#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 11 of 1
Merosity
or at the very least handle the perfect cube case separately idk
should we be throwing other stuff at this too like the abel summation formula
what kind of tools can we throw at this thing
abel might be overkill, at least given the context I got this problem from
tools? you mean... murder weaponry?
ok tbh p^(1/3) is a very small number compared to p^(1/2) as p gets large
do the number of divisors of p^(1/3) are less than p^(1/3)
so $|{d \in \mathbb{N} \mid d | p^{1/3}}| < p^{1/3} < \sqrt{p}$
ForJoke
oh wait
so $\sum_{d | p-1, d < p^{1/3}} \varphi(d)< p^{1/3}\times p^{1/3} < p$
actually this does not go to 0, nvm
ForJoke
what instead of looking at this, we looked at $\sum_{d | p-1, d \geq p^{1/3}} \varphi(d)$
ForJoke
but $\sum_{d | p-1, d < p^{1/3}} \varphi(d)< p^{1/3}\times p^{1/3} = p^{2/3}$
ForJoke
ForJoke
@torn escarp I think instead of bounding it above by \sqrt(p) we bound it above by p^{2/3}
interesting idea
yeah p^{1/2} seemed too hard lol
its fine tho
my goal was to show that the sum divided by varphi(p) goes to 0
and p^(2/3)/p-1 goes to 0
thank you for the help
oh the final sum is bounded by that you're saying
I'm too tired ot check I didn't end up sleeping earlier, but I'll take your word for it, you're welcome 😛
Guys what is an elliptic curve? The definition used in my class makes 0 sense to me
“All rings contained in F”???
It says "containing," not "contained in"
There are some typos, for example there shouldn't be an 'and' there
It ought to be "An elliptic curve E over F is a planar cubic curve" (i.e. it is defined by a cubic polynomial f) "such that for all rings R containing F, we have (condition listed)".
I couldn't come up with any examples of elliptic curves
so if we look at F = Z/3 for example
what does it mean for a ring R to contain Z/3?
I see, sorry for that
it means Z/3 is a subring of R.
are there any notable rings that come up immediately to mind? Just so I can have a feel of what its trying to say
what is GF(9)?
You could keep it way simpler and let your field be Q, or maybe even C.
GF(9) is the unique (up to isomorphism) field of order 9
oh I see I see
Called GF for Galois Field
ok say we considered Q
I am going to sleep, so I hope someone else takes over.
ight np
might also help to see non-examples too like y^2=x^3 it's a planar cubic but is not smooth - graph it in desmos to see that
if it has a singular point it turns out we can just parametrize them, so we already can easily describe their rational points, so they're boring
What I don’t understand is the whole “rings that contain F” thing
The smoothness is a nice enough condition tbh
I dunno, probably they just are trying to say it can be seen contained in the larger rings if you want with no problem
the discriminant being nonzero is equivalent to this smoothness condition, and once it's nonzero in F, it's gonna be nonzero in all R containing F too
I guess they're just anticipating this to make it seem like it's some amazing strong extra condition you get for free, idk
So in R can i just treat them as smooth cubics in 2 variables?
R being reals or a commutative ring?
well, no that's not enough otherwise we might erroneously call y=x^3 an elliptic curve* because it's a smooth cubic curve in two variables
Reals
this is actually a projective transformation away from y^2=x^3, I've just pushed the problematic point to one of the points at infinity
yeah I imagine you haven't really learned that yet about like homogenization and projective coordinates, but maybe
This was meant to be an “intro” number theory course where our prof assumed 0 abstract algebra knowledge 💀
you might not cover that stuff at all in this course for all I know then
Then they talked about groups and rings for like an hour and then straight into this
I was warned that taking abstract algebra before this would help, I didn’t realize to what extent tho lmao
Hope we at least talk about it
like they're probably just going to assume characteristic not equal 2 or 3 and start doing the group law with the weierstrass normal form with the identity at infinity, in the direction of the line y=0
cause you really don't need to know that much to start talking about the elliptic curve group law once you start in this form, you wont' need projective transformations
What’s wrong with fields of char 2 or 3?
just prevents you from putting it into the clean, nice weierstrass normal form y^2=x^3+Ax+B
I see
if you look at the discriminant it involves factors of 2 and 3, which sort of end up breaking it
yeah, there's a lot to get into with elliptic curves, but now that I see your prof taught some basic algebra stuff and it's an intro course I think I understand where they're going
you'll learn how drawing lines between points on an elliptic curve will intersect at a third spot which is nearly the binary operator for the group of putting in two elements to get the output
and then start to work out ok, why is this associative and commutative?
etc and hear other cool results about it
I'd explain more but I'd rather do it at a chalk board and/or voice chat
and also I'm about to eat some food haha
I’m about to sleep, got a class at 9 am for which I gotta travel 1.5 hours 😀
that's a long commute lol
Yep, huge country lmao
nani yes, me entering with another self-insert "nani Hi forjoke and mero
@errant otter this is one of the most cursed things i've ever typed
$$\frac{1}{\varphi(p)} \sum_{\substack{d \mid p-1\ d<p^{1/3}}} \varphi(d) \to 1$$
cflau_
Maybe that looks better
I'm new to all this, so maybe thats why I think it looks cursed
could you provide more context?
if we write it out
n | 2n + 1 means that there is an integer k such that nk = 2n + 1
but now this is the same as nk - 2n = 1 or n(k-2) = 1 but k-2 is an integer hence n | 1
Here's another nice sum (used in the proof of Chen's theorem)
Most normal looking number theory sum
It also makes you appreciate laTex
mfw iverson brackets exist but people still insist on using massive subscripts
Imagine using iverson brackets
imagine using iverson brackets
Shouldn't it say false on the last line?
But Fermat's last theorem is true. Why should it say false then, for any subset of the natural numbers greater than or equal to 3?
Ah, my bad. For some reason reasoned that whatever assumption we assumed must be false for n greater than that and then thought our assumption was that Fermat's last theorem is true, hence it would be false for those n
But it's precisely the opposite assumption
thx
if i add two numbers 220 + 330 = 550 is it guarantee'd that the GCD will be the same for gcd(220, 330) and gcd(550, 330)
Yes -- it's fairly simple to prove that gcd(a,b) = gcd(a+b,b) always. This is the basis of Euclid's algorithm for finding the gcd.
the book im going through asked this question before going through euclid's algorithm. Explain how we know that gcd(990, 720) = gcd(270, 720) without finding any common divisors. i know they have common divisors, but i can't prove that there is no GCD > 270 for gcd(990, 720)
the book's "proof" doesn't really connect it for me
The core observation is that "the common divisors of 990 and 720" and "the common divisors of 270 and 990" are the same set of numbers. So in particular, the greatest element of this set is the same in each case.
That makes sense to me. They have common divisors
If some number divides a and b, it also divides a+b.
Conversely, if some number divides a+b and b, it also divides a.
to get to this observation "the common divisors of 990 and 720" and "the common divisors of 270 and 990" are the same set of numbers. i would have to write down all the divisors? i definitely can't come up with this observation myself because i can't prove it
No -- this is the explanation why the two sets are the same.
they wanted me to explain it without finding any common divsors, but i don't get how 😭
let me try to understan what you wrote
so they mention something similar what you you're saying in the next question. i need to some how put this together
write out what it means for a number d to divide another number b
and see if you can make connections from there
Yes, that is exactly what I'm saying.
Are you asking for help seeing that each of those claims are true?
Or for help seeing that they imply gcd(a,b)=gcd(a+b,c)?
so i understand this, n divides a and n divides b then n also divides a + b. i was able to understand that in the previous section.
this almost feels the same, but not quite
That's the first of the two points you quoted, yes.
The second can be proved in almost exactly the same way.
yeah i can't figure out how to prove this. im able to understand na + nb = n(a + b) which shows a common divisor of a and b is also a common divisor of a + b and i was able to get to this myself
i guess if i substitute something like a for m - n and b for n then it just say any common divisor of a and b is also a divisor of their sum
p is an odd prime number, n is a positive integer, A is a set composed of sequences from 0 to p-1 with a length of n, which does not contain non-trivial three-term arithmetic sequence, prove
|A|<=3m
m is the size of the set of all sequences whose sum is less than (p-1)n/3.
is a trivial arithmetic sequence the same as a constant sequence
yes
I found a prove and it's pretty long……
I'm confused by "which does not contain non-trivial ..." does this mean it only contains constant sequences?
@rancid cargo
I guess I should just assume you mean the opposite, whoops lol
really I don't get the wording of this question at all, is it really asking about arbitrary sequences of length n where you don't have 3 consecutive terms all identical?
I don't get why you'd bring up the word 'arithmetic sequence' at all when describing just a simple constant sequence, unless I misunderstand something and that there are other arithmetic sequences here
constant difference of 0
One possible reading would be that for every n we have either x[n] = x[n+1] = x[n+2] or x[n+2] - x[n+1] != x[n+1] - x[n].
Or perhaps (depending on what "contains" means), it says that for every m < n < k we have either x[m] = x[n] = x[k] or x[k]-x[n] != x[n]-x[m].
did i answer this problem corectly?
This question is more of elementary NT that's why I'm posting
If m = a+qd then by definition m is congruent to a mod d but what about (m,n)=1?
the phrasing is a bit subtle I think
I agree
The chapter is supposed to be about Gauss sums and Ramanujan sums but they bring these stuff out of nowhere for some reason
idk I'd probably try doing some euclidean algorithm or bezout's lemma thing maybe
if m shares factors with n, then they also share prime factors. say p is a prime with p | m and p | n. then p | a, which is a contradiction.
i don't know why (a, d) = 1 wasn't used
m shares factors with n?
Are you supposing that or it's implied?
i'm supposing it
How did you do the contradiction?
I don't get it
If p is prime then assume p|n which means p|a (based on the definition)
if (m, q) > 1, then there exists a prime p with p | m and p | q. so a = m - qd implies p | a as well, which contradicts the definition of q.
oh i'm hallucinating lol
uh (m, a) = 1 and (m, q) = 1, so (m, n) = 1
?
this shows (m, q) = 1. if (m, a) > 1, then there exists a prime p with p | m and p | a, then qd = m - a means that p | d, which contradicts (a, d) = 1.
that shows (m, a) = 1
i think that's my fault lol
So let's start from the assumption p|n
you mean p | n and p | m ?
p|n implies p|q right?
it could also be p | a
It says q is the product of primes that divides n
Yes
they have to also not divide a

Suppose p|(m,n)
ok so p|m and p|n
Then p|m and then p|q
p|m, p|n and p|q?
Indeed, as you said before p|n implies p|q
Alright so far so good
i can't 
wdym, q is the product of all primes dividing n
Yeah we never said p|a
i made the same mistake earlier lol, you're good
If we are starting from p|(m,n) then our end goal is to show p is actually not a prime (but rather 1) right?
We want to show that it doesnt exist
Yeah makes sense
Ok so if p|n we have either p|q and p not divide a or p|a and p not divide q
Good
In the first case, we deduce p|a from the equality m=a+qd which is a contradiction

we have p|m and p|qd so we must have p|a
If we assume p|n and if p|a then why p doesn't divide qd?
So is the first case clear?
No I don't think so
The first case is p|q and p doesn’t divide a
Yeah
since p divides q, p|qd
so we got p|qd now how do we get the contradiction?
we have m-qd=a
And p divides the left hand side
So p must divide the right hand side
Which is just a
And we assumed p doesn’t divide a
So we arrive at a contradiction
Yeah but how p|m?
We are still assuming p|(m,n)
Okay, for the second case since (a,d)=1 we cant have p|d
Since p|m and p|a we have p|qd
and since p|d doesn't exist so is p|qd
This implies p divides either q or d
I think you got it
yeah thanks for the clarification
No problem
hence qd + a cannot share factors with qd or a
but q and a cover the prime factors of n
so qd + a cannot share factors with n either
I kinda got curious. If (a,d)=1 then p|d doesn't exist but that doesn't mean p|qd doesn't exist, unless I'm missing something
that's the contradiction 
For the second case you have p|a and p not divide q
since (a,d)=1 => p|d is false but p|qd is possible but that contradicts our assumption p not divide q?
ya
hard to keep track of
i think it's still elementary
I would say otherwise lol
Dirichlet characters are more of ANT (analytic) so I was a little bit confused
For some reason ANT feels easier than elementary NT
Elementary nt can be super tricky
probably because you haven't studied enough ANT lol
True
I don't get sieve theory at all 
Yeah I just looked at it and I was like "nope maybe I need to work on previous stuff to establish the intuition"
@fringe tide @primal escarp wait for the proof since we proved p doesn't exist that doesn't mean (m,n) = 1 it just means f|(m,n) where f is not prime
But if f is not 1, then there exists a prime p such that p|f and we must have p|(m,n)
Hello I need help with understanding the notion of quadratic residues
Let's say we have mod 11 so with mod 11 we have
1^2=1
2^2=4
3^2=9
4^2=5
5^2=3
6^2=3
7^2=5
8^2=9
9^2=4
10^2=1
Now the question is why 1,3,4,5 and 9 are quadratic residues? All of the numbers do satisfy
x^2 = n mod p
$a(a^3+a)=3\implies {1\over a}={{a^3+a}\over 3}=2a^3+2a$
aSome1gussy
Why is this so?
Divide by 3a
not sure I understand the question, 1,3,4,5,9 are quadratic residues because if you pick them to be n then x^2=n mod 11 has a solution
similarly x^2=2 mod 11 has no solution, so 2 is not a quadratic residue mod 11
x^2=2 mod 7 has a solution though, so 2 is a quadratic residue mod 7
if that's your confusion, being a quadratic residue is relative to which prime you're looking at
Oh I confused with the variables. I thought because all of the combinations are giving solutions then everything is a quad residue
So like 1^2=1 if you square it then you still get a solution and actually it's the same thing for all values so I was confused lol
I see, yeah, it's only the possible things you get after squaring, not before squaring
in fact mod p, exactly half of the nonzero residues are quadratic residues
Yeah so you need to find an x such that when you square it you get an existing value mod p
you can't get 2 from x^2 = 2 mod 11 for all values so it's not quad residue
Yeah I've noticed that too
I wonder if it is the same thing for cubic residues, if that even exists lol
Thanks for clarification 
yeah definitely it does
(p-1)/3 cubic residues?
If 3 different types of numbers then I'd expect 1/3 cubic residues, 1/3 non-cubic residues and 1/3 something else I'm not sure what it is
Oh yeah good point
maybe think of it this way, when 3 | p-1 you have three solutions to x^3=1
so x^3 = n mod p only holds if 3|(p-1)?
no, not what I'ms aying, that was a response to this for how to think of partitioning them, but needs more elaboration
Oh
well, I suggest looking at an example
take p=5
how many cubic residues are there?
don't think too hard, just grind through computing all the numbers starting at 1^3, 2^3, ... and see what you get
1^3=1
2^3= 3
3^3= 2
4^3 = 4
So 1,2,3,4?
yeah, everything is a cubic residue
you know from fermat's little theorem that x^{p-1} = 1 mod p, but since 3 doesn't divide p-1, it's unable to get the elements closer to 1, so it is forced to permute them essentially
I didn't go over FLT yet
ok so we'll prove it now 
yeah I was thinking we need to avoid talking about some complicated stuff haha
well, complicated might not be the right word, but it'll just take time to get there by taking simpler steps that take time, you'll get there
yeah
I went over linear congruence, Euler theorem, Wilson theorem and other stuff
a^r=a mod p
ye
I'm so dumb 
euler totient function bs

How would you prove there are exactly (p-1)/2 quadratic residues?
My book is confusing
which book is it?
Apostol
ANT
Its nice because it goes over elementary and analytic number theory but yeah I'm kinda regretting it sometimes 
funnily enough I gave the wiki a look and apparently it's like the 1st thing it brings up 

you can look at the number of roots of x^{(p-1)/2} - 1, this has all the quadratic residues as roots by euler's theorem
I'd go to Google at last when I'm desperate
yessir
$x^{p-1}-1 = (x^\frac{p-1}{2}+1) (x^\frac{p-1}{2}-1)$
merosity
lmao be like opening a wiki page only to see whatever jargon they have inside utterly destroying u
that's 0 for every x, and if it's a nonresidue, it's not a factor of the right one, so it must be a factor of the left one
opening a wiki on distribution of prime numbers
sees weird logs
"What in the world is that?"
I'm also leaning on the field structure of Z/pZ
lmao prime number theorem moment
wiki being wiki
I'd recommend looking at Silverman's A Friendly Introduction to Number Theory, each chapter mostly stands on its own and answers fun questions like this
"fun questions like this"
define "fun questions"
I swear tho wiki never helps 99% of the time, it just splashes you with a buncha new terminology and theorems you've never heard before
Couldn't agree more
depends on where you're at in your studies relative to the topic
indeed
That's why I go into a wormhole of just clicking over terms that I don't understand then going back and still not getting it 
SAME
hmmm
I think it's important to distinguish between tutorials, how-to guides, explanation, and reference
fr
so I see the wikipedia frustration as trying to look for a tutorial on the topic when wikipedia is roughly a reference
yeah
Biggest mistake I did is buying Apostol 
I spend most of the time watching YT videos then going back and be like "oh I get it now lmao"
like people learning to program the first time aren't going to just start reading documentation immediately from cover to cover
or we don't have kids learning english by having them read the dictionary starting with A lol
XD
well at least you look through it
I got Hardy's book but I haven't even FLIPPED THROUGH IT

1<x+y part makes sense but how about x+y<p?
I don't even know what is Hardy's book
u haven't heard of hardy???
Can you literally just extract y by itself? I mean it is x+y, no?
oh notice that x^2 = (-x)^2 = (p-x)^2
Hardy with Ramanujan?
that's why we can pick the lower representative x since p-x also squares to the same thing
this implies x+y <= (p-1)/2 + (p-1)/2
if that's what you're asking
yeah, he's famous especially for his collabs with ramanujan
Yep I know him but I meant what book are you referring to
it's hte intro NT book he wrote

yes, he did write one

yeah <= p-1 and where can you remove that extra -1?
oof
since x+y <= p-1, x+y < p

like
the largest value x+y can have is p-1
and p-1 is clearly < p
ima just send it again to bring it down
My mind is like take the conjugate of x+y 
first line
yee
lmao mero sniped me
ouch
oh before this I mean the words, unless that's hwat you were going for too
ah 
they're distinct mod p
from x<= (p-1)/2 and y<= (p-1)/2?
x-y=0 mod p => contradiction
ngl tho the wording is a bit weird I think? they make it sound like 1 < x + y < p implies x-y = 0 mod p when it follows from this (or does it?)
wait
wrong GIF
but ok

Yes exactly and I hate it
hmm?
show a picture of what (2) is that they refer to
that's where it comes from to begin with
ok cool, so you know at lowest x, y are both 1, and 1 < 1+1
yep obviously
but this pic alone doesn't explain why they start off saying they're distinct
1 < 1+1
Omg WHAT? /j

I know 😭
ok back up, remember, what are we proving here
maybe send a larger picture or something earlier on haha
I'll just send the theorem
well I know the theorem
but I think you're like, losing sight of what we're doing here
maybe you should just say in words what we're trying to show or find out
literally 99% of the proofs: We're gonna tell you they're distinct and then get you to take it to be a fact despite how it may not be true in the complex world but who cares because we're only dealing with Reals, and then use that fact to prove everything
That's me 90% of the time when doing proofs so I'm not surprised
smh this is why u keep track of your goals by writing a section of the stuff you're given and another section for your endgoal/what you're trying to demonstrate
let's prove that those (2) are distinct mod p
There is a chapter where they say "the proof the contour integral representation of the Gamma function is left an exercise (an excellent exercise) to the reader."
lol
pain 💀
I looked for the proof online and I almost had a stroke 
proofwiki moment
Yep
don't look it up, that's just cheating yourself
true true
it's pretty easy but if you've never done it then it's worth taking the time to do it
Well depends on what do you mean by "pretty easy"
it's literally the proof that they carry out there lol.
But isn't it good to just look it up then actually understand the proof?

you should try to figure it out yourself first before just giving up
like imagine someone give you a puzzle
I do try it by myself first
your first response shouldn't be to look up a guide for how to solve the puzzle and then put it together following the instructions
Like get stuck for 3 days then just look it up
3 days
relatable
Anyway let's move on the main topic
depends, finding a good balance of how long is good and is a waste takes time to figure out
I guess, what's the end goal of all this anyways?
at some point if you want to do research, then you'll basically be working on stuff that there aren't answers out there anymore for you to look up anymore
Yeah I'm pretty aware of that
ok sorry I think I'm getting a bit preachy my bad lol
Sometimes when I feel bad about myself not doing the proof then looking it up, I make another similar problem then prove it so that i feel good about myself again
same 
be like trying to make yourself feel good about your skillissue
I guess my process is more like, I come to a new problem, I throw everything I think I can at it and try to see them to their conclusion as best I can, maybe give it a little time in case some clever idea magically comes to me, then I'll give in and look up solutions.
I don't feel bad if I can't do it, but idk if that's just easy to say "don't feel bad" haha
but as long as I feel like I tried I feel good, and excited that I'm about to learn something new to extend the reach of my problem solving
idk if this helps
Sometimes the exercises that are in the book are not related to the chapter at all... 
Yeah I definitely learn something new
yeah math books tend to be pretty uphill sadly lol
Chapter 4: congruence
First 5 problems: hah easy
6 to 8: hmm tricky
Last one: prove the RH using simple arithmetic
the exposure is smth I appreciate ig
ok so if 1<x+y<p and x-y = 0 mod p and hence x=y but then why (p-k)^2=k^2 mod p?
that's why we split it in the middle, (p-1)/2
like 1 and p-1 are "mirror images" across this
2 and p-2
3 and p-3, etc
...
(p-1)/2 and (p+1)/2
I think going in they either said it earlier or maybe assumed it was obvious and didn't state it that x^2=(-x)^2
x^2=(-x)^2=(p-x)^2 is where I see it coming from
if you go back to your mod 11 examples earlier, you can sorta notice that pattern too
eventually you would have found that out
I used Apostol before. It was very convenient to me lol
Wow this chat is more or less #discussion
And yes I agree some of the problems are raised by 10x in difficulty each time you go by but that's just how math books are
A really good example would be this
mb
Yeah this one
I skipped it successfully
I'm guessing you had to use Wilson's theorem somewhere but idk lol
what even is [n/p]
floor function
I was really confused too
Literally nobody;
Apostol: [x] denotes for floor function

waittt
I think
I feel like my brain is functioning a bit
I've seen a proof of FLT by induction and I see some similarities
Your brain cells are back

Oh yeah they also use a weird term "cross-classification"
basically it was a vid by michael penn
Turns out it's just inclusion exclusion principle
Time to see Michael then
offtopic but while I was finding the vid I saw this- but anw here's teh vid https://youtu.be/WRL47F6VyRE
We give a nice proof of Fermat's little theorem using induction.
Suggest a problem: https://forms.gle/ea7Pw7HcKePGB4my5
Please Subscribe: https://www.youtube.com/michaelpennmath?sub_confirmation=1
Merch: https://teespring.com/stores/michael-penn-math
Personal Website: http://www.michael-penn.net
Randolph College Math: http://www.randolphcoll...
I'm just an inductive proof lover 
The world is flat
Proof: left as an exercise to the reader
Okay thanks
the REALLY annoying thing is that the p and n-s are flipped

Pain
ok well this is trivial if n <= p but when n > p is pain
might be worth saying n!/(n-p)! = n(n-1)(n-2)...(n-(p-1)) = n^p-n mod p
although we sort of need to care about mod p^2, since we see that's 0 mod p by flt, and we divide that by p
elementary
Realization: 
that's what makes it so fun
true
I never said I dislike it
I love it because it's challenging and never makes me bored
oh I was responding to @errant otter haha
Yep
true same
time to drag this down so that we don't have to keep scrolling up
so the case where n < p is trivial 
binom(n,p)= n!/(p!(n-p)!) thank me later
I can sense that you are going to use induction
Use Lucas' Theorem (assuming you are not restricting yourself to what you know so far)
reason being binom n, p would just evaluate to 0 and floor of n/p will evaluate to 0 too
But it is an overkill I'd say 
,w lucas theorem

That's definitely an overkill
very different indeed
"You say that, but I use ODEs to solve for an object's motion without air resistance

now prove the thereom
I like the generating function proof of lucas's theorem pretty cool
Left as an exercise to the reader leaves
like in this special case we can do the generating function proof and not feel too crazy if you want
I love how generating functions are so magical
$(1+x)^n$ you can then write $n=n_0+\lfloor \frac{n}{p}\rfloor$
merosity
since it's only expanding out two terms
actually doing this would give us a recursive way to prove the full lucas theorem afterwards I believe too
What is n_0?

$n=n_0+p\left\lfloor \frac n p \right\rfloor$
merosity

$$(1+x)^n = (1+x)^{n_0}(1+x)^{p\left\lfloor \frac n p \right\rfloor}$$
merosity
Wouldn't n_0 be 1?
now use the fact that (1+x)^p = 1+x^p to rewrite that lastmost term
n_0 could be any digit 0 to p-1 if written in base p
Examples
p=2
0, 1, 10, 11, 100, 101, ...
rightmost digit is 0 or 1
that's counting up 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 in base 2
odd numbers are 1 mod 2, and even numbers are 0 mod 2
n mod p is exactly the same as the n_0 digit when n is written in base p
assuming you're picking your residues from the set {0, 1, ..., p-1}
Oh so instead of base 10 you are using base p?
yeah
Like binary for example
yup
Lol I would've never thought of that
in general you can think of getting the base b expansion of an integer this way
$n=n_0 + n_1b+n_2b^2+ ...$
merosity
maybe that helps to see first, like $n=n_0 \mod b$ then once you have that, $$\frac n b = \frac{n_0}{b} + n_1+n_2b+n_3b^2+\cdots$$
merosity
so then flooring throws out the n_0/b fractional part
$$\left\lfloor\frac n b \right\rfloor= n_1+n_2b+n_3b^2+\cdots$$
merosity
Okay
ok I think that makes it clear that n=n_0 + b floor(n/b) cool
resuming here by flipping $(1+x)^p=1+x^p \mod p$, $$(1+x)^n = (1+x)^{n_0}(1+x^p)^{\left\lfloor \frac n p \right\rfloor}$$
merosity
Yep
I just found out a mod p = a - p floor(a/p)
So what you said earlier now makes a lot of sense
No how is the last step true, i.e. 2a^3+2a?
It looks false for me
Unless you are assuming something I don't know of
I can see where you could potentially go with this. Use binomial expansion then somehow simplify stuff to get the desired result
yeah, we're actually almost done
since we only care about the coefficient n choose p from (1+x)^n, that's why we care about the x^p coefficient
but if you look on the right, x^p appears
if you expand out $$(1+x^p)^{\left\lfloor \frac n p \right\rfloor} = \sum_{k=0}^{\left\lfloor \frac n p \right\rfloor}x^{pk} \binom{\left\lfloor \frac n p \right\rfloor}{k}$$
merosity
the only two terms that have a chance of mattering to us are the first two, k=0 and k=1, since the others have already passed p in their degree
Yep
so we just care about $1+\left\lfloor \frac n p \right\rfloor x^p$ and how that multiplies with the term $(1+x)^{n_0}$
merosity
but since $0\le n_0 < p$ none of those $x^k$ in its binomial expansion can multiply with $1$ to make another $x^p$ term
merosity
well I mean Id idn't come up with this, I just adapted the one on the lucas' theorem wikipedia page to your special case
but I think understanding this special case makes understanding the full proof easier to see how it works basically
Sometimes when you go complex you actually understand stuff more than before
can we prove the second part of the queston this way too I wonder
They used this lemma

And together with Wilson's theorem they said
$\binom{n}{p}=q(-1)(-1)= q \text{ mod }p$
queen_succubus
I take a moment to look at stuff in another server and then come back to see #elementary-number-theory disfigured beyond recognition
The product term is confusing lol
Just like me looking at #calculus then seeing somebody posting elementary school math and
proceeding to call it calculus
NAHHH U SAW THAT?
hmm
yeah idk if I like their proof I was working on figuring out how to adapt it to the toher case haha
$$n=n_0+p^{\alpha+1}m$$ with $\gcd(m,p)=1$
merosity
They claim 1/2 is 3 in characteristic 5. over here: https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/q1h3087999p27906996 not sure what that means
then going through the same argument should work mod p^a
set a=0 to recover the original case we just did
actually gcd condition is not necessary, like specifically what changes is:
no I don't think it works haha
I'm gonna try working on understanding dirichlet characters tomorrow. Their definition is quite ambiguous
Thanks for helping @torn escarp @errant otter 
oh I see, it does look like it works

$$(1+x)^n = (1+x)^{n_0}(1+x)^{p^{1+\alpha}m} \mod p^\alpha$$
$$(1+x)^n = (1+x)^{n_0}(1+x^{p^{1+\alpha}})^m \mod p^\alpha$$
merosity
looks like RHS has no x^p term, which means on the LHS the coefficient n choose p is 0 mod p^a
No x^p terms?
How so
I might be making a false statement in the middle there when I jump frm (1+x)^{p^k} to (1+x^{p^k}) mod p^{k-1}
I think something like that is true though that'll work if it isn't though lol

based on what's written, the (1+x)^{n_0} has none like previously since exponents are only from 0 to p-1
and (1+x^(p^k)) raised to a power with k>1 means you can't get exactly x^p either, since they're strictly higher degree
Oh yeah
ah ok I remember how to prove this now
$(1+x)^{p^n}=1 \mod p^n$ we can do a little induction argument since $$(1+x)^{p^n}=1+p^ny \mod p^{n+1}$$ now raise to $p$ power and you get $$(1+x)^{p^{n+1}} = \sum_{k=0}^p \binom{p}{k} (p^ny)^k = 1$$ since the $\binom{p}{k}$ terms have $p$ in all of them (except the k=0 and k=p terms)
merosity
@sacred junco
@honest flicker lmao
yayy induction
I totally mangled what I really wanted to prove by writing what I did though, but whatever
I actually need help, please, don't forget me
what's your question
Why is 1/2 = 3 in characteristic 5?
I guess one way to see it is multiply both sides by 2 and see that you get a true statement
is that satisfying enough or not, idk kind of hard to answer "why" questions
i meant how?
you can think of it symbolically
1/2 just means "multiplicative inverse of 2"
but 3 behaves as the multiplicative inverse of 2, since 3*2=6 = 1+5 = 1 in char 5
so they're actually the same cause inverses are unique
we can prove that more fundamental claim too if you want, but you should try to prove that too
yeh let's do it
ok let's say x has the inverses y and z
multiplication is associative so we can multiply them all together in two different ways:
(yx)z=y(xz)
since they're inverses we make the identity, yx=1 and xz=1
1z=y1
z=y
so actually they're the same
I don't know what you're talking about I thought your question was just this
after that, i have nother Q. From
here
How'd they derive 2a^3+2a
that's just saying the inverse of 3 is 2
gang, how?
if you're working over characteristic 5, then 5 acts like 0
and we can see that 3 * 2 = 6 = 1 over characteristic 5
so we have some a, b such that a * b = 1 which means that a is the inverse of b and likewise, b is the inverse of a
because 6a^3+6a is congruent to a^3+a right
Amirite?
Broski
yup
what is the relevance of 1/2 being 3 in characteristic 5. they might as well have not noted that, right?
Zhai Pan?
Oh no Zitong Hao?
Isn't that superfluous??
idk, 1/2 = 3 and 1/3 = 2 is basically the same statement to me, I wouldn't lose sleep over it
So um, I don't understand how if d is a common divisor, it divides a-bq_1
This is a mistake, no? If say g=h=0, then any function f defined on N satisfies the convolution
Seems like they would need to be non-zero at 1 for it to be true
Ah, note: * denotes dirichlet convolution
usually multiplicative functions have f(1)=1 in the definition
Ye, this doesn't tho
I'm pretty sure f(1)=1 should be included too
I mean, it's not necessary. The corollary can just be that if two of f,g,h are multiplicative and non-vanishing at 1, then so is the third
I believe
I mean you can prove it from the definition
yeah then your definition is the same as the usual definition except it also allows the trivial function to be multiplicative, so yes in the corollary they should exclude the case when g and h are trivial
but it's not a big issue since trivial functions are trivial so not a big deal anyway
Ye
(just note f(1)=0 implies f(n)=0 for all n in your definition of multiplicative functions)
f(n) = f(1)f(n), since (n,1)=1
divide by f(n) (not equal to zero) and you get it
why is f(n) necessarily nonzero?
Because something/0, no?
.
.
i mean f(n)=0 for all n is fine f(n)=f(1)*f(n) still holds
so f(1)=0 is allowed in CoffeeMan's definition
f is not identically zero
why?
Is my proof incomplete? 
What proof?
why can you assume f is not identically zero
if f(1)=0 it implies f(n)=0 for all n, proof: f(n)=f(1*n)=f(1)f(n)=0
Indeed
I know other people already said this but seems like it's still being argued
idk why it's still being argued 
some misunderstanding I assume, that's why I wrote out the statement and proof in case something was missed
also f(1)=1 is not necessary to define, f(1)=f(1*1)=f(1)f(1) so now that we know f(1)=0 case uniquely determines the 0 function, we can look at when f(1) != 0 and divide by it to get f(1)=1
yeah it depends on definition, some literature put f(1)=1 in the definition of multiplicative functions
but it doesn't quite matter at the end of the day since the only discrepancy is whether the trivial function is multiplicative, which is a trivial matter
yeah, I just figured it's nice to show that f(1)=1 is the same as excluding the 0 function
I agree we should exclude it so that we can say that multiplicative functions form a group under the dirichlet convolution
Okay f(n) = f(1*n) = f(n)f(1) holds true if f(n)=0 for all n or f(1)=1
wot
?
Ye, but if we don't include it we can simply say they form a semi-group
So we're just adding a little extra result
ew
Indeed lol
wtf is a semigroup
who introduced semi-groups into multiplicative number theory

just give me the ring structure at that point heh 😛
Why semigroups? 
U can show that's the structure it forms under dirichlet convolution
f(1)=1 included => group
f(1)=1 not included => semi-group
Again, doesn't rly matter tho

Read second sentence bro
probably the not identically zero part is in your definition of multiplicative functions
which is not in CoffeeMan's definition
The set of arithmetical functions with f(1)=/=0 forms an abelian group under multiplication, no?
I meant dirichlet multiplication mb
multiplicative functions, not arithmetical functions yeah
No, arithmetic functions
are you saying all multiplicative functions are arithmetical functions
and vice versa
as long as that's your definition, sure
No, I'm saying the set of arithmetic functions that are non-zero at 1 form an abelian group under dirichlet convolution
what does it mean to be an arithmetic function
Arithmetical functions have subgroups called multiplicative functions iirc
f: N->C
I don't get it bro 
Yup
ok maybe I'm misunderstanding something else, I agree that f(1) !=0 has a dirichlet inverse
Another terminology would be number-theoretic function
It's kinda confusing so I use arithmetical instead
You can pretty easily define an inverse recursively for any non-zero f
Seems all good then
the formula involves dividing by f(1), so that's all that matters yup
I just checked my book's definition and yep you're right
All good
For a second I read that as "I checked GPT" 
No no, we don't do that here
$n^{p-1}-1=(n^{(p-1)/2}-1)(n^{(p-1)/2}+1)\
\text{It follows that }n^{(p-1)/2}\equiv \pm 1 \text{ mod }p$
queen_succubus
I don't see how n^((p-1)/2) = +-1
n^(p-1) is 1 by Fermat
p divides one of the terms on the right
I guess you could say euclid's lemma for that
or just say it's a field, or weaker ufd, so you have no zero divisors
Suppose (n|p) = 1 ((n|p) is legendre symbol). Then there is an x such that x^2=n mod p and hence
$n^{(p-1)/2} \equiv (x^2)^{(p-1)/2} = x^{p-1} \equiv 1 (Fermat)$
despairful_deltoid
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Wow that's horrible
$n^{(p-1)/2} \equiv (x^2)^{(p-1)/2} = x^{p-1} \equiv 1 (Fermat)$
despairful_deltoid
Now
Suppose (n|p)=-1 and consider the polynomial
f(x) = x^((p-1)/2) - 1
Since the degree is (p-1)/2 the congruence
f(x) = 0 mod p has at most (p-1)/2 solutions, but notice that (p-1)/2 quadratic residues mod p are solutions so the nonresidues are not. So we get,
$n^{(p-1)/2}\not\equiv 1 \text{mod p} \text{ If (n|p)=-1}$
despairful_deltoid
But n^(p-1)/2 = +/- 1 mod p so n^(p-1)/2 = -1
That makes sense but I still don't get why they can conclude n^(p-1)/2 = +/- 1
ab=0 means a=0 or b=0, then they're moving the +-1 to the other side
It's a root of X^2 - 1
Of which there are at most 2
(n^(p-1)/2+1)(n^(p-1)/2-1)=0 mod p
By definition of a prime number, n^(p-1)/2+1=0 or n^(p-1)/2-1=0 mod p
oops that depends on the definition
It looks something like (x-1)(x+1) = 0 so x = -1,1
the fact that p divides ab implies p divides a or p divides b
ab=0 mod n does not always imply a=0 or b=0 mod n, but it is if n is prime
i.e. Fp is an integer domain
So here you literally showed (n|p) is congruent to n^(p-1)/2 mod p
An overkill
What's wrong with overkill? 
not elegant
I'd say it's elegant if you prove the generalized version then use it
Usually generalized versions are easier to prove
Ehhhhh

Well sometimes I'd agree
do you truly believe it is easier to prove (n|p)=n^(p-1)/2 in this case
It's kind of obvious
also i'm talking about 'overkill' not 'proving a general case'
But general cases => overkill, no?
it's just etiquette to not overkill if possible
no
sure, if you think so, doubt anyone would agree it's more obvious than the question posed though
it's just etiquette to not give an overkill solution if you know an easier and quicker solution
i don't wish to argue whether general cases are overkills as that is meaningless
There was etiquette to maths? 
..why not?
Prove that math has etiquette
but this is off topic in this channel so better cease this discussion
What's meant by "etiquette" when it comes to math anyway
ask a philosopher, i don't care enough to be rigorous with things outside of mathematics
lol I like the "fighting" it's good
I don't think it's irrelevant or off topic cause it's about the solutions
I really don't mind overkills as long as they are proven
it's more about philosophy rather than elementary number theory
better suited for channels for general discussions
Proof techniques ™️
generally speaking if this started spontaneously I'd agree, but it naturally came up from this
sure it's a side tangent, but the rules aren't that strict I mean it's not like people are really clamouring to get into the elementary number theory channel to ask their question here haha
lmao if this were deserving of a fine what I'm doing in #calculus is equivalent to war crimes
we're like, building an #elementary-number-theory subculture 
3 of my books literally use an overkill to prove FLT
oh by FLT I Meant fermat last theorem
Not little
I just realised they're the same

I doubt anyone would think proving euler's theorem and deduce FlT as a corollary is an overkill
I've seen someone getting angry over people saying that his problem is not calculus related (and that's true)
but I think anyone would agree proving (n|p)=n^(p-1)/2 to answer the question above is an overkill
Maybe the way we use the word overkill is different
Ngl I just do a #(appropriate channel name) for that
Which reminds me of how many times I've seen integrals and derivatives (albeit mostly trivial) are seen in #precalculus

not me posting elem NT problems in #advanced-number-theory because my brain cells are not working
I know this is not #discussion but @unique cypress @normal heart are you guys more into analytic NT? It feels that way to me
yes
yes


I'm looking into both fields and to be honest analytic feels more familiar to me than algebraic
Maybe because I'm into analysis too
study both to a certain degree
until you know which one you like more
they can get pretty different depending on what you're focused on, but also have a fair bit of crossovers cause of dedekind zeta functions
I need to start abstract algebra first before going into algebraic NT
yes
i would advise against banning all possibilities of algebraic NT before even studying abstract algebra
Which one is harder?
Depends on what are your strengths
I mean in my country analytic number theory is obsolete
There are courses for Algebraic but it's only one course and it's for graduate students
I wouldn't give up on analytic just because unis don't have a course for that
Self studying exists
We are just too smart for you guys 
Breh
What's happening here exactly?!
any1 have apostol handy
this might be a silly question but in theorem 2.1 does the second to last equality hold by binimial theorem Apostol seems to sweep plenty under the rug
which step do you not understand?
send a screenshot
or take a picture
I think he meant the sum of mobius function which is just floor(1/n)
some proofs use binom expansion for it
uhh okay? I still don't know which step or which theorem it is but sure
since i don't have apostol with me rn lol
Same but I still somehow remember the number of the theorem xD
Are the congruences arbitrary?
It’s just the binomial expansion for the second to last equality
Yes, binomial
Ok thanks 🙏
(alternatively you can imagine you're grouping terms together and the binomial coefficients are the results of counting the number of terms grouped together, but tbf this is just the proof for binomial (with an integer exponent anyway))
Why binomial tho?
no?
It’s the exact definition of (x-y)^n @sacred junco
Like how did they think of the sequence
i wouldn't say definition but it's the expansion, yes
Yeah expansion better word for it
I don't get how they are related that's it
I saw another proof for that but never understood the binom one
I don't think many people could think of this at first sight, but in hindsight I think it's because they want to get the term 2^(p-1)/2 out, which is 2 multiplied (p-1)/2 times, so a natural thing to think of would be the even number congruences, since there are (p-1)/2 integers in the sequence 2,4,6,...,p-1
there are two possibilities for r depending on whether p is 1 or -1 mod 4
Does that come from (-1|p)?
no
you can do some experiments
try n=11
and n=13
and see which r you stop on for these two n respectively
(11-1)/2=5
11 -(11-1)/2 = 6
(13-1)/2 = 6
13-(13-1)/2 = 7
5 is 1 mod 4 and 5 is 2 mod 4
??
I'm doing this
oh wait it's p not r
.. yes
do the proof again
with the two different values of n
and see which r you get from the proof
Wait the n you gave me are for p's?
oh yes, sorry for the confusion
for p =11
10 = 1(-1)^1
2 = 2(-1)^2
7 = 3(-1)^3
4 = 4(-1)^4
6 = 5(-1)^5
6 = 6(-1)^6
4 = 7(-1)^7
8 = 8(-1)^8
2 = 9(-1)^9
10 = 10(-1)^10
...
for p =13
12 = 1(-1)^1
2 = 2(-1)^2
10 = 3(-1)^3
4 = 4(-1)^4
8 = 5(-1)^5
6 = 6(-1)^6
6 = 7(-1)^7
8 = 8(-1)^8
4 = 9(-1)^9
10 = 10(-1)^10
2 = 11(-1)^11
...
do more steps until you hit one of the possible values of r
Its edited now

