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where did I go wrong?
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I am confused about how my textbook is introducing and then using this inverse function theorem.
- is the formula saying about the denominator (original'(inverse(x))) or (inverse'(original(x)))
- introduction seems to be saying (original'(inverse(x)))
- the application seems to be saying (inverse'(original(x)))
its original'(inverse)
and is it saying that taking the reciprocal of (original'(inverse)) is the derivative of the inverse?
I'm not sure what part of that page is supposed to be inconsistent
yes
You take the derivative of f and then you plug in the inverse into it
the thing that's confusing me are the terms they use in the introduction: f(x) being the original and g(x) being the inverse. and then in the application they use g(x) as the original and f(x) as the inverse
The thing that is making this a nightmare to read is their lack of proper LaTeX making the prime look really ugly.
I read the example as the original function is f and the inverse is g and that they want to find g'
ok i'm following that
Whether you call f the inverse of g or g the inverse of f here doesn't really matter
But I agree starting the solution by calling f the inverse of g is confusing
ok so i should maybe chop this up to an inconsistency in terms introduced and then terms used... buuut what they are doing is still correct... aaand i should just think of it as: take the reciprocal of the (original'(inverse)) or $(f^{-1})'(x) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}$
Tubberware
The point is that it is a matter of what your perspective is
Lets say you start with a function f, and you want to find the derivative of a function f^-1. That is the usual "forward" way that one would normally think about the problem
The alternative is that you start with a function g and you want to differentiate it but you don't know how.
One way to then approach the problem is to find the inverse of g and maybe that is easier to differentiate
In practice, you would never think like this because differentiation is too easy in some sense
Actually nevermind, your own book is confusing me. I would never have wrote that solution they way they did in a million years and trying to justify it is just making me say garbage
ohh ok i think i see what you mean
The broad point stands that what you call f and what you call f-1 doesn't really matter
although i am interested in the point you made. maybe finding the derivative of the inverse would be easier then finding the derivative of the original?
This kind of getting off topic, but while that is a strategy you might use in math, I don't really see it in this situation
The problem is that the derivative, being "just" a function that cares about the behavior locally where h is near 0 is just too easily understood.
Between it being linear and the chain rule, product rule etc, you are just not going to realistically run into a function where you go "how on earth do I differentiate this". The derivative is the least of your worries in most applications
So thinking about the inverse function theorem "backwards" to try to access a way to differentiate something "hard" is just not that useful because nothing is really hard here
ok, so its not a tool to differentiate hard problems but this theorem could be thought of as a proof that is used to setup a pattern or a mnemonic that makes finding an inverse function's derivative as easy as taking the reciprocal of the original's derivative? does that sound right?
I just meant that the way they start with g and call f the inverse of g doesn't get you anything helpful
gotcha. so is my understanding correct about the symantics of the theorem? is my formula here correct? $(f^{-1})'(x) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}$ and i'm interpreting that as i can find the derivative of the inverse by taking the original and finding its inverse, and then find the derivative of it, and all of that is reciprocated? or is my formula and process incorrect?
Tubberware
Yes
sweet! thanks for getting in the weeds there with me!
wait i think i still got it wrong. looking at the application example - the piece where they are working on under the 'and' is just the denominator: $f'(g(x)$ in this case f'(x) is the derivative of the inverse of the original function, and then they are plugging the original function into that, and getting $-\frac{x^2}{2}$. aren't they getting that backwards or am i backwards still?
Tubberware
i'm circling back to my original confusing:
- introduction seems to be saying about the denominator: (original'(inverse(x)))
- the application seems to be saying about the denominator: (inverse'(original(x)))
and that process is contradicting my current understanding of the theorem:
$(f^{-1})'(x) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}$ and i'm interpreting that as i can find the derivative of the inverse by taking the original and finding its inverse, and then find the derivative of it, and all of that is reciprocated
Tubberware
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my professer told me to flip the diagram then do the problem but im stil confused on how to get D
consider the x component of velocity
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can someone explain why if x= - 1/2 then this expression equals 0 ?
Put -1 /2 into the |2x+1|
and?
well that term obviously becomes zero
what value did you expect the expression to have for x=-1/2
2?
whats that gotta do with it
0
so we have |0| * lim (n+1)
but lim (n+1) = infinity
so we have 0 * infinity ?
no, we dont have 0*infinity
ok well what do we have
and why do we not have that
Maybe write out the sequence
Pick n as large as you want
What's the value of the expression (without the limit)
Do you see what to do now
that for every ε>0 there is N such that if n>N |an-L|<ε
I'm assuming from the use of n that it's a natural number
it is
but i dont think it makes any significant difference
i dont understand the logic here
It just makes your life easier is all
Well what do you not understand
It's a question
why would we be able to just use specific number for n
when we have a limit that says n approaches infinity
Limits don't exist in a vacuum, they exist in neighbourhoods
||you might as well put the |2x-1|=0 term inside the limit (which means you will be taking the limit of zero) and call it a day x)||
What's a neighbourhood of infinity
Ehhh 0. Inf is indeterminate
define your sequence f_n (-1/2) and show using the N-epsilon definition that the limit trivially converges to 0 for any epsilon
mhm i see
well not really
(I know it isn't for this case but he seems confused)
cause x isnt dependent on n
Oh good
but wait
im still not getting something
if we agree that lim(n+1) = +oo
what is the thing that prevents as from replacing the limit with +oo
The limit as n goes to infinity is basically the value the sequence converges to for large values
Now answer this
no
not for this case
What the fuck do you mean no
the limit does not converge
My brother in christ
sorry if im mistaken
Let a_n = that entire expression without the limit
You want the limit of a_n as n goes to inf
Now what is a_n for any n
If x is -1/2
Good
but what im asking is
What do you have after you do that
0
What's going on here; you can't put the 0 inside the limit
So every term in the sequence is 0
It's okay, we can in this case
you cant?
No you can't
What he's talking about makes sense essentially
its independent to n though?
cause in the previous step
it pulled the 0 out of thelimit
Anyway
So every term in the sequence is 0
So what is the limit as the sequence goes to inf
bro i understood this
but my question is
if we agree that lim (n+1) = +oo
Yes
why cant we replace it just like with x
What
ok but what rule makes us unable to replace it
is it because of how we defined the limits
that grow without bound
the definition of a limit to infinity
Infinity isn't a value your function achieves anywhere
A limit isn't a function though
so
yea was about to say that
so in the definition
saying lim(n+1) = +oo
Fair enough
have u seen N-epsilon proofs of limits to infinities?
$$\lim_{x \to p} (f(x)\cdot g(x)) = \lim_{x \to p} f(x) \cdot \lim_{x \to p} g(x)$$
This is only valid if the limits on the right exist (that they are finite values)
idek how to aask this
Nel
yes
ik the definitions
was gonna ask this aswell
when saying the lims exist
from my knowledge
we also assume they are converging
thats what it means
including for the identity lim kf = k limf
so how did we pull |2x+1| out in the first place
,w lim_{n to infty} |((n+1)n! (2x+1))/(n!)|
x is -1/2
well this disagrees with the page im using
here it says that t for x= -1/2 we have a different case
okay good.
Define a sequence f_n(x) = |2x+1|(n+1). We want to prove the limit is 0
now taking the limit to infinity for f_n(-1/2) means:
for all epsilon>0, there exists N in naturals such that for all n>N,
|f_n(-1/2) - 0| < epsilon
but f_n(-1/2) = 0
So we want to show 0<epsilon which is true by hypothesis
yea here i see how its done
when |2x+1| is inside the limit
i was confused when it was outside
Right sorry, if x = -1/2, this is just 0; but the next line isn't valid in OP's picture
For the purposes of a limit of n, 2x+1 is constant
how did we get it out of the limit
Your confusion is that what you did here isn't valid
Cuz it's a constant
this isnt what i did
im studying of a page
thats what it said is it not correct?
bro
? Why not
Because the limit of the rest doesn't exist (isn't finite)
here it doesnt exist
so this is a mistake
he should have replaced x inside the limit
Can you show the entire thing?
ok
Oh right yeah that's weird
Well yes, doing that makes it trivially 0
Idk why that second line happens
yes ik i wasnt confused about that
i was confused after he got it out of it
well it says it converges
and i calculated it without the 2x+1 outside
i just put x = -1/2 so we have lim 0
and since that line is equal to the next
then the next line is also 0
but regardless i dont get how he got |2x+1| out of the limit
is it really true that u cant pull out a constant from a limit if the limit diverges?
im not sure if ive heard that one before
Me neither, but it never says that the final expression equals 0
well the theorem that you are refering to
is lim kf = k lim f correct?
on the top of all these identities in my book it says assuming limits of f and g at xo exist
here it says at xo but i think xo can be infinity too
I'm pretty sure this is correct even if f is a constant function
no thats a different theorem
lim (kf(x)) = k lim f(x)
No? It's a generalization
Yeah, just make either f(x) = k or g(x) = k, for all x
in my book it shows as seperate case
but is see how its included
in either case the limits must exist for the theorem to hold
either way i dont think pulling out a constant will ever change the result
This definitely looks sketchy to me. You don't need that last line for the value of L to show that it's 0 when x=-1/2 and +inf otherwise
yes you dont
Like I have no issue with anything else in that picture
it doesnt stand though
and this was where my issue came in place
if |2x+1| is outside
and we cant get it inside
it looks like we have 0* (+oo)
which seems wrong to even write down
You should talk to your professor about it
Oh
its meaningless to want to pull out the |2x+1|
i think the standard of ratio tests is to get the x dependent term out
i think 0* lim that goes to infinity
is something wrong to write
and thats why we cant pull out k if the limit diverges
but im not sure
this is what itches me
if it was something tending to 0 times something tending to infinity then id agree, its more nuanced
I mean proof of this that i know assumes that both limits exist. Idk how to generalize that if one limit diverges
i got the proof 1 sec lemme see it
I don't think it holds in general if one limit diverges
I don't have the same idea of a limit as you do
A limit isn't something that "tends to" a value
assuming lim = l
A limit is a value, or doesn't exist (is infinite)
then you set ε = k ε*
and distribute k inside | |
and you got |kf(x) - kl| < ε
well i got a question though
when we say and define a lim f(x) = + oo
what is +oo
is it something treated as a constant
okay i think i get why 0*divergent lim is not defined
yes but in this case
i dont think we have different infinities in limits
the infinity from the limit going to infinity
is a
idk im getting stuck again idk how to describe my problem
I meant for general f and g. Not if one is constant.
in that case
Look if you're working within the domain of the real numbers, multiplication is defined as function of two inputs and one output; all must be real numbers
well im not really working with anything
im just exploring math
thats why im asking if 0 * (limf) with limf=+oo is something correct to write down
or if its a mistake
I'm just saying that x * inf is usually not defined
I wouldnt define it. For same reason that $0 \cdot \sqrt{-1}$ is not defined in real numbers
casework
iirc u lose some important field properties if u define it and then ur real numbers arent so good lookin anymore
Maybe bad analogy
we dont have that rn
It's what you just said
no
thats why im asking if 0 * (limf) with limf=+oo is something correct to write down
0 * (lim f) with lim f = +inf
yes
That's literally the same thing as 0 * (+inf)
but we cant replace limf with + inf can we
is it ?
idk if we can do that
... how else do you interpret that equals sign
||As abusing notation?||
Probably a different context, but also probably for the same reasons: it's not a real value
Yes, that's one way to put it
I mean limit doesnt exist. Saying its infinite is just one way of putting the sequence is unbounded , no?
not to actually use infinity in addition and etc
but yea pretty much this is what im asking
lim f(x) = +inf is an abuse of notation. Formally, you always have some assumption that lim f(x) = L, and then you work with either cases: L is a real value or L doesn't exist
I mean it does, you're just taking one abuse of notation into another
isnt that a mistake
Writing "with lim f = +inf" is a mistake
Actually unbounded is wrong word here. For all M there exists N such that for all n > N we have a_n > M
Unbounded could also be n*sin n
ok
but like
if we have lim f * lim g
can we make it +oo (limg)
because if its just a symbolization it shouldnt be used in multiplication
Whenever you have an expression where some term isnt a real number. I would just call the whole expression undefined (if working with real numbers , which im guessing you are)
If lim f = L_f and lim g = L_g, then lim (fg) = lim f * lim g
thats not what i reffered to
this is something else
ok lemme do it differently
if we have k * limf
can we say thats equal to k * +oo
is it even defined
1 sec
i searched up
here it says in the extended real number system
we define c * (+oo) = +oo
It would be more accurate to say
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} f(n) \to \infty$$
(Some made up notation)
if c>0
casework
Right, but that requires working with a new system and understanding its rules
and the guy writing this made a mistake taking |2x+1| out of limit
Yes
ok thanks
Maybe it's more intuitive to think about convergence and divergence
appreciate yalls time helping me and providing your knowledge
yea i got it cleared up what i didnt know
How does it fail to be a semigroup?
thank yall again have a good one imma head to sleep
It seems to be associative (at least for multiplication)
And has identity 1?
I mean for multiplication
Same thing
Doesnt this hold?
Unless having -oo * +oo messes stuff up
Is it at least a magma
0 * inf is left undefined
0 * (0 * inf) =? (0 * 0) * inf
That's not really an equality
Oo so its not even a magma
Umm seems kinda useless
This is interesting
It could be a magma under addition
Or maybe its a monoid
I dont see why it wouldnt be associative as every addition should be defined
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
4
Alright
trying to find the moments of each one but i forgot how to compute it
Could you send your work over?
i alr got the 0 points
this is what i got for this part
v is the shear and m is the moment equation cuz its supposed to be the integral of shear
shear 0 points are
.75,4,6.25
uhhh i forgot lemme see what that is
oh yeah
yeah i am
its the 0-2 stuff right at the top its messy
Did you account for the moment caused by the dual 8 kN forces in the middle?
16 kNm
8 from top and 8 from bottom
Both working together
Those are correct
Correct
You have 2 options
You can either calculate the sum of areas in the shear diagram
Or you can calculate the sum of moments through the forces
From left of the point
It wouldn't
wait
You sum the areas from x = 0 till x = the position that you want to calculate for
yeah
Positive area is positive and negative area is negative
so why couldnt we intergrate the old equations?
the only true arease would be created by the distrubuted loads right
No
All the point loads and distributed loads and the 16 kNm moment causes moments through areas
yeah
I'll make the equations rn hol on
cuz i got the shear ones but ion think they transfer to moment ones well
4 is 0
6.25 is -6.25?
V=dM
Yea
k but how exactly did you integrate it?
cuz mines doesnt do it well
I used macaulay's brackets
Well
Kinda
I defined a function called the ramp function
max(0,x)
interesting
Then I defined the derivative of that function as the unit step function
And I needed to define the derivative of the unit step function as the dirac delta function, but desmos can't recognize it
And even so, it won't make a difference
(This function is needed for the 16 kNm moment at x = 4)
I defined the loads using the unit step function and the dirac delta function load
isnt it just 8 tho if you include the 3kNs too
It's a double 8
It's a tandem moment
cuz they technically all acting at 4m
I used a 6 instead of double 3s
$\int \langle x \rangle^n \dd x = \begin{cases} \langle x \rangle^{n+1}, n \le 0 \ \ \frac{1}{n+1} \langle x \rangle ^{n+1} , n > 0 \end{cases}; n \in \mathbb{Z}$
VulcanOne
ye
Keep in mind that if you graph the bending moment diagram and shear force diagram by hand, you'll find it easier than writing their equations
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/qbdiq7ca6g has the graphs you can check from
v(x) and m(x)
Hope this helps
I gotta now do some errands irl
Good luck :)
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Vector B = Vector A / magnitude (A)
So, vector B= the unit vector of A.
how isnt the magnitude of A always bigger than the magnitude of B considering that B literally has the length of 1 and "1" is a "part of" A.
vector B always has magnitude 1
yes
can vector A have a lower magnitude?
i said no
well, small/small can also equal big/big
is 0.5 less than 1
yes
can vector A have magnitude 0.5
yes it can, but- if we take "a part of it" how will it ever be 1 magnitude
run the calculations, you have to divide by 0.5
pick A = (0.5, 0) if you want a 2d vector to try
oh... B is (1 , 0)
okay... A can have magnitude less than 1
and still have its unit vector be 1
yeah
so does that mean that every single vector has a unit vector
division does not always make a number smaller
all we care about vecA is its direction, a vector with length 1 and that direction can be called unit vector of vector A
if we take a part of a part we have a part thats bigger than a whole part 🤩 i love math
yeah dividing two fractions sometimes gives numbers that are bigger than 1
ig that makes sense
mhm
okay ty people
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\sin \left(\frac{\theta }{\cos \left(\pi \right)^{20}}\right)^2=\log _b\left(a\right)
you forgot the $ sign
can u re type it im new
$\sin \left(\frac{\theta }{\cos \left(\pi \right)^{20}}\right)^2=\log _b\left(a\right)$
Alexis_Fx
=$\log _b$\left(a\right)
theonlygardener
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$=\log _b\left(a\right)$ ?
Alexis_Fx
what's the question?
$\sin \left(\frac{\theta }{\cos \left(\pi \right)^{20}}\right)^2=\log _b(a)$
Dhairya
what's the question? since I'm seeing 3 variables here
sole for a
so express a in term of theta and b ?
yes
what have you tried
so you want us to check the ans?
yes
yeah that seems correct
what should it be for the lim
wdym
i need it
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
so the question is express a in term of theta and b ? and Nothing else
yes
you just did it
wait now try
\sin \left(\frac{\theta :}{\cos \left(\pi \right)^a}\right)^2=\log _b\left(a\right)
$\sin \left(\frac{\theta :}{\cos \left(\pi \right)^a}\right)^2=\log _b\left(a\right)$
Alexis_Fx
what
could you send the whole question?
You clearly do more than just express here
what does $(\theta:)$ mean
Alexis_Fx
no :
b=e^{\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}}
$b=e^{\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}}$
Alexis_Fx
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
wait
b=e^{\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{\theta}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}}
$b=e^{\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{\theta}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}}$
Alexis_Fx
how did you get this
pause
isn't $b=a^{-\sin^2{\left((-1)^a\theta\right)}}$
Alexis_Fx
Alexis_Fx
what if we change
it to sin(b/theta) to th e power of pi
Alexis_Fx
\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\cos ^a\left(\pi \right)}\right)=\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\ln \left(b\right)}
\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\cos ^a\left(\pi \right)}\right)\ln \left(b\right)=\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\ln \left(b\right)}\ln \left(b\right)
$\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\cos ^a\left(\pi \right)}\right)\ln \left(b\right)=\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\ln \left(b\right)}\ln \left(b\right)$
Dhairya
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\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)\ln \left(b\right)=\ln \left(a\right)
ah heck
\ln \left(b\right)=\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}
b=e^{\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}}
$b=e^{\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{θ}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}}$
theonlygardener
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$\sin ^2\left(\frac{\theta}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)\ln (b)=\ln(a)$
@jovial edge where u at
Dhairya
$b=e^{\frac{\ln (a)}{\sin ^2\left(\frac{\theta}{\left(-1\right)^a}\right)}}$
wann a be friends
Dhairya
I only make friend with Adventure time fan
-# ( just kidding )
my final q
$\sin \left(\frac{\theta :}{\cos \left(\pi \right)^a}\right)^2=\log _b\left(a\right)=\sum _{n=0}^{\infty }:\sqrt[3]{pi}$
theonlygardener
huh?
ya its in my text book
the last equation doesn't even has n anywhere in side the sum
could you send a pic
me
thinking
sorry wrong q
$\sin \left(\frac{\theta :}{\cos \left(\pi \right)^{a^n}}\right)^n=\log _b\left(n\right)=\sum _{n=0}^{\infty }:\sqrt[3]{pi}$
theonlygardener
@jovial edge u there
nah
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
this guy is a troll
why even bother
he's just writing whatever into latex
and posting it
no
I was bored, but now I'm not 
yes u are
how dare you say that
$\sin \left(4θ\right)-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}=0,:\forall :0\le :θ<:2\pi$
try it
theonlygardener
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cuz look at what this guy is posting
its nonsense
he's just typing nonsense and wasting everyone's time
convince me this is not a troll
who are you to determine who is a troll btw?
fine leave it
i do not inted to create a lengthy discussion
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can someone pls call with me to help me with some complex numbers and how to write them down in different forms, I am relearning it and am confused about it for some reason
We don't do calls. Ask your question here and someone will help
alright
this bit confuses me since I believe 3. point should be + pi
or am I wrong? if so pls tell me why, I'm struggling
If both x and y (i.e. real and imaginary parts, respectively) are negative, it means that your number is in the third quadrant of the complex plane. Hence, the angle will be between π and 3π/2, if you follow the convention of having the principal angle in the interval [0, 2π). Otherwise, the more typical convention is having the principal angle in [-π, π). In this case (which is the one followed by the picture you sent), the third quadrant has angles between -π and -π/2
All in all, it just depends on the convention.
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Help
Definition of addition
wdym
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sorry I though this was #discussion 💀
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ngl i got no clue how to go about this
ig if you integrate f'(x) from like ax to bx you get the numerator
of the integrand
and then maybe put some bounds into the integral
thats kind of the idea but not quite
try to think of how you could integrate something from a to b specifically to get f(bx) - f(ax)
f'(tx) from a to b?
integrate over t?
oh yeh that works actually
oh and then you integrate that again
over x
from like c to d and c tends to 0 and d tends to infintiy
oohhhhh
oh
looks like you didn't need much help
i didn't do anything but you're welcome
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you also need to show the integral exists
exists coz integral from 1 to infinity 1/x f(x) exists
so it tends to 0
yeh
and the other way round too
for the tending to 0
why does integral from 0 to 1 f(x)/x exist?
i don't think it necessarily exists
but it doesn't matter coz the integral from 0 to 1 of (f(bx)-f(ax))/x exists
im so confused 😔
of f(bx) and f(ax)
f(x) =f(0) + xf'(0)?
ye
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just need a double check
pretty sure its all right but wanna make sure
its moment and shear stuff
could you send an image instead of a PDF? 
don't upload files..
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hi, if someone could check these for me that would be much appreciated
In c) you are claiming that there is a real number x such that no matter what number you plug in for y, you always have x = 27^y
@sweet sinew Has your question been resolved?
oh right
for c then
im assuming this would make it work?
does the last one not work for the trig one?
No it's fine, I just suspect you are wasting it on Q
and this kind of problem is a bit of a headache when there are multiple correct answers, so you may end up flopping all your answers in a daisy chain when one doesn't work
hmm true
If you can find a set of solutions that are correct for all of them simultaneously without changing it, then there is no problem
In particular, because of that |x|, the fact that they specified Q > 0 is essentially useless here, and maybe the problem is tight enough that you can't use sin here, or maybe it's okay.
But if you can't find something that works for all of them, you should find another place for that one
I think that is the most natural choice for the sin one yeah
but to be clear, this is just an intuitive hunch, your answer for d was correct too
the first one js doesnt work now
yea ik
I think it is a good idea to pair 3, 1/3 with that one
because 27^(1/3) = 3
but it definitely doesn't work for (a)
This is kind of an obnoxious problem in my opinion, because you already demonstrated you know how to solve the problem, and now you are spending extra time fiddling with their poorly thought-out choices for options
yeah lol i agree
idk tbh i tried swapping a) and c) but c) still wont work
I don't have a great answer for you, this is just a lot of choices combinatorically speaking
It was really mean of them to make all the "for alls" and "there exists" different. You are matching 12 options in disguise here
i still cant seem to get it 😭
do u by chance know the answer
I haven't done the problem no
You should look at the options and find the most restrictive ones, for example in that picture, grouping c with R and xy in S is probably the best possible choice
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how many possible ways are there to move from the bottom left corner to the top right corner in a 7 x 5 grid. However 1 move to the left must be included and you cannot leave the grid at any given moment.
if the move to the left is not required the solution simply comes to be 12 c 5.
if you can leave the grid the soultion is 14 c 5, but if we consider faulty cases we have 2 (first left before first right, and first left after all 8 right).
So will the solution simply be 14 c 5 * 7/9??
do you mean to include the restriction that all moves must be rightward or upward (except for one left)?
yeah. sorry
is it also valid to go left, but then immediately right?
no because you exit the grid
if u do it before first right
but on any other turn yes
for example, right-right-up-left-right-...
valid
sure
then I guess you'd have to account for the occurence of the first rightward move
?
I was imagining a similar idea with the easier version of the same problem, wherein the number of moves is fixed, and you choose which of the moves go right, so that the upwards moves are forced
except this time you must include a left, so there are 14 moves total, but the first horizontal move cannot be left
and the last cant be left either right
hence you take special interest in the first right
since ureach the target before
yeah, also true, good point
so i thought
that since there are 14 moves
and 5 ups
we can do 14 c 5 to find all combinations
and then multiply by 7/9 to exclude the 2 exceptions for horizontal moves?
but does multiplying by 7/9 really remove those as options faithfully?
not sure, which is why i wanted to ask this question. to figure out if im removing cases correctly
actually
it might be 14 c 5 * 7
since if we could exit grid it would be * 9
right?
I agree, yeah. you're choosing which of the 9 remaining moves are left, but it can't be first or last
@cyan dock Has your question been resolved?
You must do 8 right moves in total, and somewhere in that you need to include a left move. It must be in between two right moves, so there are 7 choices. Then, you have 9 horizontal moves and 5 vertical moves to mix together, so 14 choose 5. Total is 7 * 14C5, you are correct
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When I’m writing the domain and range for let’s say y=x^2 would this be right?
Domain: { x | -infinity, infinity, x all real numbers}
Range: { y | 0 < or equal to y < or equal to infinity, y is all real numbers}
Sorry if I typed it really weird
you can write the domain in just one symbol:
R
yes btw you did type it weird. if you can't type the symbols ≥ and ≤ you should replace them with >= and <=
{y in R | y >= 0}
or even {y | y >= 0}
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each side of the square has 10 cm, and the point E is in the middle of the square ABCD, i need to calculate the full area of the new polygon without the overlap
I thought about rotating the bottom square so that the overlap would form a 5x5 square, and then the overlapping area would be 25.
Total = 200
200 - 25 = 175
Can someone confirm if my reasoning makes sense?
I'm assuming the angle at which it is hinged, does not affect the area of overlap
the question doesn't bring any angle
Yeah exactly
I mean, the question is, if you rotate, does the area of overlap remain the same
yeah, thats the point, it didnt says nothing
so i think how this is the only way to answer, it might be correct
You will need to prove that the area remains the same under rotation action
sorry, but i dont know how do that
i dont know if that helps, but it has 5 alternatives
a) 125 cm²
b) 145 cm²
c) 150 cm²
d) 165 cm²
e) 175 cm²
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its easy enough to prove this
Instead of a single square at E, you can draw four squares in its place, and its easy to pove that the shapes are contruent to each other
you can prove in multiple ways that the overlapped areas 1,2,3,4 are from congruent shapes, and have the same area.
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hey I need some help with this, last time I had to leave suddenly but I understand ramonov
I'm trying to find the the value of b basically
did you solve f'(b.x) = 8.38 for b.x
what is the derivative of f(x)
b.x?
one second
referring to it as x coordinate of the point b
f'(x)=3(x-2)^2
you can set f'(x) = 8.38
Yes
seems good to me
sounds good
I just want to confirm with others real quick
its fine
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how do i find the inverse function of 3sinh(x+2) in terms of logs
do you know the definition of sinh itself in terms of exponentials, and/or the formula for sinh^-1 in terms of logs?
im aware of the definition of sinh itself yes
not the formula for sinh^-1 in terms of logs although
ok well there's two ways here
a) you can either figure out the formula for sinh^-1 (without the 3 and +2) separately & then apply it to your question
b) you can rawdog it for this problem specifically just applying the exponential defn of sinh and going from there
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..
hmm
ill try rawdogging
see what happens
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ok how do i find the inverse in terms of logs for y=sinh^-1(x)
$\frac{e^y-e^{-y}}{2} = x$, solve for $y$.
Ann
it'll help to multiply both sides by e^y at some point & then recast the thing as a quadratic in e^y.
hmm
so x=sinh(y) is the same as x=sinh^-1(y)
no, rather we're starting with sinh(y) = x, which is equivalent to y = sinh^-1(x).
why are we doing it the other way?
you want to know how to find sinh^-1(x)
oh my bad
i meant x=sinh^-1(y)
woops
😭
oopsies
y=sinh(x), find inverse function in logarithm, basically
that's... yes that's what i directed you to do
ok so
i got
x=ln(y+-(sqrt(y+1)))
okie dokie wat now
hmmmmm
actually
that gives me an idea
.ckise
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could i have help with volumes of revolutions around the y axis
so ive tried putting it in cartesian form
but didnt work out
so i used the parametric method
and i keep ending up in circles
@frozen tree Has your question been resolved?
hmmm we eliminate t
y=sin(2t) -> 2sintcost = 2sqrt(1-cos^2 t) cost -> y^2 = 4x^2(1-x^2)
for y e [-1,1] the curve intersetcs the horisontal line y = const at two positive radi
x^2 = (1+- sqrt(1-y^2))/2
now you do R^2(y) r^2(y) and find the volume V = pi integral (1 -1) (R^2(y) - r^2(y)) dy
but doesnt the equation have to be interms of y?
oh wait ye
in other words when we eliminate t we see that (-1 < _ y < - 1, -1 < _ x < _ 1)
this depends on x^2 so the curve is summetric about the y
we intersect a horisontal line with the curve
y e [-1, 1]
solve y^2 = 4x^2(1-x^2) for x^2
x^2 = (1+- sqrt(1-y^2))/2
since 0 < _ sqrt(1-y^2) < _ 1 both are > _ 0 and ordered
i can't type the equal or less than lol
so:
(1-sqrt(1-y^2))/2 lessequal (1+sqrt(1-y^2))/2
horizontal line y = const cuts the curve at
x = +- r(y) +- R(y)
R (1+sqrt(1-y^2))/2
r (1-sqrt(1-y^2))/2
wait sorry how did u hget this? x^2 = (1+- sqrt(1-y^2))/2
quadratic
if we say that x^2 = v for example
v e [0,1]
y^2 = 4v - 4v^2
we make this quadratic equation
4v^2 - 4v + y^2 = 0
and you solve
and get x^2
or v
or whatever you wanna call it
ok
this requires |y| lessequal 1
it's the range of y = sin(2t)
the cross-section area is pi(R^2(y) - r^2(y))
if we replace R and r from above
we can solve it
lemme do it
or?
you can do it as well
then you integrate that solution for -1 1
do you understand where x^2 = (1+- sqrt(1-y^2))/2 comes from now?
um
it's when you do y= sin(2t)
you eliminate t and come to y^2=4x^2(1-x^2)