#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 3 of 1
I realized I used "numbers" twice
I meant if the a_i's form a periodic sequence then the number this continued fraction represents is the root of a quadratic equation with rational coefficients
Yeah thank you for clarifying, thats what I assumed was meant
Sqrt2 is nice because it's 1, 2, 2, 2, ...
But this other number won't have a periodic sequence because it's not the root of a rational coefficient quadratic
(In other words, because it's transcendental?)
😅 I don't know enough number theory to know if this is transcendental
But if it is then it certainly won't be the root of a polynomial as that would be algebraic
yeah basically that's it
although it's true for algebraic ones like you were saying that aren't those nice special quadratic case
Oh i see thanks
Think about what values of alpha and beta can be put in. Hint: they are completely separate and can be varied independently.
so what do i do with the x then
The x is not a variable; it is the argument of a function.
so is there a formula i could use or do i just guess the numbers
yea i have no idea how to do that
is there any videos that you'd recommend for me to watch for this question
I doubt there are any
so what is the question actually asking
like this is the last question but i dont understand it at all
@still flare
Do not ping me to demand help. I am not always available or willing to answer questions.
my bad
an enciphering function has to be invertible. you're multiplying by alpha and adding beta, so you need to know when can you invert multiplication and addition?
Not really number theory, but https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cesàro_summation gives some ideas for the second part.
thanks
what about the first part.
Also where does this belong to
proofs
or discrete
I'd say calculus or real analysis. I'm always in doubt about that distinction.
63N1=1(mod5) => 3N1=1 (mod5) => N1=2
I can't understand how to this work
I need some help
You mean how it went from 63n1 to n1?
Hello! Can I have some push in the right direction to prove this? I know the equation should have a perfect square form so I should prove that, but I am not sure how to start it
if it has at least one solution, then you can factor out a linear term from it
Multiply both sides by 4 and factor
Not a very hard case to consider separately
ye
then if both roots are the same, you can equate the coefficients on (x-r)^2=x^2+x+1 mod p and work out what restriction that puts on the root r, and it leads to it being impossible
so like this?
If I have a diophantine equatoin ax+by = c where gcd(a,b) =/= 1 , and then i find the solution (x1,y1) to (a/d)x + (b/d)y = (c/d) (assuming d | c ), then (x1, y1) will also be a solution to ax+by = c?
Yes, you just multiply by d
In how many ways 2 bananas can be distributed among 5 persons if each person can get any number of things?
i got the answer 21 but is it right? also is there any general formula for these types of questions
x^2 can be written as abc, x^3 can be written as dace. x^4 can be written as dfgba. Same letters mean same numbers. Find the number x
I know, that the answer is 13, but i would like to prove it, not to solve it by coincidence, please help
Hmm, you can set a bound on x first (try to find which numbers have a square that is 3 digit along with the numbers whose power of 4 has 5 digits) ||10 <= x <= 17||
From here just checking all cases?
yes, i did so, but i am not allowed to check cases
I need to set such bounds that there is only one number left
Is this a correct proof? I saw this statement in a book and tried to write a proof of it myself.
You'll probably want to replace that screenshot with a tighter crop that doesn't self-doxx you...
Quick question, i wanted to find 4^9 mod 13. I know 4^12 mod13 will be 1 because of fermat's theorem. So i just raise the congruence $4^12 \equiv 1 mod13$ by $frac{1}{4}$ which gives 4^3mod13=1 then i can square it to get 4^9mod13=1 but this is wrong
I should be getting 12 instead
$4^{12} \equiv 1 mod13$ by $\frac{1}{4}$
N0chin
Perhaps taking the 4th root is wrong but i thought it shouldn't be a problem since 4 and 13 are coprime
a^4 = 1 does not imply a = 1
@sacred junco
the solutions to this are a = 1, -1, i, -i
which in this case are 1, 12, 5 and 8
Oh yes, but i didn't know if i can include imaginary numbers too
I see
hm, maybe that was misleading
its not a complex number, its shorthand for "a number that squares to -1"
notice that -1 = 12 mod 13
and that 5 and 8 both square to 12 = -1 mod 13
Looks like my basics are not clear
Yes
so you cant just take 4th roots on both sides
there are (in this case) 4 solutions for x
so you would have to consider 4 different cases
Yes, i guess i can't be lazy with roots
So how can I find 4^(105)mod13 if you don't mind
Excercise 10 the answer is a_n
Im fairly certain what I need to do with Excersice.11 is set a_n= n+2/2(n+1)
then find a_i/a_i-1 such that a_i is = i+2/2(i+1) and a_(i-1) is easy to find
then once I find a_i/a_i-1 it should be equal to the expression that is inside the multiplication notation
which would then be equal to a_n and a_n is equal to what i set it too.
but when I try to solve a_i/a_i-1 I dont get the expression I want, namely the expression inside the multiplication notation
recall that a^2 - b^2 = (a + b)(a - b)
apply this with a = 1, b = 1/(i+1)
@white lion
should help you recognize ai/ai-1
😦
here's one way to look at it, make same denominators and then simplified to $$\prod_{i=1}^n \frac{i(i+2)}{(i+1)^2} $$ then since you want it to match up you can group i with i+1 and i+1 with i+2 like this: $$\prod_{i=1}^n \frac{\left(\frac{i+2}{i+1}\right)}{\left(\frac{i+1}{i+0}\right)}$$
Merosity
I’m definitely going to try that thanks!
this is a version of the generalized binomial theorem on wikipedia. where r is a complex number, x and y are real numbers with |x| > |y|.
Question: what if x or y is negative and the exponents require the computation of the n th root?
e.g. Put x = -2, y = 1, r = 1/4
the fourth root of a negative number has 4 values to choose from, how should I pick the roots?
r is an integer in [ 0, +infinite [ if i recall
for all r *, so 1/4 won't work
nvm, I found it on the same wikipedia page
It's easier to look at as coming from $$(1+\frac y x)^r =\sum_{k=0}^\infty \binom{r}{k}\left(\frac y x\right)^k$$. Since in the sum you only ever have $\frac y x = -\frac 1 2$ being raised to integer powers $k$, there's no root to consider on that side. The root is entirely decided from factoring out $$(1+\frac y x)^r = \frac{(x+y)^r}{x^r}$$ so you're really taking the 4th root here and deciding which one, so when it's multiplied to the other side, it just is consistent with this choice.
Merosity
Could someone help me understand what congruence classes are, I don’t see how they link a=k+b and [a]_1
one way to look at it is two integers are in the same congruence class modulo n if they have the same remainder when divided by n
all integers have 0 remainder when divided by 1, so all integers are in the same congruence class modulo 1
I'd recommend not focusing on modulo 1 for a bit since it's so simple of a case that it can be confusing, focus on understanding modulo 2 and 3, or maybe modulo 10 might be easy too since mod 10 is just the last digit of the number
I see, in terms of what [a]_1 represents, is that when modulo n=1 and a is all the integers that have the same remainder when divided by 1?
that sounds about right to me
a is a specific number, it's a representative for all other numbers that share the same remainder when divided by 1
I see so [a]_1 isn’t a set? But rather one thing
[a]_1 is the set of numbers, a is just one number
so while a != b, [a]_1 = [b]_1 since they are the same sets
[a]_1 is a set, which is one thing
maybe at some point you learned even*odd = even or even + odd = odd
this is really the same thing, working with congruence classes modulo 2
Okay I think I understand now I’ll ask if I do have more questions, thanks 🙂
you're welcome, good luck
In Gaussian Integers, does anyone know why $\gcd(x+2i,x-2i)=\gcd(x+2i,4)$?
TheUnTamed
I'm applying division algorithm but can't seem to find a pair which produces r=4.
I know that $N(x+2i)=N(x-2i) \le 4$, which hints towards division algo and applying the fact that the Gaussian Integers are a Euclidean Domain following $N(r) < N(b)$ for $a = bq+r$.
Where N(k) is the norm function.
Context:
TheUnTamed
are you guys even elementary now??
Ok I think a convoluted possible explanation is if $p|\gcd(x+2i,x-2i)$, then $N(p)|\gcd(N(x+2i),N(x-2i),N(2x) \implies N(p)|\gcd(x^2+4,4x^2) \implies N(p)|\gcd(x^2+4,x^2-12) \implies N(p)|16 \implies N(p)|N(4) \implies p|4$ since $p$ is irreducible. The last step doesn't seem very rigorous but if anyone has a better explanation please tag me.

just the euclidean algorithm gcd(a,b)=gcd(a,b-a) and factoring out a unit since it doesn't matter
They sure are
I think this is correct, is there a name for this? and how do I prove it
This is Euclid's lemma, rephrased
This states that if b | ap and p does not divide b, then b | a
Now we usually state it as follows, contemporarily:
If $a \mid bc$ and $a$, $b$ are coprime, then $a \mid c$.
Boytjie
The typical proof of this is a nice application of Bézout's lemma.
bravo, thanks!
No worries
Anyone here ever play with the Collatz conjecture?
I'd rather waste my time doing something more fun
why not Riemann hypothesis you will get 1 million i guess if you solve it
how might I prove this?:
if S is the set {1,2,3,...,20}, prove that for any element a of S there exists an element b in S such that a^2+b^2 is congruent to 0 mod 41
have so far that 1^2,2^2,...,20^2 are all distinct mod 41
if you have a^2+b^2=0 mod 41 for some a, b in {1,...,40} you can always replace b with 41-b if it's larger than 20, so you can be a bit lenient if that helps
because S are invertible elements and 41=1 mod 4 you have solutions to x^2+1=0 mod 41
how would I use that in the proof
well if I say any more I'd just be proving it entirely, but I think I was ambiguous there
you can use the fact that there is some x that satisfies x^2+1=0 mod 41 to turn it into a^2+b^2=0 mod 41
hint: ||multiply both sides of the congruence x^2+1=0 mod 41 by a^2||
Ooohh the b I'm looking for would just be a*x right
And if it isn't i can just have it be 41-b
exactly 👍
Thanks
yup you're welcome
Lol, because I can actually comprehend the problem of Collatz 
Not sure if it is new, but I managed to generalize the problem to the reals, so I could make irrationals "converge" to other irrationals in the limit of an infinite amount of iterations. If I can prove that (more than doubtful), then the Collatz conjecture will also be proven. It was fun to work on, but yeah feels like wasting time mostly.
Good luck! Who knows everything possible
Thanks! I haven't really worked on it hardcore in a few years, but I started thinking about it again last night.
some japanese ceo i believe is also offering around a million dollars for the collatz conjecture solution
how does this inequality work? here n is floor(x) so that n <= x < n+1
might have been a typo?
- log (x + 1) would make more sense than - log x + 1 in second numerator
given 7x = 2 (mod 20), why can't we multiply by 6 to get 42x = 2x = 12 (mod 20)? because now, if we multiply by 6 again, we get 12x = 72 = 12 (mod 20), but 1 is not a solution to the original congruence. what happened?
is the negative base representation of a number unique? for example -2 base.
6 is not invertible mod 20 (in fact it is a zero divisor), so this is not an equivalence transformation
your original problem is equivalent to solving 7x - 2 = 0 (mod 20); now if you multiply this by 6*6 = 36 = -4 (mod 20), you are instead looking at solutions of -4(7x-2) = 0 (mod 20)
now note that -4* 5 = -20 = 0 (mod 20) and thus you introduced the nontrivial solution x = 1
But you wrote that it is
edited
the argument stays the same
you introduce new solutions due to 6 (or 6*6) being a zero divisor
Okay
I see, okay, so with that in mind, how do I still get the original solutions alongside these new ones? Because as you wrote, x = 1 is an obvious solution, but it clearly isn't in the original equation
i dont think what you did helps with that
Why?
because you just end up with a different linear congruence, except this one is worse
why not do what you would do "normally" and find the inverse of 7?
gcd(7, 20) = 1
so using the euclidean algorithm you can find integers a, b such that 7a + 20b = 1
then a is an inverse of 7 mod 20
and you multiply by this
What do you know about modular arithmetic?
almost nothing
Well, have you read your book or whatever other material?
yes but it does not tell that
I don't believe you
and how does that help
Have you tried?
but what do i get from it
The answer to your question?
hows
thanks mate i forgot about (a+b)^n could also be c^n
No problem
it is still not clear but can i like show for each bracket that it does not divide and then sum up the results which make 0?
(2+17*2)^n/17 and (17+2)^n/17 and -2^n+1/17
all with mod 17 and then show 2+2-4=0
cause i still dont know how to get to that eqn
how would I prove that 3^1, 3^2, ..., 3^6 are the only residues of order 7 mod 1093?
it's easy enough to show that those all work since 3^7 is congruent to 1 mod 1093 but how can I show there aren't any others
Do you know that 1093 is prime?
yeah it's given
So Z modulo 1093 is a field.
In a field, the polynomial x^7-1 can have at most 7 roots.
is there a way to prove it without abstract algebra that you know of
this was on a mock amc 12
I don't know how to even speak about orders of residues without algebra.
oh then carry on then
sorry I meant "carry on" as in keep going with the proof
There's nothing more to it. You know 7 different roots of x^7-1, namely 1, 3, 3², 3³, ..., 3^6. Because Z_1093 is a field, there can be no others.
The first half of the hint doesn't seem to do anything useful.
I was thinking they meant once you know what to do when n is prime lets you say when n is composite X^n +1 =(X^(n/p))^p + 1 can then be factored the same way
Hmm, okay.
But at least in the solution that immediately strikes me, the key fact that X^n+1 factors in a certain way if n is odd and >1, independently of whether it is prime or not.
true, I didn't think too much about it
just thinking once I get an odd prime, then that covers all cases by induction but
you can just go directly for the whole thing when odd
Yeah it's a red herring 😂
I just considered cases, n was odd then $(a+1)$is a factor so not prime. If it is odd then take $n=2^k y$ but then $a^n+1=a^{2^ky}+1=(a^{2^k})^y+1$ as y is odd then it can be factored like before.
Max..
anyone know how i can derive the formula F_(k+1) * F_(k-1) - (F_(k))^2 = (-1)^k where F_k is the kth fibonacci number? I’ve played around w it a bit but i can’t seem to derive it from scratch
have you tried the closed form in terms of the golden ratio? that's what I'd try personally
not the one with rounding, the one that involves both roots of x^2-x-1 to powers
with phi and -1/phi?
i havnt, i’ve been using the recursive formula but i’ll play w it using the one i think you’re talking about
i’m not sure what you’re referring to about the rounding one though not that it matters
I don't know if this is the most efficient way but you can look at the forms a number with $2020=2^2\cdot 5\cdot 101$ divisors must be in. For example $p_1^3\cdot p_2^4\cdot p_3^{100}$ is one way
layla💜
p_1, p_2, p_3 distinct primes
and p^(2019) is another way for example, but that's not going to be smaller than the smallest number of the other form
that is definitely the way to go about doing this
and of course we just want to pick the smallest primes
any form with an exponent >= 201 is not going to be worth looking at
so that narrows down it already
because 2^201 is larger than a number you can find in this form
7^3 * 5^4 * 2^100 < 2^201
@sacred junco following so far?
:c
np ^-^
Can we have negative classes in integer mod 3?
I know [2] =[-1] but does that mean [-1] is in Zmod3
it doesn't matter which number you use to represent a particular class
like you said,[2] and [-1] are the same thing
so if [2] is in Z_3 (which it is), then [-1] is aswell
for doing calculations it is sometimes pretty useful actually to use negative numbers for representing a class
e.g. calculating the powers [88]^n mod 89 would suck, but the powers of [-1]^n mod 89 are very easy to compute
Thanks 👍
if i have 3n^5=x mod 7 can i take the ^5 off?
?????
no those are not the same
so what should i do?
wdym?
well just try out every element n=0,1, .., 6
its not but isnt there a^c=b^c mod m
3*2^5=5 but 3*2=6
if a=b then a^c=b^c, yes
but the other direction is false
also even if it was true, where is another ^5 in your question
so how to ace number theory if i am learning it on my own?
one way to get started is if $n=0$ then $x=0$, otherwise by fermat's little theorem $n^6=1 \mod 7$ so $n^5=n^{6-1}=n^6 n^{-1}=1n^{-1}=n^{-1}\mod 7$.
Merosity
I think most people find books to work through
good one?
what's your goal in learning number theory
is it a class you're taking in university, you're a highschool student wanting to study for olympiads or just learning for fun on your own or something else
I like Silverman's A Friendly Introduction to Number Theory
but it might be a bit too slow paced for you and not enough practice problems if you're interested in competition math
olympiad
like i have only 2 weeks left for fast one and like 4 months till next one
hi, there is one way (=>) idk how to start/prove it. The other one (<=) is the easiest one (thanks to Gauss theorem)
n is an integer*
Show that 7|n if and only if 7|5n
that direction is even easier since n | 5n, 7 | n and divisibility is transitive
ah this direction stands on one line
Ty
which Gauss theorem is that? I was thinking more like Euclid's lemma for (<=)
huh idk how you call this theorem but i call it Gauss theorem
if a|bc and (a and b are prime? coprime? idk the wording for GCD(a,b) = 1)
then a|c
I see, gotcha
is there a proof for this? where B_j is the j-th Bernoulli number
my lecture notes has this recurrence relation, I guess it's provable by induction?
Hello! can I substitute with congruence equations?
this is the function f, and I am trying to show that n \equiv f(f(f(f(n)))) \mod 9
like this
You can indeed do that.
Find all $(a,b) \in \mathbb{Q}$ that are such that the numbers $\frac{ab+1}{a} , \frac{ab+1}{b} \in \mathbb{Z}$
Emmanouel
thank you! which property of congruences would this be using?
This is not really a property of congruences. You have proved that for any n, n = f(n) mod 9. So we choose appropriate n twice to get that this is true.
ah I see!! thank you so much for the help~~~
guys any help...
do you know how to evaluate the euler phi function normally?
think of it as phi(2^N)
what's a 3-perfect number
googling out of curiosity, https://oeis.org/A005820 seems to be when sigma(n)=3n
hello! is my reasoning here okay?
what's f(n)?
uhhhh note that u have $2^k3^2p = 3 + p + \sum_{c=1}^k2$
valley
you can use that to get a lower bound on k with induction (hint: ||try a fairly low number||)
and then you can wrangle that into a lower bound on p (hint: ||subtraction and grouping!!||)
fun problem!
i wish i had a more elegant solution tho ngl lol
u have to check a few cases this way
that's not quite right for the sum of divisors
tons of other divisors are missing, like 2p, 3p, 4p, etc
hmm
it's a multiplicative functions o assuming $p \ne 3$, $$\sigma(2^k3p)=(2^{k+1}-1)(1+3)(1+p)$$
Merosity
that'll get all the combinations of divisors together when you multiply it out, I compressed the 1+2+...+2^k into 2^{k+1}-1 as a geometric series of course but
this is not happy im malding fr
heppens to all of us sadly
this!!
Simplifying a bit since those factors are relatively prime I get those two integers make $9$, $$\frac{2^{k+1}-1}{p}*\frac{p+1}{2^{k-2}} = 9$$ then basically this forces one of three scenarios for how to distribute the $3$s as divisors, in a fancy way can be written as $i=0,1,2$ on the conditions $p=-1 \mod 3^{2-i}$ and $2^{k+1}=1 \mod 3^i$. I feel like a little more can be done, since $\mathrm{ord}_3(2)=2$ and $\mathrm{ord}_9(2)=6$ we can say $k+1=2m$ and $k+1=6m$. It's starting to get a bit gross though so maybe it's worth stepping back and seeing if there's some other approach to take before pushing further
Merosity
oh, set $2^{k+1}-1=pa$ and $p+1=2^{k-2}b$ with $ab=9$ and substituting with the $2^{k-2}$ from the second one into the first one with multiplying through by $b$ to get $$b2^{k-2}2^3-b=pab$$ $$(p+1)8-b=p9$$ $$p=8-b$$ Since $b$ is only either $1,3,9$ it means $p=7$ or $p=5$ are the only solutions.
Merosity
then make sure to work out what k can be
OKAY I FUCKING FIGURED IT OUT
ONLY TOOK 30 MINUTES
goddamn
so apparently you have ||3n=(4p+4)\sum_{c=0}^k 2^c|| and you can use that
gods that took so much longer than it should have
strategy is the same
my final answers I got for checking ||120 and 672||
and i got two numbers and im correct according to the oeis link so im fkin done
||120 and 672?||
yes
THANK FUCKING GOD
i would have actually fr cried if i'd gotten that wrong
also shit it's 1:34 and i have a chem test tmrw i was gonna study for
uhhh stay up til 2 and study or js sleep
i have to wake up by 6:30
.>
Hey!
How may I prove this way? (it is originally an equivalence and the other way is easy for me)
Let p, prime number
a, b, two integers
p|a or p|b => p|ab
the other way was easier? interesting haha
this way should be easier?
Idk how do I proceed to get p|ab at the end
what does p|a mean?
p|a => GCD(p, a) = p, since p is a prime number
how about the definition of p|a?
There exists k in Z such that a=pk
yea, so how might that relate to the expression ab?
Multiply by b? I guess
sounds good
Okay Im convinced now
Ty!
np 🙂
I would like too ask how to show the following is true? I have proved that the order of 3 is 3^(2^(n-2))
I am stuck at proving elements are pairwise incongruent part, idk how to show 3^i is never congruent to -3^j 🥲
from my lecture notes, does this miss the condition that a and b are coprime? otherwise, put p = 7, 1/2 is considered a p-integer, but not 7/14.
Yes, good catch.
Emmanouel
Could someone explain to me how to go about this question, my understanding is quite lacking on modulo
For something to be a field it must satisfy all the axioms on the binary operation of addition and multiplication
I know that [a]+[b]=[a+b] and [a][b]=[ab]
I’m probably overlooking a lot of things but surely the two above properties means that all the axioms will be satisfied?
It says that a field is a set F that satisfies all the field axioms?
Right, so perhaps you should check the field axioms.
This is not all of the axioms.
I know, but just the axioms of addition has my working shown that it does work there?
Saying "obviously" is not really working, but I'm not interested. List out the field axioms, and think about whether or not your observation that [a] + [b] = [a+b} and [a][b] = [ab] proves them.
I realise I said "check," but I meant you should review them.
Do you mind giving me a specific axiom to review on?
I don't know the specific list of axioms you've been given since you haven't posted them
But I will point out one property
Perhaps this is listed
The multiplicative inverse?
There we go, yes
This one is not implied by what you stated
This is the crucual property of a field, that distinguishes it from a commutative ring.
You surely know that Z with addition and multiplication satisfies almost all the field axioms!
However of course, it doesn't have multiplicative inverses. This should show you why the reasoning you gave above is not sufficient.
Z as in the integers?
Z is the set of integers, yes
In relation to the question posted above
We did just show that Z_n is not a field hence Z_7 and Z_4 aren’t fields, for something to be an ordered field it must also satisfy the property of a field
Would the answer be the last option?
Who says Z_n is not a field, sorry?
I set [a] and [b] to be two distinct congruence classes in Z_n?
I don't see how it follows that Z_n is not a field.
In fact, Z_n is actually a field for some numbers n.
So can you elaborate on your thought as to why Z_n is not a field?
Because it didn’t satisfy the axiom of multiplicative inverse?
Okay, I’ll have a go at it
Just a reminder, you only need to check the case that n = 7 in the question.
I’m not sure as to how to prove it
I’ve come across a theorem in which [a] in Z_m has an inverse iff gcd (a,m)=1
use bezout's theorem
Using that I can deduce that Z_7 has inverses for all a whereas Z_4 doesn’t in the case [2]_4
You can also just check all elements of Z_7.
There are only 6 nonzero ones, after all.
Another question I have is if
[x][y]=[0] does either x or y=0
Not always, no
In fact, it's not obvious, but this is true exactly when Z_n is a field
Since [x][y]=[xy]=[0]
check your Z_4 example
So when x=y=2?
That is an example, yes
Lecture notes claims $2^j = (1 + 1)^j \ge j + 1$ for positive integer $j$. I don't understand the inequality. What's the thought process?
Mattuwu
it's taking the first two terms of the binomial expansion as a lower bound
Merosity
wow! thanks!
you're welcome
The reduced residue set of 8 is {1,3,5,7}. All 4 of those are their own multiplicative inverses mod 8. Why/when does this happen.
Let f be a polynomial with integer coefficients. Show
that a − b | f(a) − f(b) for any integers a, b. This is the same as saying f(a + d) ≡ f(a)
(mod d).
you could factor directly for $f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^N c_nx^n$, $$f(a)-f(b)=\sum_{n=1}^N c_n (a^n-b^n) = (a-b) \sum_{n=1}^N c_n \sum_{k=0}^{n-1}a^{n-1-k}b^k$$
Merosity
What reading should I do to learn some basic number theroy?
what the fuck is the love heart operation lmao
kiss
nevermind that i solvedit
uhhh hi i know this is a little late but i wanted to lyk that there's probably a much easier way to solve the problem
than uh whatever ur doing
idk if ur allowed to use this to start with but it's very easy to show:
if b and c are coprime then gcd(a,bc) = gcd(a,b) * gcd(a,c)
let b = n-1 and c = n+1
then they are coprime since n is even and since we know gcd(a,b) and gcd(a,c) divide b so must their multiple
thus the congruence relation ax \cong b mod(n^2-1) is solvable
(by givens)
im like 99% sure this proof works and it looks easier than urs
uhh this fact follows from the fact that the gcd function is distributive and associative and commutative
if i pinged u already sry lol idr but jic @pearl gyro
ahhh I see :0 but my professor told us to use that method so I want to learn how it works 😢 thanks though!!!
If the 4-digit Integer $A=a_{3}10^3 + a_{2}10^2 + a_{1}10 + a_{0}$ has digits such that $a_{0}>a_{1}>a_{2}>a_{3}>0$, determine the sum of the digits of the number $9A$.
Emmanouel
this part of my lecture notes is confusing to me. Here $p$ is a prime, $k$ is an nonnegative even integer, and $S_k(p) = 0^k + 1^k + 2^k ... + (p-1)^k$.
Where is Fermat's Little Theorem involved?
Mattuwu
r^k=1 mod p since they say (p-1) | k
Question on primitive roots and can't find the ans on stack.
"Show if g and h are primitive roots of an odd prime p, then the least residue of gh is not a primitive root of p"
Proof:
$\$
$g^{p-1}\equiv h^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod{p}$. Now $\phi(p)=p-1$ so $2|p-1$. So $h^2$ is not a primitive root (by if a has order t mod m. Then $a^k$ has order t mod m iff $(k,t)=1$.) So $g^{p-1}h^{p-1}\equiv h^{2p-2}\equiv (h^2)^{p-1}\mod{p}$. So then $gh\equiv h^2$ so gh is not a primitive root.
@sterile pumice rip?
where's a^k coming from, I don't see how the next part follows. You can do something similar since g is a generator write h=g^k with (k,p-1)=1 to get gh=g^(1+k) =(g^((k+1)/2))^2
That's just a lemma from the notes I'm quoting
That's really clever
the problem is what you're saying after that is false, since you're reasoning about 1. Your last statement is clearly false, look at 2,3 as generators mod 5, but 2*3 != 2*2 mod 5
Ah nice yea I thought something was wrong just wasn't sure what, your method is very clean 🔥
thanks 👍 yeah, the problem is "rooting" is not a function I guess is another way to think of it here
doesn't Fermat's little theorem require the exponent to be a prime? in r^k, k is not a prime
the second one in your screenshot is what I usually think of as flt
and the second one requires $a$ not divisible by $p$, also the exponent is $p - 1$
right, the sum only goes over numbers not divisible by p and the exponent is divisible by p-1 so
(p-1) | k means k=(p-1)m for some m
r^k = (r^m)^(p-1) = 1 mod p
AHH
lol
thanks!
you're welcome
you have a polymerous pfp ;)
lol 😌 indeed
Mattuwu
looks like some contrapositive of Fermat's Little Theorem..
😫 I can't figure out why
let $g$ be a generator, then write $k=q(p-1)+r$ with $0<r<p-1$ (because $p-1 \not | k$, it has nonzero remainder). $$g^k = (g^{p-1})^qg^r = g^r \mod p$$ We know $g^r \ne 1 \mod p$ because $r<p-1$ and $g$ is a generator with order $p-1$.
Merosity
kind of similar trick used to prove that if a^k=1 mod p, then k divides p-1, so sort of inspired from that, but I suppose that is not itself trivial, but part of the basic stuff to be proved when doing elementary number theory
what's the course called, I imagine it skims this stuff cause you were talking about p-adic integers the other day, so probably assumes you know this stuff
since you are here, can you also help with this? I'm actually writing an email to ask my prof about this. the g is the same g such that g^k not congruent to 1 mod p
it's not homework or anything, just proofs of theorems
I'm actually not here, timer just went off on the oven for my fish 👋
haha! that's fine!
I'm pretty inexperienced on elementary number theory I'd say. The course I'm taking is a MSc math course "Combinatorics and Analytic Number Theory"
Try using the geometric series formula
Should drop out of that
wow I don't know you can just pick generators of a certain order like that. I just came across this theorem and I guess Z_p just have nice properties
I don't think it matters what g is here, so long as it's not divisible by p. the mapping f(x)=gx is a bijection of the set {1,...,p-1}, just think from the group theory perspective of the multiplicative group gG=G
the sums are the same because it's really just the same terms in different order
also figured I should mention it, a handful of the stuff you're proving seems similar to proving the chevalley warning theorem
might be fun to just look at that, one of my favorite theorems at least
whoa that's very cool!
thanks
it's not a geometric sequence though, the powers are the same.
Emmanouel
Could I get some help? I want to know an approximation for $\sum_{p \leq x} \sqrt{p}$, where $p$ are primes. Currently the best approximation I have is $\frac{2}{3}x^{3/2}\sqrt{\log{x}}$, but I'm pretty sure that is for the first x primes, not the primes below x. I got the approximation here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/394796/sum-of-square-root-of-primes
Trashtalk
I've got a post in #1021175428326633542
do we have a name for these groups?
What areas of math are a general prerequisite for number theory
It turns out that such an element is invertible in Z/qZ so we call this group the group of units of Z/qZ
are they exactly the units of Z/qZ?
Yes. It is a necessary and sufficient condition for an element to be a unit
that's very cool! Thanks!
Hey guys. Im struggling on a question on finding incongruent solutions of a congruence
I need to use hensels lemma but it gets confusing
Q3
So i bring everything over to the lhs and get x^3 -25 = 0 mod 64
Then i try solutions to x^3 - 1 = 0 mod 2
So i get f(1) that works
And i try f(1) for mod 4 and mod 8
And it works for them too but it stops working for mod 16
And now i dont know what to do
You can think of each step as uncovering a digit in the base 2 expansion of the number, $$x=a_0+a_12+a_24+a_38+a_416+a_532$$
Since $f(1)=0 \mod 8$, but $f(1) \ne 0 \mod 16$, this means when you uncovered the digit $a_38$ but you had chosen $a_3=0$, so the only other choice is $a_3=1$. So that means you have $x=9 \mod 16$ and you can continue that way, testing if the digit $0$ works and if it doesn't making it $1$.
Merosity
there's more to say since there are other ways to do this, and hensel's lemma also comes with the number of distinct roots too
@mossy rampart those were fun, thanks
Does anyone know a trustworthy place online were someone can find good competition math teachers?
i'm trying to find solutions to the 2 variable system p^2+4x^2=k^2 for integers x, k and prime p and I'm struggling with how to reduce it to a problem of just completing the square
Observe that you obtain p^2 + (2x)^2 = k^2 which is equivalent to generating a Pythagorean triple. The general solution is p = m^2 - n^2, 2x = 2mn, k = m^2 + n^2 for a pair of integers (m, n). If p = (m - n)(m + n), then one of m - n or m + n must be 1; otherwise you obtain a composite integer
Was about to type that ^.
i see, thank you that actually makes a lot of sense
How would i prove that x^4 + x^2 = y^4+5 ? Would it be with Fermat's infinite descend principle?
You could try that, looks a bit hairy though with the constant 5 term.
I would try factoring it a number of different ways
$x^2(x^2+1)=y^4+5$, $\frac{x^6-1}{x^2-1}=y^4+6$, or $(x^2+y^2)(x+y)(x-y)=5-x^2$ are some ways that immediately pop out at me, no clue if they're fruitful or not but it's something to try
Merosity
oh, reducing the equation modulo 5 is the key
first ||assume that one of x or y is 0 mod 5, then it forces the other to be 0 mod 5, but if you then substitute in and divide through you end up with a new equation that gives 0=1 mod 5||
second ||now that we know x and y are not 0 mod 5, when we reduce we can use z^4=1 mod 5 by fermat's little theorem so it becomes x^2=0 mod 5. But we already know x is not 0, so there are no integer solutions||
can someone explain why their doesnt exist some smallest possible number n
I just came across something interesting. So you can always split a number into two relatively coprime parts. But in particular, you can "extend" any divisor of a number to a maximum divisor that is coprime to its quotient. This can be done by checking the prime factorization of both the dividend and the divisor and enlarging the divisor by powers of its prime factors. Does this remind anybody of anything?
Here's what I mean technically:
\(q \in \mathbb{Z}_{\ge 2},\ d\in \mathbb{Z}_{\ge 2} \) and \(d \mid q\). \(q\) has prime factorization \(q = \sum_{i=0}^l p_i^{a_i}\), \(d\) also has prime factorization \(d = \sum_{i=0}^l p_i^{b_i}\) for some \(l \ge 0\), \(a_i\ge 0\) for \(0 \le i \le l\), \(p_i\) the \(i\)-th prime.
We can then split \(q\) into \(q = q_1q_2\) with \(q_1,\ q_2\) coprime by ``extending'' \(d\) by letting \(q_1 = \prod\limits_{\substack{i = 0 \\ p_i\mid d}}^l p_i^{a_i}\), \(q_2\) is composed of the complementary factors: \(q_2 = \prod\limits_{\substack{i = 0 \\ p_i\nmid d}}^l p_i^{a_i}\)
Mattuwu
{1, {1}, {1,1} △ {1, {1}} = {{1,1}} is this true?
yep, but how is this number theory 😂
Sorry didnt know where else to put this
{1, 2, 3} ⊕ N ⊆ N \ {1, 2, 3} How about this?
Also true, right?
what do you mean by ⊕?
symmetric difference
wait I thought △ was symmetric difference
Yes
that's also true, noting that {1, 2, 3} ⊕ N is empty
oh wait, it's not empty
it's exactly the same as N \ {1, 2, 3}
thus it's also a subset of it
so all the divisors of q that are greater than 1 form a bounded join-semilattice with lcd
the map from a divisor d to its extension this way is actually a semi-lattice endomorphism
not sure I fully understand what you mean, but if I understand you correctly, if we denote w(n)=number of distinct prime divisors of n, then there are 2^w(n) ways of factoring a number into two relatively prime factors, since you either include the whole power of the prime or don't
in particular I just don't know what you mean by extend to be a maximum divisor, like I would think n=1*n would be the maximum or something idk
a maximum divisor that has the same set of prime factors as the divisor itself
oh ok
that's cool, and 2^w(n) is actually the cardinality of the image of the endomorphism. An immediate implication is then the inequality that 2^w(n) < n , but that's kinda obvious.
oh which homomorphism? also that doesn't seem right cause for n=1 and n=2 it's an equality
well you probably meant <= and I'm being pedantic or something lol
for a number q, ({divisors of q >= 2 }, lcd) is a bounded semi-lattice with q itself being the top. And the map from a divisor to the the maximum divisor sharing the same prime factors is actually an semi-lattice endomorphism
it's also a monoid endomorphism as it maps q to itself
what is \🥬 😂 😂
algae?? hahahaha
oh, I don't really know much about semilattices but I can see why divisors would fall naturally on a lattice I guess
what would the general process be to solve an equation of the form a^2-2b^2=1? for a,b integers ofc
my first thought is to use abstract algebra and look at solutions over the field extension Q(sqrt(2))
In particular, observe that $a^2 - 2b^2 = 1$ can be re-expressed as $(a - \sqrt 2b)(a + \sqrt 2b) = 1$. Observe that the Galois group over $\mathbb Q(\sqrt 2)$ is generated by sending $\sqrt 2$ to $\pm \sqrt 2$ and so the norm of $a + \sqrt 2b$ is exactly the left side. You can turn the expression into computing the units of the form $a + \sqrt 2b$ with positive norm. But I suspect that there's a more elementary method than to consider the purely algebraic version
Following this train of thought though, we aim to compute all units of the form $a + b \sqrt 2$ over the ring $\mathbb Z[\sqrt 2]$. But these are precisely of the form $\pm (1 + \sqrt 2)^n$ for $n \in \mathbb Z$; you can then equate coefficients to generate all solutions $(a, b)$
check out pell's equation
lmao rip i was trying to do this to prove that all the units of Z[sqrt2] are of the form +-(1+-sqrt2) 😆
thank you, this is exactly what i was looking for
and thank you @dusty dragon !
Been struggling with this one for an hour:
would appreciate if anyone could help!
❤️
do you know how to simplify $\sum_{k=1}^nk^2$ @vernal void
Merosity
there are multiple ways to derive it, or you could look it up and use it now and work out how to get it later
$$\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}=\sum_{k=1}^n k^2$$
Merosity
use this to write out the sum of quadratic residues
so hey i kinda get where ur going with that
but im using this proposition
so right now i have
S (the sum)
equal to
S = 1+2+...+p-1/2
then I do
2S = 1+2+...+p-1
but then idk where to go from there =[
that won't work, you need the sum of squares
so I should square both sides?
no, the individual terms are squares
$$\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}=1^2+2^2+\cdots+n^2$$
Merosity
yes, but the numbers you've written aren't guaranteed to be squares
like look at this example online
could u help me understand it
seems very similar to u 🙂
they're double counting by putting all numbers, which is a fine way to do it
and i have that nice proposition
but i dont understand how u are coming to ur conclusion
that proposition tells you half the numbers are squares and the other half aren't
but it doesn't exactly tell you which ones, however we can make squares directly by just squaring numbers
because k^2 = (p-k)^2 mod p, you can make all the quadratic residues by squaring numbers <= (p-1)/2
merosity im down bad
could i dm u about this? i feel bad flooding the channel with questions
i have so much number theory to do tonight =[
I'm busy right now, maybe someone else can help, I think the link you posted is good
try following that, take it slow and try to understand each step one at a time
Hi, is $$ \sum_{i=0}^{n} \sum_{j=0}^{n} 3^{i+j} = \sum_{i=0}^{n} 3^i \sum_{j=0}^{n} 3^j $$?
Opify
yep
ok thancc
hi is $$\sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} (i+j) = \sum_{i=1}^{n} i + \sum_{j=1}^{n} j$$?
Opify
No
In general $\sum_i(a_i+b_i)=\sum_ia_i+\sum_ib_i$, so $\sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^n(i+j)= \sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^ni+ \sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^nj$
CS person
is this correct? what's can be said about this?:
If $a \equiv b\ (\mathrm{mod}\ c)$ then $\gcd(a, c) = \gcd(b, c)$
Mattuwu
sure, wlog suppos a>=b then a=b+cn so gcd(a,c)=gcd(b+cn,c)=gcd(b,c)
actually inequality is unnecessary if n is an integer
gcd(b+cn,c)=gcd(b,c)
what is this relation called?
some induction required
idk if it has a name
this somehow reminds me of the determinant of a matrix, where adding multiples of rows won't change the determinant
I think there is a way to represent the euclidean algorithm as like row operations on matrices with integer entries
so maybe it's more than coincidence, although really if u,v are integers and d divides x and y, then d divides ux+vy
so I am not thinking about anything super complicated I feel
writing it more explicitly might make it more obvious, x=dX and y=dY then ux+vy=udX+vdY=d(uX+vY)
when solving using "second induction" or "strong induction"
is it safe to assume that for example an equation also holds for k-1 if it holds for k
strong induction assumes that a statement holds for all j <= k instead of just assuming that the statement holds on k, so yes
In other words, we can assume that P(1), P(2), ..., P(k) are all true to prove that P(k + 1) is true
If I can show that an equation has no solution mod n, does it mean it doesn’t have solutions at all?
integer solutions, yep. If it had integer solutions, you could reduce mod n to get solutions mod n, but there are none - contradiction
you're welcome 👍
If you’re talking integers solutions, yes.
hey hi hello i know i already solved this much simpler but can't you also just like construct a solution?
you know it's solvable for n-1 and n+1, so you have:
f: ax = p(n-1) + b
g: ax = q(n+1) + b
f - g --> 0 = p(n-1) - q(n+1)
so we see that
p = n + 1
q = n - 1
plug q back in to f
h: ax = (n+1)(n-1) + b
now we need to show it's solvable for (mod n^2 - 1)
then we need to show we have ax = k(n^2 - 1) + b
but when k = 1 this is just h, which we know is true from givens
i might be wrongggg lmk
the step where you write
0 = p(n-1) - q(n+1)
so we see that
p = n + 1
q = n - 1
this is not necessarily true, you could have p=t(n+1) and q=t(n-1), but even worse, if n is odd it would make gcd(n+1,n-1)=2 meaning p or q might not necessarily be a multiple of n+1 or n-1 respectively. For instance, n=3 could make 0=p2-q4 so hypothetically p=2 and q=1 would work even though p=2 !=n+1 and q=1 != n-1.
I suppose in part, maybe it's possible you already are assuming this when you say
you know it's solvable for n-1 and n+1, so you have
but I thought I'd mention it
yeah i was assuming n was even 📔 but ur still correct on the first pointtt
but i think it still works because then just set k = t
and everything is still satisfied 😌
yeah, I would just mention if n is odd, the congruences aren't solvable, so assume it's even at the start to be clear was really all I was getting at. and you're right for the other part, once you get that it turns into ax=t(n^2-1)+b and so you are already there and can throw out the rest of the stuff
hmm right right
but my issue is that i was trying to not use the solvability condition :/
and now im looking for a way to show n has to be even without it
oh
wait
thats easy
an even number mod an even number can't be odd, but b mod even is odd
so ax \equiv b (mod even) gives even (mod even) \equiv odd (mod even) which is even = odd which is not cool
and that can be written out in a few symbols
so we're good
ty for pointing out the t(n+1) and t(n-1) tho
it didn't affect it but it def could have in other problems and i would have missed it then too
wait, you're wanting to remove the fact that they tell you ax=b mod n+1 and n-1 is solvable but only leave the fact that a is even, b is odd?
oh nonono
im just trying to not use gcds haha
or gcd(a,m) | b
wait am i using it implicitly here or something >.>
well, you came to the wrong final answer since it's possible that ax != (n^2-1)+b even though ax=t(n^2-1)+b
haha
how did u spot that
i wouldn't have seen it
even if you told me there was an error
well I know that p(n-1)=q(n+1) doesn't mean p=n+1 and q=n-1 😛
there are two problems with it potentially
p and q can have more factors (that was t) and n+1 and n-1 can share factors (that was potentially only 1 or 2 in our case)
gcd(n+1, n-1)=1 was forced on us which is why the problem makes a even and b odd
otherwise the problem becomes harder
maybe try to think about that, what happens when n is odd and we aren't forced to put the parity conditions on a, b
so immediately n-1 and n+1 aren't coprime
and are we still trying to show what the question asked?
nah, this is extra credit
oooh gotta love extra credit
okay okay so n-1 and n+1 aren't coprime, and we don't know parity of a or b
all we know is that n >= 2
at this point the problem might not even be true, so we might have to change things or find a counter example
hmm
like by change things I mean, maybe htis only implies ax=b mod (n^2-1)/2 is solvable from what's given (not necessarily saying this is true, just a suggestion)
one sec lemme grab some paper
so we have
ax = b mod(n-1)
ax = b mod(n+1)
is solvable
-->
ax = b mod(2c)
ax = b mod(2c+2)
but then we know x = y mod(z) --> 2x = 2y mod(2z)
so if n is odd then ax is even and b is even
hmmm
I wouldn't focus on what a or b are
you can work similarly to how you worked on the last one by writing it out like ax = p(n-1) + b
yup
oki oki so then
huh
doesn't my proof just
work?
then
because the only thing it uses is solvability of the original two functions and definition of mod
not entirely, there's still the problem of n+1 and n-1 having a common factor
ohh right
you know it's solvable for n-1 and n+1, so you have:
f: ax = p(2c) + b
g: ax = q(2c+2) + b
f - g --> 0 = p(2c) - q(2c+2)
so we see that
p = t(c + 1)
q = t(c)
js copy and pasting there
reindexed a little
yeah
well slight change
you should divide by 2 before saying what p or q is
since that extra 2 might not be in them
oooh right right
so then if we plug that into f
ax = t(c+1)(2c)+b --> ax = t(2c^2 + 2c) + b
and we're trying to show ax = k(4c^2 + 4c) + b
so k = t/2
actually no now
i feel like something is wrong
since we don't actually have the information to say that
maybe it'll be a bit clearer if I write it out, cause there's an important point about p and q too
p(n-1)/2 = q(n+1)/2 since we know gcd(n+1,n-1)=2, and actually we might go further and say t=gcd(p,q)
I used n instead of c cause I like it better
and divide through by t
i thought we already used n
otherwise i would have loll
wait backup maybe it's not clear where this is coming from
ax-b = p(n-1) = q(n+1) from the congruences right
that last equation, I'm just dividing through by some gcds, 2=gcd(n+1, n-1) and t=gcd(p,q) so I get
$$\frac p t \frac{n-1}{2} = \frac q t \frac{n+1}{2}$$
Merosity
the point is I know that p/t and q/t have no common factors, so p/t must equal (n+1)/2
similarly for q/t=(n-1)/2
yeah now you can go back to ax-b=p(n-1) and plug in, ax-b=t(n+1)/2 * (n-1)
so really we just have that ax-b = 0 mod (n^2-1)/2
that's what we get from ax-b=t (n^2-1)/2 that we just got
whoaa okay so all we did was relax some conditions and suddenly we get a whole new answer
yeah, although if we had put gcd(n+1, n-1) there instead of 2
it would have given both answers
since it changes to 1 when we need it
in fact, if we follow this whole thing through with f(x) instead of ax-b we could say even better
wait whatt
$f(x)=0 \mod m$ and $f(x)=0 \mod n$ then $$f(x)=0 \mod \frac{mn}{\gcd(m,n)}$$
Merosity
you could even put more variables in the function there too, not to mention it doesn't need to be linear
😛
yeah, you've heard of the chinese remainder theorem before right?
bc like as far as proofs go this one is pretty easy and i feel like we just said a really surprising amount
yup!
it's the one that uses bezouts and EA, right?
so we actually got that for free as a special case when gcd(m,n)=1
nice haha
yeah make sure it all checks out and you can do it on paper and I'm not lying to you and there aren't some details we left out that are critical or something lol
yeah pretty fun stuff, did sort of fall out of nowhere, kind of funny how going more general actually can make things simpler. certainly convenient that we could lift the a,b parity conditions and not have to get in the weeds with n-1 and n+1 being coprime or not lol
'sort of fell out of nowhere' we looked at
ax = b (mod n-1)
ax = b (mod n+1)
and got to CRT
it did more than js fall out of nowhere thats actually so cool to me
maybe one day ill go 'oh this is trivial' but for now
yeah most of it was just stuff you already came up with on your own, just zoomed out a bit
hahaha I've been there myself 😛
you're welcome glad I could help!
how do you go about proving b?
Notice that the i goes over each element in S
(And use part a!)
I think I get it now, we just have i is k
and n+i must be p for gcd to be p
or multiple of p
Hello! can I get some push in the right direction here?
I am trying to use the fact that x^2 == -1 (mod p) is solvable if p == 1 (mod 4) and not solvable if p == -1 (mod 4)
but since we are dealing with the number of solutions I am so lost 😢
would x == 1 (mod n) always be a solution?
you need to count solutions of the system of equations you gave
1 and -1 is always a solution
you can see this in the factorization you produced
and unless p=2 you have 1 \neq -1
so each equation (except for p=2) gives you 2 solutions
but you might have more, corresponding to roots of x^2 + 1 mod p (how many?)
so uhh
maybe take a step back and consider the example of n = 6 since you know this behavior
x^4 = 1 (mod 2) has 1 solution and x^4 = 1 has 2 solutions
so you should get 1*2 = 2 total
and you can verify this algorithmically
then now maybe look at an example with a prime p = 1 mod 4
say n = 30
still small enough so you can play with it and verify with a computer
this is bc prime p > 2 is odd, right?
not really
if p == 1 mod 4, then we will have 2 more solutions ±((p-1)/2)! and if p == 3 mod 4 then no solution?
sounds right
oh no why is it?😱
I was thinking it was because if p is odd, the residue class is {0, ±1, ..., ±p-1 / 2}
uh well
1 = -1 mod p gives you 2 = 0 mod p
that cannot be true unless p = 2
if p > 2, this wont happen
so yeah, if you consider n = 30 = 2*3*5, you get 1 solution mod 2, 2 solutions mod 3 and 4 solutions mod 5, right?
yesh
which makes 1*2*4 total
yesss!!!!! that helps so much thank you :'))))
lecture notes on the definition of a index is very confusing. q is positive integer and q >= 2. g is not mentioned anywhere before. which primitive root? any primitive root?
can somebody help clarify?
context: right after this definition is a construction of dirichlet characters
yeah, since there are phi(phi(n)) generators, you can pick any one, it's a bit ambiguous notation I agree
it'd be nice if they just called the index "log base g"
since that's basically what it is
I should be more clear, they haven't said it explicitly, but what they're doing is picking a specific g and fixing it
and then the index depends on this choice of g
for instance if I'm working with q=5, I could pick g=2 or g=3, if I picked g=2 then v(2)=1 and v(3)=3, while if I had picked g=3 then v(2)=3 and v(3)=1.
hello... 😢 can I get another push for this question please?
whats the question
do you need help understanding the proof
oh
omg thanks!!
yw 👍
hey quick question, the division algorithm a=bq+r, the theorem states that it works for any a and b>0, but it clearly doesn't work when b>a for example when a=56 and b=100, there isn't any unique q and r (with r being an integer that is less than b and greater than 0 ofcourse)
what am I misunderstanding here?
a=b*0+a when b>a
cause a is the remainder itself
you can make exactly 0 multiples of 100 out of 56, with 56 left over in other words
yes I was thinking something along those lines thanks!
yup you're welcome
hi i have a really random q idk if right catogry but how would i find integer solutions to the following (x^2)+x-(y^2)-1=0
ive tried factorising in diff ways but just goes round in circles
Hmm so I guess you could view it as x(x+1) = y^2 + 1
I’m not sure what an analytic solution would look like but there’s a simple algorithm we could use by cycling through for different values of x and filtering out those where x*(x+1) - 1 does not have an integer square root?
hmmm
ok i mean i was thinking of trying to add a constant to both sides making it easier to factorise but was unsure what one to use
because there was this example i saw and it was similar like x^2+x-y^2=0 then they added 1/4 to both sides and got (x+1/2-y)(x+1/2-y)=1/4 then multiplied by 4 and so on
and they got (x,y)=(-1,0) and (0,0) but the only thing i didnt get like how did they know add by 1/4
and if so with this equation what would we add by
and ik this problem (x^2+x-y^2-1=0) has 4 sols just dk how to get to it
okk i figured it out you just had to add 1.25 to both sides then its easier to factorise and solve so wed get (-2,-1),(-2,1),(1,-1),(1,1) as all possible integer sols
hey, I've got an issue with comprehending a step in the proof of van der waeden's theorem on arithmetic progression
im posting the proof till where i got stuck
... and that's where im stuck
"it is clear the two arbitrary segments... are of the same type"
but so far in the proof we have only shown that an arithmetic series of segments with some distance d2 exists in each Segment, but not that they are of the same type
it's clear to me that the subsegments of each segments are equal, but not to the subsegments of other segments
Let f: N --> N be a function such that: 1. f(2)=2 2. f(m)>f(n) for m>n 3. f(m*n)=f(m)*f(n) if m and n are relatively prime. I want to show that f(n)=n for all n. How can I do that?
it's completing the square
should be able to do induction, try working out the first several cases by hand, like n=3, n=4, n=5 to try to get an idea of how the argument should go, then try to generalize that argument for induction
You can show that f(1) = 1 since 1 is coprime to all N. The next part is tricky, you need to show that f(n) = n is the only possible mapping such that statement 2. holds but not entirely sure what that would look like
Alright I'll try these things out thanks @torn escarp @visual path
sorry for late reply but oh ok ig didnt see it cuz 1/4 divided by 2 would be 1/8 not 1/2 ... also didn't u can do with y squared n x squared tog too ngl but thanks for reply
not sure what you mean exactly but to complete the square on x^2+x you need 1/4 because the coefficient on x is 1, so half of that squared is 1/4
yeah you're welcome 👍
oh okk i think i was taught completing the square differently when i was in school so maybe got confused but makes sense- so im guessing we do tht all the time look at coeffecient of x?
cuz with the similar promlem added -1 at end i just used that e.g and did it bacwards lol
yeah basically
ok that makes sesne then - thanks 🙂
yup yup
please stop spamming shit across multiple channels
also please read a mathematics textbook
(also the frequency of primes is "expectedly predictable", we have an asymptotic formula for it.)
(that's far from the biggest fallacy in your wall of text, though; your reasoning would apply to numbers of the form n² for n an integer, but there are obviously infinitely many of those.)
(or perhaps e^n is an even better example since the frequency of numbers of this form shrinks at an even faster rate than the frequency of primes)
(see the prime number theorem)
glad to see you're being intentionally belligerent and ableist, gives me a good excuse to ban you
Does anyone have a hint for this?
Calculate some small powers of 3 mod 10
Note that 3^2 is -1 (mod 10). Try showing that 3^{14102019} is -3 (mod 10)
Try showing that 3^{14102019} is -3 (mod 10)
Mhmm so this is where I'm stuck. I don't know how to show this
So I'm thinking I could put this in terms of its factorisation and show that that is -3mod10
But it feels like there should be a better way to do it
Notice that 14102019 = 2 * 7051009 + 1; therefore, 3^{14102019} = 3^{2 * 7051009 + 1} = 3 * (3^2)^{7051009}. But modulo 10, 3^2 is -1 so modulo 10, (3^2)^{7051009} = (-1)^{7051009} = -1
since 100 is divisible by 4, and 3^4=1 mod 10, you can chop off everything except the last two digits to simplify it to 3^19+3 mod 10. ||Since 19=20-1, it becomes 3^-1 + 3 mod 10. 3^-1 = -3 mod 10 (because -3*3=1 mod 10)||
Hallo!
Im having trouble understanding the details of the newton-polygon of p-adic numbers. Mainly with the part that for a given polynomial with p-adic coefficients the valuation of a root is the same as one of the slopes of the polygon
does anyone know a thing or two about this?
yeah
the length along the x-axis below the slope is how many roots have that valuation