#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 2 of 1
there is really multiple things you can do then
if p divides a, then p^n divides a^n
and this gives you trouble with p = a^n / b^n
you need a small extra thing though
I did not consider the implication p^n divides a^n
and that is here
when writing a rational number as a/b, you can further choose a, b in such a way that gcd(a, b) = 1
so then if p divides a, it cannot also divide b
and you have multiple ways to bring this to a contradiction
Tbh I think these analysis course notes presuppose some familiarity with nt
Which is the main issue here
I'm just in deep waters
Of unfamiliarity and inexperience
as the name suggests, those are elementary things, you can learn them in not too much time
seems the main thing you should watch out for is only apply divisibility results if everything involved is an integer
Mhm
so like in this case the first step is to turn everything into an equation involving integers and arrive at something like pb^n = a^n
I'll find some short nt course notes to help with results like fta and generalised euclids lemma which are coming up soon here
That's reasonable in hindsight haha
Thanks for the help Loch
at this point one could already use gcd(a, b) = 1 and conclude b = 1 (using for example the fundamental theorem of arithmetic)
and then p = a^n is ofc a contradiction for n > 1
That's why I thought it was assumed
I found some lecture notes
So much math to learn but so little time
My friend told me that any integer can be written on the form:
2^n × 3^m + m, is this true?
I'm pretty sure you can't write 6 in that form.
True
What about either
2^n × 3^m + m
Or
2^n × 3^(m-1) + m?
I'm really not interested in working through every single one of your suggestions, so if you're going to continue, please provide something like a proof for us to check. Fwiw, you still cannot express 6 in either of those forms provided m,n are integers.
Hey, I have a little question regarding the euclidean algorithm.
I dont understand why gcd(a,b)=gcd(r0,r1)
i understand how to apply the algorithm just not prove it lol
gcd(x,y)=gcd(x,y-kx). Try proving that you will understand that step better
there was a lemma that said that gdc(a,b)=gdc(a,b+an) but i dont understand how that translate to the induction hypothesis
the GDC between two numbers is the same as consecutive remainders?

Well if you know that lemma it's just juggling symbols
i dont understand the consecutive remainder thing
with j and j+1
how do those have the same GDC as a and b
You got the base case right?
yeah
So by induction hypothesis,you have gcd(a,b) = gcd(r_i-1,r_i) for some i(well base case is i=1)
Note $\gcd(r_{i-1},r_{i})=\gcd(r_{i},r_{i-1}- r_{i} q_{i+1})=\gcd(r_{i},r_{i+1})$
Drake
And $\gcd(r_{i},r_{i+1})=\gcd(r_{i-1},r_{i})=\gcd(a,b)$
Drake
ok im gonna take a break and come back
Does that work because for some i the rest will be eventually 0?
Well no that works because
$\gcd(r_{i-1},r_{i})=\gcd(a,b)$ by induction hypothesis
Drake
Ok but r is the remainder when what is divided by what?
Thats what I dont understand
Yes
yay
now i gotta show this but i wont even attempt it until tmrw since i currently ahve no idea
How tho, I dont know the remainder and quotient I get
Or which is bigger for that matter of fact
denote that expression by f(m,n) and try to express it in terms of f of something "smaller" by using the fact that gcd(a,b)=gcd(a,a-b)
you can find some sort of recurrence which is very similar to the Euclidean Algorithm
to be more precise, gcd can be described recursively as a function g that satisfies this:
if a>=b, g(a,b)=g(a-b,b)
if a<b, g(a,b)=g(a,b-a)
and of course g(x,x)=x
Try to prove something like this for f.
you mean the left side or right side?
in the video he says its a trick regarding dividing polynomials
i might honestly just give up and move on in order to not waste that much time on it\
i found a solution on math exchange
i understand it and can recreate it, but I wish I could just come up with this stuff by myself
left
i managed it at last\
so if you divide a^m-1 by a^n-1 you will get a^r-1
and the exponents transform like gcd(n,m)=gcd(r,m)=...
In this proof of the division algorithm - Given $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}, b \neq -0. \exists ! q,r \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $ a = qb+r$ and $0 \leq r < b$ I don't understand how we can deduce that $0 \leq r < b$? obviously it makes sense from my intuition but don't understand how we achieve it here
swifteeee
both bounds follow from the definition of q; the lower directly by definition and the upper you can show by contradiction
Suppose $r \geq b$. Then $a = qb + r = qb + bc$ for some $c \geq 1$ then, $a = b(q + c)$ which contradicts that $q = max{qb \leq a}$
swifteeee
I have a feeling that somethings missing here
this seems to use the statement of the theorem in the proof and also a is not necessarily divisible by b
mhm
I'll send a fuller screenshot of the notes, because I don't see how they make the implication, maybe that would be easier to explain
well I have the intuition, I just cant prove it true
its a bunch of annoying algebra
if r >= b, then b-r <= 0
now (q+1)b = qb + b
rewrite qb in terms of a and r via the definition of r
and arrive at (q+1)b <= a
this contradicts the maximality of q
https://gyazo.com/201623ddda028f878de415d6c1840dc9
how does [7] = [2] ?
Lochverstärker
where do u get the mod 5 from?
from the Z_5
yes, its stated in the definition
In the video series Im watching its given as gcd(a,b)=gcd(a+bn)
yes, I just took n=-1
I saw that I just wanted to know if it applied for any integer
Thanks
It's a cryptography text, and based on theorems so far, I cannot seem to reason about how it can be permutation
Googling, I found a fact on Wikipedia which says that it is a reduced set of residues, which I agree with
But I still wonder if it's also a permutation?
if you reduce the elements of that set mod N, you get R back, just in a different "order"
Ah yeah, now that I think about it....
Thanks!
The new reduces elements will all be unique by the previous result
So makes sense yeap
Actually.. I am still wondering, why is it not possible for there to be an a such that we get some element that should not be in reduced set
I mean, they said a = 1,2,... N - 1
No
they also have gcd(a,N) = 1
Quite a weird way to put that
Nevermind
is this just proving the quadratic formula?
but I guess you have to make sure the solutions are viable given mod N right..
how do you do that?
the gcd and quadratic residue condition ensure that the things exist
so you just have to show that they actually are solutions
at least for 1.
how come?
like it ensures the solutions exist?
it ensures that you can divide by 2a by bezouts lemma and that you can take squareroots by definition of quadratic residue
oh interesting
okay
I didn't realize I needed those to be able to confirm that I can do that
so first we divide by a and we know we can do that bc of bezouts?
then we get rid of the constant value, c/a, and add (b/2a)^2 to both sides which ig we can do bc of quadratic residue def?
finally after completing the square you take the square root which you know you can do because of quad res and you get the quadratic formula?
the derivation is exactly the same
u just dont know whether the numbers you need necessarily exist
the conditions tho, gurantee they do
you dont have to do anything of this, you just have to plug in the x given into the quadratic equation and verify its a root
for 1. at least
- is harder
6.0+2=8 😎
ah okay, thats true.. silly mistake
why do i need quadratic residue to justify taking squareroots? and same question goes for dividing by 2a
suppose a is a quadratic residue. Then there is some b such that a=b^2. So in a sense, root(a)=b. If there were no such b i.e. a was not a quadratic residue then taking the suare root wouldnt make any intuitive sense. root(a) would not be an element of the integers mod N. Youd be scratching ur head as to how to define that
for the second question: division is defined as multiplication by the inverse; so you need 2a to be invertible modulo N in order to be able to divide by 2a;
now 2a invertible modulo N is equivalent to gcd(2a,N)=1
I think working through the exercise 2 would help you understand better these steps
in exercise 1 you only have to prove those expressions are indeed solutions (after, of course, justifying they are well defined)
in exercise 2 you have to derive them; while doing this, it should become clear what conditions should be imposed and especially why
Okay I understand this thank you so much!
Thank you this makes sense! I'll try working through 2. appreciate your help guys 
Hey! How do I prove that if gcd(a,b)=1, then a! divides (b+1)(b+2)...(b+(a-1))?
Interesting problem.
a divides b+i for some i in {1, ..., a-1}.
can you explain further how that helps?
Same thing works for a-1.
Yeah actually this needs some fixing
as for instance, it is true that 2, 3 and 4 divide 12, but 12 is not divisible by 4!.
Yeah, I thought that every factor of a! will divide exactly one of the product.
Exactly one? No I don't think so
Yeah, thats why I used 'thought':D
We need to use that gcd(a,b) = 1 somewhere, but I haven't a clue how
peaceGiant
according to the following link: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1165229/how-can-we-prove-that-a-binomial-coefficient-n-choose-mis-divisible-by-the-rat
we have the following beauty
$\frac{\gcd (a, b)}{a+b} \binom{a+b}{a} \in \mathbb{N}$
peaceGiant
Ew...
Am I the Bézout guy now
Have I tied myself to that result
;_;
It is a really nice lemma tbh
definitely super helpful
half of the questions in elem. number theory books that have gcd(a, b) = ... use it one way or another 
Would like some help with this lemma:
Suppose a is a primitive root mod n
Prove there can't exist a primitive root b mod n that does not come from the set ( 1, a^1, a^2,... a^(phi(n)-1) )
Since a is a primitive root, 1, a, a^2,..., a^(phi(n)-1) are precisely all the units in Z/nZ. Now b, as a primitive root, must be a unit.
I have a problem that is "if n is an integer greater than 1 and (n-1)! =1 mod n, prove that n is prime". I saw the answer to it so I don't need help with the answer, but I am confused because isn't 1 mod n always 1
You're confusing mod for an operation. It is not something that you put things in and get things out of, it is a relationship between numbers.
When people say that a = b (mod n), they mean that a and b differ by a multiple of n.
So when people say that (n-1)! = 1 (mod n), they're saying that (n-1)! = kn + 1 for some whole number k.
Usually people use ≡ instead of = in these things, to emphasise that this is not the usual equality relationship.
It is surprising to me that you're being asked to do this question, but you haven't covered the definition of equivalence modulo n. I think if you're doing a course or reading a book, you should go back and check the definition that was given.
ah Wilson's theorem
a nasty one
Yes unfortunately Avina, your problem statement is incorrect lol
It should be -1, not 1 on the end.
I did not notice that tbh
im pretty sure both are true
No.
i hope both are true bc i have a proof which makes sense to me
saying x ≡ 0 mod n is equivalent to saying kx = n right
That's true.
It is technically correct that (n-1)! = 1 mod n implies that n is prime
but it also implies that n=2 :)
So it's not particularly helpful.
yeah i was like
wait doesn't n just equal 2
this can't be right
but theres the equivalent thing
If you would like us to check your proof, you're welcome to post it here.
No.
i dont know if i should replace the = with a ≡
if it is = it is so trivial that i feel like it shouldnt be on the homework
I'm a bit frustrated because I just explained this
See here.
I think it's abundantly clear that they mean equivalence mod n.
You put the k on the opposite side
nk = x
Just had a friend ask me a coding question about number theory and I have no idea how to start
Given a, n, r, need to find smallest m such that (a * m) % n = r, and we testing all m from 0 to n will take too long
Can't you just find a^-1 mod n and multiply that with r?
If a, and n are not co-prime,divide a,n and r by gcd(a,n) and do the above procedure
@stoic crypt
This will be a log(n) solution which is probably acceptable
can anyone help?
im not sure which theorems you know but id suggest considering $\sum_{n\leq x}\left[\frac{x}{n}\right]\Lambda(n)$
rockpaperscissors
ok
take the first power
and seperate it from the rest
the higher powers will give your error term
adn the 1st power is just the sum ur trying to find an asymptotic for
yea I know that
I still don't know how to compute the sum
i.e. which summation formula would help me
which part do you not know how to cmpute?
the error term
or the sum of the von mangoldt function?
both actually
summation formulas help if we have a function which is differentiable
do you know how to turn sums of arithmetic functions weighted with floor functions into a double summation over divisors of n?
no
what kind of summation formulas do u know
abel, euler-maclaurin and dirichlet hyperbola
r u using any textbook?
apostol
apostol has a proof of this if i recall
ohh
can you tell me where
its theorem 3.11
i think
ahh then its easy the total sum turns out to be xlogx + O(x) and the error term turns out to be 1/2x^{1/2} log x +O(x^1/2)
which seems right!
thanks @gilded tinsel
How are the max/min values chosen for x, y, z?
Is the question to find all coprime a,b with LCM 360 and GCD 12?
How do you find coprime integers with gcd 12
Ok so I'll go through one of them and the rest are similar
Because LCM has a factor of 2^3, both x and x' need to be at most 3 (or the LCM would have a higher power of 2 as a factor), and one of them equal to 3 (or it would be smaller one), so the max is 3
Same idea with the GCD, at least 2 or it would be larger, ...
Also, what's the difference b/w ordered and unordered pair?
For an ordered pair (2,3) is not the same as (3,2)
For an unordered pair they are the same thing
I think the usual notation is just {2,3} for example but then I'm not sure what to do when the pair is something like {1, 1}
Why is the first paragraph true?
if a_0 and b_0 have a common factor n, then a and b would each be divisible by dn. since d is the greatest common divisor of a and b, this forces n = 1
I understand that step, I just don't get why it suffices to show that lcm = da_0b_0 for the pf to be complete
what is this a proof of
gcd(a,b) lcm(a,b) = ab
just multiply them lol
gcd is d and if lcm is da_0b_0 what do you get
(remember a = da_0 and b = db_0)
I get that part..
What I'm asking is...ok, so where does the intuition come from for lcm(a,b) = da_0b_0?
Basically I see how proving that gives the equality but I don't see where it came from intuitively...
lcm(a,b) is obviously divisible by a and b and hence da0 and db0
naively, you can make a number thats divisible by both by just multiplying them together
i.e. (da0)(db0)
but then u ask whether this really is the lcm?
or are we multiplying by extra factors?
well when we take the product (da0)(db0) we get two factors of d
but we know that d already divides both a and b
so we dont need another factor of d
thats how i see the intuition anyway
here is the question.
my question is how do i go about proving it since, using induction i won't be able to prove it.
if you use induction, 1 needs to be in the set but 1 is not greater than 1 and the and the condition x>y>z won't hold since, 2>1>1 is not true.
(for n > 1)
how do i go about proving it?
yea, or if you insist on induction, apply induction on the hint as is
am I okay to ask my question now tarun?
for now, please do.
Here, in this section, we are looking at finding general solutions to recurrence relations (defined at the top of the page). I understand how the two solutions r_1^n and r_2^n come about, I'm just confused how we get to "A little thought shows that if r_1^n and r^n_2 are both solutions to the recurrence (with any initial conditions) then so is C_1r_1^n + C_2r_2^n for any constants C_1 and C_2". What is the thought that gets us to this place?
have you tried plugging that expression in the recursion $$x_{n+2} - bx_{n+1} - cx_n = 0?$$
peaceGiant
btw it's the same recursion, just moved everything to the left because I think it's nicer when you plug in the values
Try first plugging C_1 r_1^n to convince yourself that the constant just multiplies the original recursion, while then try plugging the sum, since you'll get the sum of the two separate recursions for r_1 and r_2
$C_1r_1^{n+2} - bC_1r_1^{n+1} - cC_1r_1^n = 0$
swifteeee
$C_1(r_1^{n+2} - br_1^{n+1} - cr_1^n) = 0$
swifteeee
yup, as you can see, the thing in the brackets is itself zero, which solves the recursion
a root of the recursion lol
$(C_1r_1^{n+2} + C_2r_2^{n+2}) - (bC_1r_1^{n+1} + bC_2r_2^{n+1}) - (cC_1r_1^n + cC_2r_2^n) = 0$
im not really sure what we've achieved here
first bracket second term should be C_2
after that fix, factor all terms with C_1 in one set of brackets, and then all terms with C_2 in a second set of brackets
swifteeee
$C_1(r_1^{n+2} - br_1^{n+1} - cr_1^n) + C_2(r_2^{n+2} - br_2^{n+1} - cr_2^n) = 0$
swifteeee
great, since all brackets are again zero, that linear sum of the roots of the recursion is itself a solution
how does this relate to our definition of a two-term recursion given before? (what does each C, r etc. mean in the factorised form given above)
having difficulty understanding the q tbh ¯_(ツ)_/¯
or rather difficulty providing a useful answer, so someone else can answer that
i think for now i'll have to accept that the general solution to the recursion is infact the general solution to the recursion on faith and move on
oooor be patient till someone more knowledgeable shows up :D
all I know is the general solution can be represented as a linear combination of any two particular solutions to the recursion, the solution set in my mind is basically a line, and to discover the set of all points on that line (all solutions) you need at least two points (two particular solutions)
makes sense
lols
Working through some exercises rn, stuck on (d) and (e), can someone explain how to approach?
Can someone help me prove the second statement using euclid's algorithm ?
you reading it for comp math?
why if a|b and a|c then a|bu+vc
i understand that if a|b then b contains all of the prime numbers contained in a, and same for c
but i dont see how addition and subtraction preserves that
what is your definition of |?
divides
yes, i want the precise definition
ok then apply this twice
bu + vc = aqu +vaq'
and now you have to rewrite this in the form aq'' for some q''
this is just algebra
So the common prime numbers are preserved by linear combination?
also here for example
a=bq+r
and the symbol is for smallest common divisor
I dont understand the intuition behind this
My main weakness in arithmetic is seeing how addition and subtraction relates to division and multiples because i can easily understand how to decompose numbers in prime terms, and thus division and multiplication and biggest common divisor and the smallest common multiple are just a play on the prime decomposition, but in subtraction i have no idea what's happening to the prime numbers involved so i lose track
Z-linear, yes
Z-linear?
okay, so when i add or substract 2 numbers, the common prime numbers will stay in the result
yes, by factoring
I rly didnt see that before, thats cool
Well this is obvious then
because r still contains all common divisors
incredible thank you so much
wdym by factoring tho? any linear combination will contain the common factors right??
any Z-linear combination of a and b will contain the factors that are shared by a and b
Yeah thats a result i knew but somehow i didnt get until now. Its very powerful
Its weird how i can see results like that written in mathematical terms and not understand what it truly means, but thinking that i do
you have to play with it a bunch
And is there something equivalent for smalles common multiple btw?
On how linear combinations affect it
ig not
no
you can translate gcd statements into lcm statements and vide versa by using gcd(a, b)*lcm(a, b) = ab
so this would be mean that there is a k such that kn is a multiple of the gcd of a,b
the congruence relation in general
.
hm? i also cant parse the image
can someone help me in this one? it says "2022" was writen "n" times, what is the value of n to "2022...2022" be divisible by 23?
answer: ||11|| but i have no idea how can i do this
The long number is the sum of a finite geometric series: 2022 + 2022·10000¹ + 2022·10000² + .... + 2022·1000^(n-1).
Use the formula for a geometric series to get a closed expression for this. It involves a division by 9999, but 9999 is coprime to 23, so you can consider this expression modulo 23, and a bit of algebra will then show you're looking for an n such that 10000^n == 1 (mod 23).
That is, just the order of the congruence class of 10000 in the multiplicative group modulo 23.
This group has order 22, so there is only one of the options given that can be the order of an element (according to Lagrange's theorem).
🛐 thx!!
yo no way this is just p = 2q-1 => phi(2q) right?
s = 260921763, does anyone know how to do this?
N is a composite number, with prime factors 16111 and 16319, so I know I can split the problem into mod those two numbers
I believe Euler's totient theorem can be used to reduce the exponent? im not sure how or why, but then you'd also have to prove that you're allowed to use it which I'm not sure how to do either
any help please?
How should I approach this?
your idea is correct, why dont you just do it?
use chinese remainder theorem, to reduce it to the prime(power) case
then you can reduce the base mod your prime p and reduce the power mod phi(p)
you can prove this for example by applying euclidean division to the exponent
How do you use chinese remainder theorem here I'm sorry I need to brush up on my algebra, do you set it as a system of congruences?
and then the rest is done by the theorem?
I guess the two exponents are throwing me off, I'm not sure how to approach that
So im pretty new to number theory
Can someone give me a road map to this question
Beyond just use modular arithmetic
Ive been struggling on this for awhile
No idea, sorry. (But note that they must mean no positive integer solutions; there are plenty of solutions where either x or y is 0).
There's a proof at https://planetmath.org/exampleoffermatslasttheorem but it doesn't really align with your hint.
does anyone know how to show this? is it just as simple as
p = 2q-1
=> phi(2q)
can you show me how to do that?
You can still simplify phi(2q) by the multiplicativity of phi
But yes thats most of the solution
i dont know if i have a low tech explanation, the high-tech explanation is if N=pq with p, q coprime, then there is a ring isomorphism Z/NZ -> Z/pZ xZ/qZ, that maps x mod N to (x mod p, x mod q)
so its enough to compute thing in Z/pZ xZ/qZ,
and then move back
you can also try working directly with mod N, you can still reduce the exponent modulo phi(N) and the base modulo N
i dont know if this suffices for this problem though
ok I get this I think, this is saying i can simplify into having my two equations each with mod (coprime factor of N)
but its reducing the exponent that im confused about
Yes ok so
we have a third exponent right
213456789^987654321^s
that s idk what to do with
i mean this then turns into computing a small representative of 987654321^s mod phi(N) (or mod phi(p), mod phi(q) respectively)
and you can apply the same thing again if that helps
(i kind of assume everything simplifies at some step and the answer will not depend on s)
is there anything special about using 987654321? what if it was s^s^s?
i assume its a number that will simplify nicely
I see
and is big to look hard
wait wdym here
actually probably N is the one chosen such that it simplifies nicely
you know eulers theorem, right?
im trying to relearn it rn :'))
but basically we found that for N's prime factors, we have 4 possibilities for the residues of s could be
if thats any use
hm, can you share that?
yeah sure
so N is 262915409, with prime factors 16111 and 16319
calculating this you find that the 4 possibilities for what the residues of s could be are {(1, 1),(1, -1),(-1, 1),(-1, -1)}
and funny enough -1 and 3 cover all of these cases because together these two vectors span this space
basically -1 has (-1/16111) = -1 and (-1/16319) = -1, and 3 has (3/16111) = -1 and (3/16319) = 1, so we can treat them as the vectors (-1, -1) and (-1, 1) in (Z_2)^2
so does eulers phi function take as input an integer, and outputs number relatively prime to n?
what i mean is eulers theorem tells you that $a^{\varphi(N)} \equiv 1 \pmod{N}$, so if you want to compute say $a^b \pmod{N}$ for some $b > \varphi(N)$ you can use $$a^b = a^{\varphi(N)+ (b-\varphi(N))} = a^{\varphi(N)}a^{b-\varphi(N)} \equiv a^{b-\varphi(N)} \pmod{N}$$
to get a smaller exponent; if it is still big, you can use this more often to make the exponent as small as possible
Lochverstärker
ooh I see
the euler phi function phi(n) gives you the number of elemts in {1, ..., n} that are coprime to n
so b is 987654321^s here, and its clearly bigger than phi N
i think its best if you review eulers theorem, its important
since phi N is 16111 or 16319
no
(i also dont think your other exercise is related to this)
oh damn, too bad
so then do I just know its bigger than phi(N) by computation?
or is there a more obvious tell
I found that phi(N) is 262882980
well, still seems big
if you use the chinese remainder theorem first, you can instead use phi of your primes
previous exercise makes it seem like you know s though?
why is it the case that prime -1 is coprime..?
yes I know s, sorry I thought I wrote that
its 260921763
the only numbers not coprime to a prime p are p, 2p, 3p, ...
right that makes sense simply by definition
im still getting used to the terms again
sorry
but yeah you can use this reduction theorem again
then you have to compute phi(phi(p))
and reduce s that way
and then you get a result at some point
wait wdym
so you have the two congruences with the factors of N
and you reduce once
then you reduce again?
or
i mean I guess you already reduced once
wait no im misunderstanding this I think
we have $123456789^{987654321^s} \mod 16111$
, clearly $b > \varphi(N)$ bc
$$987654321^s > \varphi(16111)$$
so we now can try to find $$123456789^{(987654321^s) - \varphi(16111)} \mod 16111$$
Delta Syndrome
that has to be wrong..
why?
oh it isn't??
just seems like (987654321^s) - \varphi(16111) is not like.. super fun
its just not general enough to be useful
right
as i said, you can reduce the exponent mod varphi(p)
you should try proving that
so something like:
if $b \equiv c \pmod{\varphi(n)}$, then $a^b \equiv a^c \pmod{n}$
Lochverstärker
ah so bc we have the antecedent
so like
err
987654321^s \equiv something mod 16111
wait
i dont think you understand the statement
its very general, and you should probably try to understand that first
this is what lets you reduce the size of exponents in congruences
yeah I think I see that
I'm confused somehow about what you mean when you say reduce the exponent mod varphi(p)
like I don't see what that is pointing to
for some reason
perhaps I need a break
like take 987654321^s, and reduce it, and take mod phi(n)?
there are infinitely many numbers congruent to a mod n
one of them is smallest
reduction is finding the smallest
this will make those calculations easier
yes
but you can compute 987654321^s = ? mod phi(n)
and you can apply the same theorem again
(you can also reduce the base, which you will have to do as well)
is ? 1688^5
depends on the n you are considering
i was trying to avoid having to do any calculations myself while trying to help you 
whats s again 
,w 1688^5 mod phi(16111)
so doesnt seems to check out
but wolframalpha can compute the final solution and every intermediate step you want to make, if you want to check
this should be the first step, yes
careful that you have to mod the base and the exponent by different numbers though
um
so now
987654321 mod 16110
actually no
i take the prime factors
of 16110
which are 2, 3, 3, 5, 179
and check 987654321 ^s mod each one
if i have a zero
which i do
at 3
i continue from that
so now i have 14307^0^s = 1
nvm that was wrong
this is it
nvm I still don't know how to do this
can someone explain to me how this work was done?
On first observation I would notice that 3x+4y added to 7x+5y would be 10x+9y
Helpfully we can just add 3x+4y again
The rest of the proof follows
Mostly came from playing around with it I'm guessing
Another interesting observation is that 3, 4 are coprime so you can produce any integer
In fact you can find integers s and t such that 3s+4t=1 (corollary, since gcd is a linear combination)
Observe too that 7 and 5 are coprime so again you can find integers
We can take this and multiply it by 13b where b is some integer
We now have $3(s \cdot 13b) + 4(t \cdot 13b) = 13b$
DerpZ
Setting x = 13bs and y = 13bt
wdym by most?
I am not convinced that this set, which is not denoted to be finite, is also bounded below, especially not by 0.
Given that this set literally just comes with element of the form a-ib for natural i, what stops me from just continuing the set?
Like lmao isn't saying that this set is bounded below like assuming the very thing we're trying to prove
(my primary confusion is that this set is not denoted to be finite, I can just select a-nb for some sufficiently large n and wooooah we're below 0!!!!)
which book is this?
Yeah I'm not convinced either
I think gallian's abstract algebra book explained it better
The ... notation is pretty poor tbh
man I hate number theory books
Maybe something like $S = { a - nb \mid a-nb \geq 0 }$
trying to learn from something small that doesn't assume algebra
DerpZ
and this was like the first decent book
lmao could be
huh
you can prove with q1 and r1, q2 and r2 and conclude que both q and both r must be equal
Are you talking about the uniqueness portion of the proof?
@brittle root is this susanne epp textbook ?
gallian contemporary abstract algebra
x=2[19] and x=3[15], find x
x=3[15] then x=3[3] and x=3[5] by the chinese theorem
then what?
how to solve this set of equations
Chinese remainder theorem is constructive
Or you could just guess some numbers
Check all small numbers that are 2 mod 19 whether they are 3 mod 15. You'll have to check at most 15 numbers
how?
i still dont really understand it
the theorem
is there some good video or source?
to gain the intuition
i just learned it a few minutes ago in my algebra class when we reached the fact that Zmn is isomorphic to Zm*Zn
if m,n are coprime
Well I assume you proved the CRT?
Follow the proof but now with the specific numbers 15 and 19
Well I assume you did a constructive proof.
If not then the internet definitely has resources on that
Hi guys i dont know how to do 5
I know the method for diophantine equations with two variables
But i cant find a way to do this even online
Hmm, one (somewhat unsystematic) approach would be to solve 12x_1+21x_2+15x_4 == 0 (mod 9) and then compute x_3 to make the overall equality come out right.
that seems like the right approach to me
it simplifies further to 3(x_1 + x_2) + 6x_4 = 0 mod 9 from which you can proceed simply
Perhaps divide the entire equation by 3 as the very first step to make the numbers smaller, though.
$n\bZ = { na \mid a \in \bZ }$
Troposphere
oh lol thanks
why cant I just do m=ab, so mz={abn | n\in Z}?
Oh nvm I see
theres common factors maybe
So something like this?
That's a rather verbose way to define the least common multiple, so yes.
It's also just ab/gcd(a,b).
("FLT" will usually be uderstood as "Fermat's Last Theorem" -- you want Fermat's little theorem, which unfortunately has the same initials).
First, you can write what you want to prove as $456^{654} + 123^{321} \equiv 0 \pmod{11}$.
Troposphere
haha
What is the exact statement of the Fermat's little theorem you know?

This version needs an additional assumption that a is not a multiple of p.
Luckily, neither 456 nor 123 are multiples of 11.
Now, even before you start using Fermat, you ought to know that $a^b \equiv (a\bmod n)^b \pmod n$, so you can start by using that to simplify your goal.
Troposphere
oh right
p does not divide at
a
@wooden glen
Can U explain this step to me?
I don't understand the congruency
how can we break down that into
4-5+6, for example
what gives!
❤️
It's using that 10 == -1 (mod 11) and therefore 100 == 1 (mod 11).
Personally I'd find it quicker to say:
456 = 440 + 16 = 440 + 11 + 5 == 5 (mod 11)
123 = 110 + 13 == 110 + 11 + 2 == 2 (mod 11)
(which is just long division, forgetting about the quotient, but can still be done in your head).
But both methods work.
Can someone help me with this question?
i don't know if regular induction works
i'll send wat i have tried so far
d ≥ 2 so
d -3 ≥ -1
but i'm trying to show that
p_k+3 -3k -3 is > 0
so i'm kinda stuck here
any idea wat number theory for primes is needed?
pls ping me if u reply thank yu

Long induction seems more promising, tbh.
Then you can go from n-2 to n, using that at most two of any six successive numbers can be prime. (Other than 2 or 3, but they are never p_(n+2) anyway).
@clever trout
is p-1 mod p always -1?
yes
true
Let $f(x), g(x)$ be two polynomials without common factors (except constants). Show that $f(x) + yg(x)$ is irreducible
sam
This seems trivial, but I'm slightly unsure how to interpret the y here
It's getting too late I think my brain is fried
The lecture notes are rly quite unfinished so it didnt give us much tools or discussion before these excercises
sam
Another excercise, Let $f(x)$ be a polynomial. Show that $y^2 + f(x)$ is reducible iff $f(x) = -g(x)^2$ for some polynomial $g$, seems equally trivial if you just know how to interpret it
sam
is this strong induction?
Yes, "long induction" and "strong induction" are two names for the same variation.
@clever trout the trick is that the equality does not hold
so if you have p_(k+2) >= 3k, you actually have p_(k+2)>=3k+1
use this idea in the induction step
hi filip what do u mean by equality?
(It's not clear to me how the +1 would make things easier, FWIW).
p_(k+2) >= 3k,
and since d >=2 ,
p_(k+3) >= p_(K+2) + 2 = 3k + 2
err
so i got 3k+2
just need 1 more
p_(k+2) can't be equal to 3k, because it would be divisible by 3 and so it won't be a prime
so p_(k+2) is at least 3k+1
Ah!
OHHH
DAMN SON
wow
damn
alright
ok so p_(k+2) >= 3k+1
p_(k+3)
= p_(k+2) + d
= 3k + 1 + d
and since d >= 2
p(k+3)
= 3k + 1 + 2
= 3k + 3
omy god we are done
@wooden glen @primal pewter thank you two for your time gentlemen
does anyone know how to use CRT to find all the square roots of some y mod N?
my N is 260924709, I know I can split it into 16111 16319 which are the prime factors of N
but I don't know how to continue from here
please im on my last straw im losing it 🥲
It's not exactly a complete method, but if you can find square roots modulo the prime factors separately, then the CRT allows you to combine them into a square root modulo N.
You then still need a way to find a square root modulo each prime factor.
By the way, the prime factorization of 260924709 is 3 · 86974903, not sue where you got 1611 and 16319.
that's N
So the first factor is 16111 not 1611 :-)
Hmm, no you didn't.
oh nevermind then
but yeah
16111 and 16319
so I just found an algorithm we have to calculate square roots but
Dont know what me miss one of the ones.
I'm not sure its sufficient
this was a previous exercise we proved
and 16111 mod 4 is 3
so we know that y^16112/4 is 7064 mod 16111
so those are the corresponding square roots of the primes I think
like if we do the same thing for 16319
but yeah
I don't know how to continue
I know you're supposed to find the inverses so like
16111^-1 mod 16319 and similarly 16319^-1 mod 16111
but I don't know why
I think there might be a special version of CRT for primes
any ideas?
I can never remember how it goes exactly. The CRT itself just says that a solution exists (and is unique), but if you dig up a proof of it, is should be constructive enough to tell you how to proceed.
I haven't been able to figure it out by myself I've looked around on the internet everywhere
that's too bad then
wait this is not true, its not 7064
Not immediately.
The CRT is something like if you can find x and y such that
x==1 (mod p) y==0 (mod p)
x==0 (mod q) y== 1 (mod q)
then ax+by == a (mod p) and ax+by == b (mod q).
But x==0 (mod q) says that x is a multiple of q, and finding the inverse of q mod p tells you which multiple of q it has to be to make x==1 (mod p).
Similarly (but opposite) for y.
oh so that's why you want the inverses
so its cong to 1
oh ok ok
== is congruent right?
Yes, common ASCII approximation for $\equiv$.
Troposphere
ok ok ty
can you explain what this is saying?
I can't even realize how this result was reached
then I should be done ;-;
turns out its correct..
and the screenshot is a typo.. nevermind
I think it should have been q <= sqrt(n/p).
They used the fact that any composite number has a prime factor less or equal to its square root.
To prove this, let's say we have a composite number n; so we can find a,b>1 integers such that n=ab. Clearly, we can't have a>sqrt(n) and b>sqrt(n) in the same time, so at least one of these is false. Let's say the first one is false, so a<=sqrt(n). Now pick any prime divisor of a, and we are done.
hi
any tips?
Prove that if f(x) is a polynomial of degree 3 with integral coefficients (that is, f(x)=a_3x^3+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0 and a_0,a_1,a_2,a_3∈Z) and none of the integers f(0),f(1),f(2) is divisible by 3, then f(x) does not have a root in Z.
if f(x) has a integer root k, then f(k)=0 mod 3
is contradiction my best option here?
well depends on what you mean by "best". but it certainly is an option
my easiest option
probably
lets say I don't know much about congruences. Can I just plug in 3q + r for every x value?
yes
How would I go about checking uniqueness of a solution for ax + by = n?, Given integers a,b and solving for integers x,y?
Think about the shape of the solution set for fixed, nonzero a,b.
This will help you form a plan of attack
I agree with you!
I haven't taken a math class in a while, and I know I am butchering this (a limit in analysis). I hope I just need a couple pokes in the right direction (or a suggestion of a better channel to ask in). https://mathb.in/72940
try to multiple on the top and bottom by:
sqrt(n^{2} + n) + n
and you should be able to find the result ^^
Thank you! Is this going in the right direction so far? https://mathb.in/72941
huuuuh, last line is wrong
Bah, I can only do that on top. Gotcha, thanks again!
Do you have an intuitive explanation? I have a proof on the paper but it doesn't make much sense to me
Intuitively some line describing x and y shouldn't necessarily have infinite integer points
Because it’s a line with a rational slope
Ah
If I go along enough, eventually I get another integer pair. Donezo
Fair, thank you
hello guys, I have two questions about this exercise:
- I thought about a solution where the sets have the property to be multiple of a prime number, so I would have A1 = {2,4,6,8,...} A2 = {3,6,9,12,...} A3 = {5,10,15,20,...}. Is it acceptable as solution?
- I don't understand the proposed solution, can someone give me some references? Thanks
well in your case you have for example that 6 is both in A1 and in A2
which is not allowed
so you need to be more careful
what they mean is to take A1 = {1,3,6,10,15, ...} and A2 = {2,5,9,14, ...} etc, that is Ai = {i'th row}
or equivalently column
Well consider this:
Let f be a bijection from N x N to N.
Now Let B_i={(i,n) | n \in N}. Then the sets f(B_i) will partition N.
I think this is what they are trying to do
Each B_i can be thought of as a "row" of NxN
thank you both
can anyone help me write 1 as a linear combination of 34 and 55
i have used the euclidian algorithm to get to the gcd and back substituted but im struggling to reduce it in terms of 34s and 55s
oh wait its just gonna be the two previous fibonacci numbers isnt it
how can I get to n | (n-2)! from here?
let a,b>2, n=ab. show a,b<ab-2. then (ab-2)! must have a and b as factors. thus ab | (ab-2)! -> n | (n-2)!
Thank you!
I have this so far, but I've been struggling on how to show 2a < a^2 - 2 for n>2...
@pearl gyro where do you use the argument that 2a < a^2 - 2
regardless, let a=3. then clearly 2*3 < 9-2
now let a>3. then
a^2 - a < a^2 - 2
and a-1 > 2
so a^2 - a = a(a - 1) > a * 2
so a^2 - 2 > 2a for a > 2
Guys im having trouble understanding this homework assignment, if someone has the time to help me understand it and perhaps solve it
For each of the following subsets of ℤ, explain whether the subset is well-ordered or not (by the usual ordering on ℤ).
i) even numbers
ii) perfect squares
iii) the integers that are strictly greater than -5
Explain what you don't understand; nobody can read your mind, nor does anyone want to simply give you the answers.
To (hopefully) show a and 2a are two distinct integers between 3 and n-2 and show that a^2 | (n-2)!
thank you so much🥹
np
Hi.
i know its a strange question, but how can i find the minimum and the maximum of 4 numbers.
an expression for minimum of 2 numbers is: (a+b-|a-b|)/2, and for maximum: (a+b+|a-b|)/2. So i need such a formula for 4 numbers
just look at the numbers lol
you can also use min(a, b, c) = min(min(a, b), c)
and proceed by induction, then use what you have
theyre random
so min(a,b,c,d) = min(min(a,b), min(b,c), min(c,d)) = min(min(min(a,b), min(b,c)), min(c,d)))?
You can use the expression you already have. Say the numbers are a, b, c, d.
S1 = (a+b-|a-b|)/2, S2 = (c+d-|c-d|)/2 and the overall minimum is (S1+S2-|S1-S2|)/2
I don't see though how this would be faster than just looking at the numbers, rather comparing them
this works but its a bit too complex
you can just always compare with the next number
min(min(min(a, b), c), d)
ah, ok
you can find the min of n numbers by finding n-1 mins of two numbers
if the numbers are "random" (you probably mean arbitrary?) this adds nothing to the math though
you can just write min(a, b, c, d) in place of the min everywhere
and nothing changes
WLOG let a<=b<=c<=d :D
yes, but then i need to find the min of other three, then min of remaining two
so basically i need to rearrange them from smallest to biggest
you dont
plug in min(a, b) into your formula
?
then plug the result and c into your formula again
and then that result and d into your formula again
you get some giant algebraic expression in a, b, c, d
then you can simplify this in some sense
technically the expression is algebraic in a, b, c, d and some absolute values that appear
the same works for max
its just a much writing down and algebraic simplification at the end
does anyone's library have access to the following:
A.M. Vaidya. An inequality for Euler's totient function. Math. Student 35 (1967), 79-80.?
it's in the mathematics student 1967. the journal is impossible to find (even on the less legal sites) and my library only has from 2012
thoughts on this?
what kind of thoughts are you looking for, is this a proof you wrote and are having doubts about?
yeah just asking for a second set of eyes for correctness
not so sure about the last sentence of the second paragraph
I'm about to go to sleep, someone else might help, but you might want to say what [2] is
i changed it to n | (x1 - x2) bc i think that x1 congruent x2 mod n shows they just differ by n and arent neccessarily unique
its bezouts identity, okay
Hmm, my first thought would be to look for triples whose product isn't a multiple of both 5 and 4, which feels like it should be doable by inclusion-exclusion.
i tried to make cases but it is going too lengthy ....can you pls elaborate
Triples where 5 doesn't divide the product are those where none of the numbers are 5 or 10.
Triples where 4 doesn't divide the product are those where all numbers are odd, plus triples with one number being 2, 6, 10 and the two others being odd.
Triples where neither 5 nor 4 divides the product are those where all numbers are odd but not 5, plus ones with one number being 2 or 6 and the two other odd-but-not-5.
im trying again..thanks
Hello, new here, but I was wondering... how to solve this?
First step was just taking a number, 48, and finding all factors ( 1,2,3,4,6,8,12,16,24,48)
And then taking the prime factorization of all of those
Getting 2^20 * 3^5
So now Im thinking, is there any way to create the same product using a different set of prime numbers?
One place to start might be that if the original n is not a perfect square, then P_n is always a power of n, since the divisors come in pairs.
(And if n is a square, then P_n is a power of its square root).
i wish i could
wait im thinking
i cant help
but look >>>> some energy for you to complete it
good luck!!!
✨ ✨
I'd take a look at p^(k-1) for prime p
A hint is that this statement holds as long as p,q are both odd and not multiples of 3
First write p^2-q^2=(p+q)(p-q). Then notice if both p,q are odd then p+q and p-q are already both even, so it's already divisible by 4. Then you see p and q are congruent to either 1 or 3, then for each case see what p+q and p-q will be modulo 4. Lastly p and q are congruent to either 1 or 2 modulo 3, and again for each case see what p+q and p-q will be modulo 3.
Thank you
i found a pretty cool solution tho
primes can always be written as 6k +- 1
so i can just say p=6k+1 and q = 6k -1
so with factorization i just get 24k / 24
Is there a way to write 0.01001000100001000001..... as a repeated fraction?
Well no you can't say that, but you can still do all the cases and realized that the product is 24 times something
What if you were given p=7 and q=13 then both are 6k+1, and if you're given 5 and 11 then both are 6k-1
It's pretty similar to what I told you to do, but this is a bit cleaner
no because it's not a repeating fraction, but you can write it in summation notation, it'll end up something like (just roughly guessing it's something similar to this, since you're basically adding consecutive numbers, not gonna work it out) $$\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{10^{\frac{n(n+1)}{2}+n}}$$
Merosity
To be clear I know it's irrational and can't be written as a fraction, but was looking for a way to write it as a repeated fraction kind of like how sqrt2 can be written as 1/(2+1/(2+1/2+...
Is this what you answered?
Makes sense, because I wouldn't even know how to start expressing it 🙂
Now realizing the word I was looking for was "continued fraction"