include that in too if we want
correction p=3 mod 4, since (-1 | p) = -1 is what we want
you are only switching the sets QR and NR so I can't imagine you generate all permutations
and inside those sets you basically only have linear permutations
yeah good point
Proof for Eulers-phi function
Using induction
Why is (4.3) that way? And why did we divide m by p_k+1?
So if you're trying to show (\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{d}]) where (d > 1) is squarefree rational has infinite units, I presume we're just stuck with Lagrange's solution to pell's equation?
StarvinPig
does anyone know what the "period" refers to ?
Mobius inversion formula
here is the solution
how often it repeats, 0101 has period 2 because it has the repeating substring 01 which is length 2
11101110 has period 4 for instance
how often "what" is repeating?
the substrings within each string?
yup
the period of a periodic string means the minimum value such that the string repeats after that many places
and what does "proper" in proper divisor refer to?
whole number divisors?
proper divisor means less than the number
6 is a divisor of 6, but it's not a proper divisor
1, 2, 3 are the proper divisors of 6
yw
btw
for Mobius inversion formula
does it refer to the whole thing
or only the bottom line
that's two formulae right there
the second is the inversion of the first
so is 'formula' a bit of a misnomer
i.e.
this is more like a Theorem statement
if the first line
then we have the second line
because normally when I think of a 'formula', I think of one equation
i.e. y=mx+b
idk
I don't really feel any strong attachment to either of those words
what's a formula anyways, I basically just think it's like a recipe for how to cook up something
first line is F in terms of f, so the second line is the recipe for how to get f back out from given F
feels like a formula to me
I guess there is some theorem there too to be proven, although it's not really presented as such as-is
like I would call it a theorem if I were to then try to carry out its proof following that maybe, idk
I wouldn't worry about this sorta linguistics about it too much
when it says "the number of such strings", what is "such strings" referring to?
i.e., why is the the number of "such strings" given by B(d)?
Aperiodic strings of length d
Your second question requires that you define what B(d) is, since that's not a standard notation
wait can someone please explain why getting to the last step of the EEA helps me find the modular inverse of 17?
I don't get this last line
the product is 1, so that number is an inverse of 17. But you're working in mods, so you typically want to keep to the positive integers. So you add your mod number to that inverse to find the equivalent positive number. So that new number is also an inverse of 17
I’m trying to find an integer solution for this equation $(10^{100} + 999)x + 1000y = 1$
jayz
I used the Euclidean algorithm method but my answer was consistently wrong
Not sure what’s going on here
What, did your prof assign this as some sort of medieval torture?
explain lol
Unless Euclidean algorithm stops in like 2 steps that sounds like a pain to do and for no real reason for working with numbers those large
It does stop in 2 steps lol
10^100 > {estimated atoms in known universe}
yeah there’s not many atoms irl
10^100 + 999 = 1000*10^97 + 999
1000 = 999*1 + 1

oh
better than I thought lol
Yeah, I solved for the remainders and it still didn’t work
If you set it up as $ax+by=1$ with $b=10^3$ and $a=10^{100}+999$ $$10^{100}+999 = 10^{97}*10^3 + 10^3 -1 = (10^{97}+1)10^3 -1$$
At this point you have:
$$a=(10^{97}+1)b-1$$
rearrange
$$a(-1)+b(10^{97}+1)=1$$
so $x=-1$ and $y=10^{97}+1$
Merosity
I'm really just doing a single step of the euclidean algorithm here
that’s very slick thanks @torn escarp
so I came across a fact that integral solutions to diophantine equations that are quadratic in one variable are only possible if the discriminant is a perfect square
I need help with trying to state this is a rigorous way and trying to convince myself it's true/prove it
I understand that if the discriminant is not the square of a rational, the the root will be irrational/complex and sums of rationals with irrationals are always irrations
I also know that with no conditions placed on the diophantine equation, you can get situations where the -b/2a part of the quadratic equation is irrational which may cancel the part of the quadratic equation with under the square root.
so I'm just concerned about conditions for exactly when this applies because I know it doesn't apply all of the time
I think once the coefficients are not rational numbers, people stop caring about if the solutions are rational anymore since we're already in the world of non rational stuff at that point
we can work backwards if the coefficients are now real or complex numbers, you can factor the polynomial directly as a(x-r)(x-s) with r, s the roots and then start looking at what the conditions are I guess
So if we expand it out, $a(x-r)(x-s)=ax^2-a(r+s)x+ars=ax^2+bx+c$
Then let's suppose the coefficients are not all rational, but both r, s are rational. This means that c/a and b/a are rational, and we can use the usual discriminant on it after dividing through by the leading coefficient.
Merosity
now we have two more cases to try to understand, what if the coefficients are not all rational, but we have exactly one rational root? What if we have no rational roots? I guess we should try to stay consistent and divide through by a again to get (x-r)(x-s)=x^2-(r+s)x+rs and try to work from here.
I suspect this question is very naive
one can use continued fractions to somewhat efficiently solve pell equations
are there algorithms one can use (besides brute force) to solve equations of the form ax^2 + bxy + cz^2 = d when the discriminant is positive?
lattice basis reduction can do some cases, so I am especially hoping if there is a lattice basis reduction way to do this in general
(yes, you may assume that a solution exists, if that helps)
Why is verfiying that the two sets are a bijection equivalent to proving the multiplicativity of Euler's Totient functoin?
Because, the goal statement is something like this right?
$\varphi(mn)=\varphi(m)\varphi(n)$
Kalgar
so this set encapsulates $\varphi(mn)$
Kalgar
but how does the set of order pairs $(y,z)$ encapsulate $\varphi(m)\varphi(n)?$
Kalgar
This is the Chinese remainder theorem
These two sets have cardinals phi(m) and phi(n), so their product has the desired cardinal
By the CRT, there's exactly one x in [1, mn] that verifies that, hence the bijection
why is $\mu(n)^2/phi(n)$ also multiplicative?
Kalgar
quotient of multiplication functions
Since both mu and phi are multiplicative we have mu²(nm)/phi(nm) = mu²(n)mu²(m)/phi(n)phi(m) = mu²(n)/phi(n) · mu²(m)/phi(m) when n and m are coprime.
but why is the quotient mu²(n)/phi(n) still multplicative
Because it satisfies the definition of "multiplicative", as I argued in my post just above which you apparently ignored.
oh
thanks
so basically like, treat the entire quotient as a function
i.e. $F(d) = \frac{\mu(d)^2}{\phi(d)}$
Kalgar
Hmm, well, you could be pedantic and say they should have said "the function defined by <such-and-such expression> is multiplicative" instead fo just "<such-and-such expression> is multiplicative", but I don't think there's much possibility for ambiguity.
Kalgar
not $\phi(n)$
Kalgar
since we literally assumed $\phi(n)$ is odd at the start of our answer
Kalgar
I think you're reading it too fast
how so
and since we assume that $\phi(n)$ is odd, then it follows that all factors must also be odd, correct?
Kalgar
So each of $p_i^{\alpha_i-1}(p_i-1)$ is odd
Kalgar
or is this "one of the p_i" part significant?
because I don't get what's the point in considering only one factor
when considering the parity of $\phi(n)$ overall
Kalgar
is this odd if one of the p_i is odd
wat
let me rephrase that
is this odd if p_i is odd
yeah
@torn escarp wait, so for this Q, why
Why can we conclude this?
this is part (c) of the same Q
I think one of the main concepts to understand is, if a function is multiplicative it means if you understand how it behaves on powers of primes, then you know how it behaves for all numbers
that's why they're relying on decomposing it into primes so much, main thing is phi(p^k) = p^(k-1) * (p-1) will always be how you decompose phi(n)
part of why this is true is because if you have and odd number m, then gcd(2,m)=1 so phi(2m)=phi(m). Do you see why?
yeah
but where does the 2 come from?
how does that generalise into this
the other way around, I wrote the more general version, let m=p^k
I meant like, why is m odd
all I observe is that $4 \not | \phi(n)$
Kalgar
every distinct prime factor of n gives you at least one 2 dividing phi(n)
that means the power of 2 dividing phi(n) is an upper bound on the number of distinct prime factors of n
wat 

for r=2, how do they know for sure that k1 = 2, k2 =1?
oh is it because the only decomposition with 2 factors is 2 * 3
so k1 +1 = 2, k2 + 1 = 3 (or other way around)
I'd try working backwards from (ax+by+c)(Ax+By+C) and expand this, equate the coefficients, then work through the possibilities to factor them
actually once you know that -18=C*c that's enough to work out what the sum of C+c can be by grinding through the divisors of -18. But this gets you two answers, although we can't actually exclude them because if fg=p, then (-f)(-g)=p so both answers will work as factorization lol
I didn't understood, can you elaborate further
sure, which part do you get stuck at, do you see why that factorization would exist?
I didn't understood anything
well you clearly understood something based on this picture you just sent
you didn't write out the one term that matters most though, the constant term
yeah, cC = ? what number - then use this to solve your problem by looking at what all the possibilities are
I used this method to prove that a^2 + b^2 = 3 c^2 has no solutions in the non-zero integers, but now that I'm looking at it... is this even valid? Like couldn't the same method be used to prove that a^2 + b^2 = 2 c^2 also has no solutions? (it obviously has) like wouldn't it always just lead to cancelling out the squared terms we substitute in like I did?
With 2c^2 you'd get solutions like 1+1 = 2*1
yeah but couldn't I apply the same technique of assuming that a = 4m, b = 4m, c = 4l and from there get to the conclusion that there's no solution of that form?
(there actually is, for example a = 4, b = 28, c = 20)
there's no contradiction here
What you're saying is if there's a solution of the form (0, 0, 0) mod 4, it induces the existence of a smaller solution.
That's a contradiction when all solutions are of this form, because there's no minimum.
But in the case a² + b² = 2 c², we have another possible form.
So all you show is that minimal (in the obvious sense I won't detail) solutions aren't of the form (0, 0, 0) but rather of the form (1, 1, 2)
there is a minimal solution of the form (0, 0 ,0) mod 4, it's (4, 28, 20)
also (0, 0, 0) and (4, 4, 4) but those are trivial
but it reduces to (1, 7, 5), which is a minimal solution, of the form (1, 1, 2)
All minimal solutions (the multiples of which generate all solutions) are of the form (1, 1, 2), or rather, (1 or 3, 1 or 3, 1 or 3) mod 4
so the infinite descent argument fails because there's more than 1 possible family of solutions?
yes
does that also mean that in order to prove that some similar equation has no solutions we'd have to find such mod n for which there'd be only 1 family of solutions?
for the infinite descent argument to work, you need to show the solution it reduces to is still reducible
then that's a contradiction due to you being on a well ordered set
you sure? cuz I'm pretty sure we can always reduce solutions from the (0, 0, 0) family
yes
we can
but you don't know what family they become
and it might be an irreducible one
at least not always reducible, idk if (a², b², 2c²) = (1, 1, 2) mod 4 is always irreducible
hmm
for example, take (16, 112, 80)
It's a solution
It reduces to (4, 28, 20)
Which reduces to (1, 7, 5)
Which is irreducible
I see
this clears things up a bit but I need time to digest it, still don't understand it fully
feel free to play around with it and let it sit yeah
or try to work it out for some other examples
some simple ones like a² + b² = 5c²
Or some very different ones like a^3 + 2b^3 = 3c^3, for which you should find a similar pattern (though maybe not mod 4, but there's probably a relevant mod to study, like 8 or whatever, I don't actually know)
though thinking about it, do note that it may get very grindy
cause there's 512 different triplets of values mod 8
125 different cases for triplets of squares
lol fun
I'll start off with mod 2 3 4 5
and for bigger ones I might use python or something
and it might not yield anything at all
yeah that's a slight issue
I follow this except I don't know how they're justifying that a minimal element of Z(sqrt(d)) exists... as far as I can tell we don't get that for free and I don't see how to argue for it...
Trying to follow this - writing $k\alpha - c$ for ${k\alpha}$ and $l\alpha - d$ for ${l\alpha}$ pigeonhole gives that
$$|(k-l)\alpha - (c-d)|< \frac{1}{n+1}$$
OW TOO SPICEE (ouchie!)
which is in the form we want so we match q to k-l and p to c-d
q must be in the set {1,2,...., n} so we take the absolute value (not sure how to justify that this is fine since it doesn't maintain equality to the LHS in general)
p is then c-d but this proof is saying it's the integer closest to k\alpha
I'm again not sure why c-d is the integer closest to k\alpha
ik, unrelated, but can you guys help me with this, nobody is helping in la channel xd
are you familiar with ceiling and floor functions?
yes
think about a set that lists all possible distances and then takes the minimum distance
and select that integer that kalpha is closest to as p and call such a k, q
distances between the {k\alpha}?
yes
actually I can prove the |*| part because you just multiply the inside of |*| by -1 if k-l is negative
collect all possible positive integer multiples of kalpha
I still don't see how c-d (or d-c) is the closest integer to k\alpha
and find the minimum distance between that and the ceiling function of kalpha
bear with me lol
hang on I'm typing this up rn
@whole bronze
I'm thinking this^
My set S find all possible distances between kalpha (where k runs through values 1,2,...,n and nearest integers to it (floor of k alpha and ceil of k alpha), then r finds the smallest distance.
does that make sense?
let me fix a typo
done
sorry I probably have to think about this for a while and draw some pictures of small examples lol
thanks for the help!
draw a number line
and u know that the distance between two consecutive integers is 1
place a dot between those two lines
call that alpha
then if u bump up kalpha, u can get either closer or further away from a line by adding an alpha
up to n alphas
does that make sense?
if alpha is negative u go down towards one line
if alpha is positive, u go up towards the line to the right of ur dot
we know alpha isn't 0 since 0=0/1 is rational
if you don't take everything mod 1 then things that should be close actually end up being far away (e.g. k\alpha and l\alpha) where k and l differ by a non-minuscule amount
being technical...where I wrote "for some p...and q..." I should have swapped the order...should've been for some q in {1,2,...,n} and p in {floor qa,ceil qa}
I would refrain from modular arithmetic here since alpha is irrational
draw a number line.....
that's my best advice
oh wait this is following the proof given in the first screenshot
yea you can def find a minimum distance for the k\alpha
min S is just that by definition
but does it have to be c-d?
u can call it whatever u want...u just know that there has to be some integer it's gets closest to as k alpha runs through values k=1,2,...,n
u know the closest integers to kalpha are the ceiling and the floor
of kalpha
so as k runs through all it's values, u can find the multiple of alpha and the integer that it correspons to that gives the smallest distance
I reposted and edited^
now we must figure out why exactly we can't have r=|qalpha-p| being at least 1/n+1
remember, in my proof, r was the smallest distance
right, I don't see how you're arguing that it's less than 1/(n+1) by the minimality of r
is this pigeonhole?
actually I don't see how this follows from pigeonhole
because if r is at least 1/(n+1), there must be different p and q than what we have that would be closer than our r was to an integer
because either p-1 or p+1 would be the other integer and q would be different
to make sense of this
fix p as the floor of q alpha for instance
then if this q and p aren't close enough
then
that means no other kalpha where k in {1,2,3,...,n} would be closer to p than qalpha was
however, one of those k's would yield a k alpha closer to either p+1 or p-1 or really another integer other than p
does that make sense??
no other k would have {k alpha}<{q alpha} right
all we know is that some other positive integer multiple of alpha would be closer to another integer (the ceiling or floor of that integer multiple of alpha)
this means that r was not the closest such p and q
1/2+n is a sequence of points that don't 1/3 close to any integer so I feel this is missing something. 1/2 is at least 1/3 away from 0 but all the other points of 1/2+n are also 1/3 away from any integer
but remember depending on what n we're given that's how many integer multiples of alpha we can look at
no proof that doesn't eliminate this can be correct so some assumption distinguishing this situation from the other must be used in the proof for it to be correct (no argument that proves a false fact can be correct)
just restrict the sequence from k=1 to some other integer
$\left|\frac{1}{2+n}-0\right|<\frac{1}{n+1}$ for any positive integer $n>0$, so I'm not sure what you mean
logician
wait are we saying the same thing
I'm just arguing that the argument is incomplete because it proves false facts
?
I'll admit I glossed over why such and r works.....
for example if you have a consistent model of
(1) A and B
and
(2) A and not B
it will be impossible to prove B from A because then you would have proven (2) wrong, which was a valid model
if there's an underlying unspoken assumption C that forces you into the (1) model but it's never mentioned in the proof then the proof is not correct becuase the proof would go through the same way without every using C and contradict (2)
i kind of see what ur saying?
sounds like ur pretty much saying, the proof just needs some more elaboration....instead of jumping to the conclusion thought that conclusion is correct
It's also a standard (and important) way in mathematical logic to see if a proof is valid - if there are models in which p is true and models in which p is false and assumption C forces p to choose only one of those truth values for p, then assumption C must be used in the proof for it to be valid
You say that C is a necessary assumption for the theorem to hold
there's actually nothing wrong with what's written here aside from glossing over the "why r would not be minimal" part. The other parts of the proof are simply the given conditions in the problem statement, and a construction of a set, we would want to take the smallest element of...those are perfectly reasonable.
It's a meta argument - if this proof is valid it shouldn't go through in situations that give a false conclusion




