#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 21 of 1
what about p2 in m
also p1 i guess
what is r(a)?
Radical of a
cant you then immediately start with the associated primes?
it feels unnecessary to do this whole dance
What is associated primes?
the set of radicals of the primary ideals in the primary decomposition
this should be terminology you know, no?
or does atiyah macdonald use different terminology for that
Yeah, Atiyah used associated terminology
I don't get it, how?
a = √a
so applying √ to a primary decomposition of a will be another primary decomposition of a
in particular, a will be the intersection of its associated primes
Yes but how does it help me?
well then you can see directly that the existence of an embedded prime is contradictory
because if there were to exist an embedded prime, then that can be removed from the decomposition, which is a contradiction
I see, thank you .enpeace
I think no, 0 has no primary decomposition.
In this case, X is homeomorphic to Max(C(X))
Since X is infinite Hausdorff space, there are infinitely many irreducible components of Max(C(X))
Does it imply Spec ( C(X) ) has infinitely many irreducible component?
In simple language, if X is a topological space such that Y is subspace of X and Y has infinitely many irreducible components, does X have too?
Consider
X=Spec(k[x1,x2,...]), then X is a UFD thus is irreducible, but Y=Spec(k[x1,..]/I) where I is generated by all x_ix_j for i\neq j. This ring has infinitely many minimal primes, so Y has infinitely many irred components, but X of course does not.
See
For details on the quotient ring
(Also UFD is a stronger condition, any integral domain is irred cuz 0 is the only minimal prime)
so in this case, is it hold?
You would have to check
The counterexample I gave shows there's no general result (at least without additional assumptions on the ring)
Oh also, idt Max(C(X)) is even closed in Spec(C(X)) (otherwise this means there's an ideal that is contained in every maximal ideal and the only primes containing it are maximal, but any element contained in every maximal ideal of C(X) is 0, and there are non-maximal primes since X is infinite)
So trying to conclude anything about irred components from the irred components of a non-closed subspace won't do you any good, since they might not even be closed in the larger space
@hallow bone sanity check: say that an algebra is locally finite if every f.g. subalgebra is finite. is it true that V(A) is a locally finite variety iff A^k is locally finite for all cardinals k
my reasoning is that i think S and H preserve local finiteness so it just comes down to P
Assuming A^k = free algebra on k generators, isn't this obvious? In fact, can't you restrict it to "A^k is finite for finite k"? After all, any subalgebra generated by k elements is a quotient of A^k.
ok this made me realize that i didn't phrase this in a way to make it clear im talking about universal algebra varieties and not AG

the only indication being that i pinged enpeace
to be clear, by A^k i mean the direct product of k copies of A. and by algebra i mean an arbitrary algebraic structure. and by variety i mean an equational class of algebraic structures
I don't know how to use exercise 7 in 8
Induction. For example, the ideal (x_1) is prime in k[x_1], and you can use induction to show that (x_1)[x_2]= (x_1)k[x_1,x_2], then induct
Also in general (x1,...,xi) is prime in k[x1,...,xi] as it's maximal
no i mean how do i show their powers are primary?
Power of a max ideal is always primary
Then use induction again
I mean, I got that.
I see.
ah ok so it was just confusion over what ^k meant
This looks correct.
If x in p for some p in D(A), how do I show x is a zero divisor?
Say (0:a) \subset p
show that if x isn't a zero divisor then p can't be minimal over (0:a)
Yes I am thinking about how to construct a new prime ideal which contains (0:a) and strictly contained in p
what about (0:a) + (x)
But I have to argue why this is strictly contained in p
What I am thinking take the set of ideal which is strictly contained in p and containing (0:a), and prove that minimal element in that set is prime ideal
The set is non-empty because (0:a) in that set
how do you know a minimal such element exists?
I am trying to use zorn's lemma
The minimal element will be (0:a), by this construction
zorn's lemma doesn't tell you about minimal elements
What if we take maximal one
Well you'll need to prove that it's not (0:a)
I guess if you prove it's prime then it will follow
I don't think the maximal element has to be prime
The problem here is that the Lie algebras with Dynkin diagrams are the classical ones, and they've already had their F_q forms classified by Seligman. The remaining ones (filtered Cartan, Melikyan) don't have a root space decomposition (as far as I'm aware) and hence no Dynkin diagram.
Since these are over finite fields and their closures everything is kind of fucked up when you go out of the classical case
are you able to say anything about what the automorphism groups of these remaining cases look like when working over \bar{F_q}? Probably in these cases you lose the obvious relation between outer forms and Galois actions on Dynkin diagrams but the classification you want in terms of Galois cohomology only requires understanding this automorphism group
if not the entire automorphism group then at least you can try to describe inner forms/outer forms separately
Unfortunately I don't think the automorphism groups have been completely studied or classified in any case (they're relatively huge) but I'll take a further look in the literature
if you can describe this automorphism group reasonably explicitly and assuming it's not a completely horrifying mess then you are just computing H^1(Gal(\bar{F_q}/F_q),Aut) with coefficients in this automorphism group and this step should be fairly manageable
you maybe don't need complete control over these automorphism groups to perform this sort of Galois cohomology computation, since you are only dealing with a procyclic group acting on everything that gives you quite a bit of constraint on things
How to prove the last statement?
If p_i is in D(A) then (0:a) \subset p_i then r(0:a) \subset p_i, i want to show p_i = r(0:x) for some x in A.
yes, because the free algebras in V(A) are subalgebras of A^k for large enough k
this is (essentially) the HSP theorem :3
Can I show r(0:a) is prime ideal?
I got it
But I am stuck at it
yea so i essentially wanted this cuz, i wanted to argue that, if V(A) and V(B) are locally finite, then so is V(A × B)
and this is because local finiteness is also preserved by finite products
so we use A^k × B^k = (A × B)^k
and then i wanted to use that to prove that there's no "maximal locally finite" variety (except in the case of multipointed sets) because you can always expand a locally finite variety using this method and keep it locally finite

ii) I showed forward direction using iii) how to show converse ?
S_p(0) is contained in p, so we just have to prove its radical is prime if p is minimal.
The following facts might be useful to recall:
||A_p is local||
||Nilradical is the intersection of all primes.||
||Inverse image preserves radicals.||
@solar turret
I see, thank you
Did you get it?
Yes
Nilradical is prime when p is minimal prime
Because there is only one prime ideal in A_p when p is minimal prime
Last statement of 11, converse,
So it is given that every prime ideal containing 0 is a minimal prime ideal.
a = \cap S(p_i), where p_i is a minimal prime ideal, and since each p_i contains 0 so a = \cap S(q_i), where q_i is the set of all prime ideals containing 0
Now from 9 and 10, 0 = \cap S(p_i), p_i in D(A), and D(A) contains all associated prime ideals of O, since O is decomposable therefore all minimal prime ideals of 0 are associated, and all associated prime ideals of 0 are minimal.
Hence, 0 = \cap S(q_i) = a, is it correct?
I'm not sure how you're concluding a is the intersection over all primes, since if p_i <= q_i then S(q_i)<= S(p_i), so intersecting over all primes might result in something smaller
so a = \cap S_p(0) over all minimal prime ideals of A
But if all prime ideals of 0 are minimal that means all prime ideals of A are minimal
Why would every prime ideal be minimal?
I might be misunderstanding since I don't know what isolated means in this context
Does it just mean the minimal primes over a specific ideal?
Yea ok
So the condition means that all associated primes to 0 are minimal, this doesn't mean all primes are minimal
Yes
Yea then your proof works. 9 and 10 together give that the intersection of S_p(0) over all associated primes (which are all minimal) is 0
Is there a nice coordinate free description of the transfer map.
I.e. for H < G a finite index subgroup if you pick representatives xi for G/H then you have g xi = xj hi and you can define G -> H/[H, H] by taking g to the product of the hi. The resulting map is independent of the choice of representatives, but is there a nice way to construct this without mention of picking representatives?
Decompose G/H into orbits under left multiplication by G. If g maps the point xH to the point yH, it also maps the set xH to the set yH. For each orbit O = {x_i1 H, ..., x_in H}, g^n maps each x_ik H to itself in the orbit space and therefore acts on it as a set. In fact it acts on it as a right H-set, so defines some element of Aut_H(x_ik H). The latter is a group that is isomorphic to H (after picking any origin in the free transitive H-set x_ik H) but not canonically - the isomorphism is only well-defined up to conjugation. So we get an element of Conj(H). Let us compute this explicitly. If g (x_ik H) = x_i_{k+1} H and we make specific choices of representatives x_ik, then g x_{i_k} = x_{i_{k+1}} h(i_k, g) for some h(i_k, g)'s in H, and g^n (x_i1 n) = x_i1 h(i_n, g) ... h(i_1, g) h. This means that using the basepoint x_i1 (i.e. the isomorphism h ⇔ x_i1 h to identify the coset with H), left mul by g = left mul by h(i_n, g) ... h(i_1, g). So g is mapped to tr(g, O) := [h(i_n, g) ... h(i_1, g)] which as a conjugacy class doesn't depend on the basepoint. If we choose to take x_ik = g^{k-1} x_i1 then we get the same tr(g, O) for any particular orbit in O. So tr(g, O) ∈ conj(H) really does only depend on g and O.
This is maybe not thaaaat representative-independent, but it shows how you could encapsulate the parts that need a choice to define: namely, prove that there is a canonical isomorphism between Conj( Aut_H(X) ) and Conj(H) for any group H and free transitive H-set X.
Anyway, once you have this, {tr(g, O) : O an orbit of g on G/H} is a well-defined multiset in Conj(H). One could keep this datum, which is maybe more refined than the transfer product. Or one can argue that the product of a multiset in H is well-defined in H/[H,H], and in fact we can then do it for elements of Conj(H) (or even of H/[H, H]).
Hmm, I think I actually have an idea at least for H abelian.
ZG is a free (right) ZH module of rank [G:H]. Then left multiplication by g is a H-linear map, so you have a homomorphism
G -> (ZH)^x
given by taking determinant (which can be defined coordinate free)
I remember seeing this funny overflow post a few years back
It's a bit annoying that the codomain is (ZH)^x and not H, but close enough I guess
I guess yeah is what jagr describes
A more "topological" flavour of what I said is that for a diagram of free transitive H-sets of shape "n-cycle", the "monodromy" of the diagram (what is the action of the loop) is independent of basepoint up to conjugacy, and the automorphism group of the fibre is H (by an isomorphism well-defined up to conjugacy).
Reminds me of how like most definitions of the sign of a permutation are somewhat unsatisfying to me (though it is possible to produce many definitions that are clearly devoid of choices)
Determinant of permutation matrix is not too bad
I think if you do this with H-sets instead of H-modules, you get Aut_H(H) = H instead of Aut_H(ZH) = ZH^⨯.
The only thing to define is "determinant".
Sure ye
Yeah, not that easy I would guess
The H/[H, H] thing also seems similar to how trace over non-commutative rings is usually taken to be valued in R/[R, R].
The fun one I saw was that you look at orientations of the complete graph on n vertices
It is just rephrasing but is cute lol
Just take determinant over F1 
Does that actually work?
Determinant over F1 is the sign of a permutation usually
GL(n, F1) = Sn, SL(n, F1) = An
I mean determinant over the group ring F1[H], rather.
As the determinant was over Z[H] before.
Well, I don't know that F1H is
Maybe the regular representation of H in F1-Vec
i blinked and then ppl started talking about 
So if F1-Vec = pointed sets, then IG it's H?
H is a pointed monoid, so it can be an F1-algebra maybe
(pointed monoid = monoid)
That's reasonable enough. But it doesn't seem to help with defining determinant
Sheaves
I guess it should be
Well ∧^k is not the way to define det over a non-commutative ring IG
IDK how to actually do that though. I only vaguely remember trace.
Maybe this multiset is the set of elementary divisors of g on the F1[H]-module G.
"PIDs have dimension 1"
what does this mean? what is the dimension of a ring
supremum of lengths of chains of prime ideals
thanks
when you define chains you start with like p_0 \subsetneq p_1 \subsetneq ... \subsetneq p_n, and you say n is the length
The reason this is called dimension is because this is equivalent to a topological notion of dimension, which is the supremum of lengths of decreasing chains of irreducible closed subsets. The dimension of R is the same as the dimension of Spec(R) since prime ideals correspond to irreducible closed subsets
is that something that comes up in like manifolds
i havent really studied manifolds yet
And this corespondence is inclusion-reversinh
This is algebraic geometry
Amusingly, with this definition ("Krull dimension") all nonempty manifolds have dimension 0 so it is very much adapted to situations more like algebraic geometry than manifolds
(I guess empty manifold has dimension -oo in some conventions lol)
The notions of dimension agree whenever you have a variety that is also a manifold though
when you look at the ring of global sections?
I'd assume so lol because hausdorff spaces aren't known to have many irreducible closed subsets
That's one way of phrasing it, but what I'm saying is take some polynomial equations in R^n (or C^n). If the variety carved out is a manifold then the dimension (with Zariski topology) equals the dimension as a manifold
But there are two different topologies at play
The notions of dimension (of the manifold) and krull dimension (of the variety) agree
Just being a little more clear (because krull dimension of the manifold doesn’t agree)
ah, yeah, that is very nice
krull dimension of the manifold is like the 10th dentist
it doesn’t exist?
how does one begin to prove this even lol
I guess something about measuring the dimension of the tangent plane at a point using derivative properties of the defining polynomials
right, I guess the dimension of a manifold is the dimension of the tangent space at some point, because you can just look at a neighborhood isomorphic to R^n
do you think the 10th dentist likes being a contrarian? or do you think they hate it but feel like it's a necessary evil
I think its the latter
i pity their poor soul then
and then they all draw straws to see which one of them will be the 10th
☹️
That's what they said about reviewer 2
I think the first 9 dentists are paid shills, and there's only one trustworthy dentist
this is 10th dentist propaganda
Ohhhh
Oh oops I read your questions as rhetorical, I'm sure that was not your intention
Nah it wasn’t rhetorical
Take R=C[x,y]/(y^2-x^3-x), i.e, the coordinate ring of an elliptic curve; then, K(R-Mod_f.g) is Z \oplus C/Z^2. my professor gave this example of the Grothendieck group in class but didn't explain it, so I was wondering if there is some geometric explanation for this?
Can you perhaps start by stating the "this" you desire an explanation for, separate from your guesses?
Yes the geometric explanation is that if C is the compactified curve (an elliptic curve) then by general theory of elliptic curves Pic^0(C) \cong C, and Pic is this \oplus Z. Then Pic(R) fits into an exact sequence Z \to Pic(C) \to Pic(R) where the incursion of Z sends 1 to the divisor of the thing we are removing, which is the degree one divisor corresponding to the identity. Finally because R is dedekind any vector bundle is a sum of line bundles by the fundamental theorem, thus K_0(R) is just the group generated by Z linear combinations of elements in Pic(R)
So I think actually it should be something like Z[C(k)] or something unless I am making a mistake
where C is the projective closure of that cubic
I am trying to figure out why (\lim \textrm{Ext}^1_{\mathbb{Z}}( \mathbb{Z}/p \overset{p}{\to} \mathbb{Z}/p^2 \overset{p}{\to} \cdots, \mathbb{Z}) = \mathbb{Z}_p)
mh_le
I was wondering if anyone has read eisenbuds commutative algebra with a view towards AG, I was told that it covers almost all the theorems that hartshrone would use.
I've managed to confuse myself, the Ext^1's are the cokernel of...?
This is false. Eisenbud is a good book but it doesn't have any sheaf cohomology, which is a big part of Hartshorne.
If F is free and
0 -> K -> F -> A -> 0
is exact then Ext^1(A, B) is the cokernel of
Hom(F, B) -> Hom(K, B)
I'm a little unsure what limit you mean, but you can show
Ext^1(Z/n, Z) = Z/n
right
Yes, I am not really seeing much geometry motivations in that text
There's actually a decent amount of geometry in Eisenbud -- he gives geometric explanations for many of the algebraic constructions -- but it is first and foremost a commutative algebra book, so it is not a replacement for an algebraic geometry text
I am trying to solve this problem and have the following (see photo) since there can't be a 0-homotopy s that is an inverse to *p in Z, id_Z is not zero in D_+, but how does that make it a morphism from Z/p in D_+?
ah because it's a morphism from its prjective resolution
I think the point was “statements hartshorne will use that are not explained in Hartshorne” e.g. that eisenvud supplies the commutative alg input you need to start Hartshorne
Ah yeah, in that case I agree that it has the required commutative algebra for Hartshorne. It also has some derived functor stuff that Hartshorne assumes.
I don't know if I would suggest it as a first course in commutative algebra, though, bc it's very long. You don't have to know everything in Eisenbud to get started in Hartshorne.
So you've found a morphism from [Z -p-> Z] to Z[1], so if you can also find a morphism Z/p to [Z -p-> Z] you would be done.
Now remember the definition of morphism in the derived category.
If P is the projective resolution, then there is a homotopy equivalence P -> Z/p
It's a quasi isomorphism, not a hmtpy equivalence, but yes.
And then what are morphisms in the derived category?
they are morphisms between chain complexes of projective objects modulo homotopy
Well, if that's the definition you're using then Z/p isn't even an object in the derived category.
The category you're describing is equivalent, but the usual definition is that you take the category of chain complexes and invert quasi-isomorphisms.
Ok
so it induces an quasi iso, P -> Z/p
and since we have P -> Z[1] is non-zero, then there is a morphism Z/p ~ P -> Z[1]
is this correct?
@lone jacinth thank you 😊 🙏
To be fair you usually do this in practice by passing through the homotopy category
It is a shame that "homotopy category" is ambiguous lol
yeahhh
What is "this" in your sentence here?
I just meant you define the derived category in 2 steps, but I now reread and saw they were talking about the category of projective chain complexes mod homotopy
Insert comment about (truly) unbounded complexes
Like acyclic complexes the are not contractable, or what kind of comment we inserting here?
I mean like using projective complexes is only really enough to get bounded above/below (depending on convention) derived cat
I think you in general have an essentially surjective adjunction
K(Proj A) -> D(Mod A)
But yeah, not faithful
Hm I do not know why it should be essentially surjective but I mean in any case LHS is wrong thing for unbounded case innit
Let
i: K(Proj A) -> D(Mod A) :p
be the adjoint functors.
Then for X in D(Mod A)
ipX -> X
we want to show the couinit is a quasi-iso.
You have
Hom(iA[-n], ipX) = H^n(ipX) = H^n(pX) = Hom(A[-n], pX) = Hom(iA[-n], X) = H^n(X)
:p
(Tbh idk what this adjunction is)
I must admit I never work with K(Proj) and things lol
It's a magical thing that exists because of Brown representability
I forget lol I am sure K(Proj A) has another nice description hm
K(Proj A) comes up when the scheme is not smooth at A because it isn't D(Mod A)
Lol wdym
i.e. the categorical quotient D^b(mod O_X,x)/K^b(proj O_X,x) is nonzero iff x is singular
Sure but I mean that doesn't sound like a reason it comes up
Ok I guess you mean it detects it
Presumably this is related to IndCoh?
I'm looking at some old notes now and it says if you take the localizing subcategory of K(Proj A) generated by A, then the resulting subcategory is equivalent to D(A) (through the usual localization map)
I guess homotopy theorist usually use D^perf in place of K^b(proj) here
tru
Ah lol that makes sense
Well D^perf is more intrinsic I would say
But also with Db is this DbCoh
yez
And then it is this lol
As in Perf vs Coh (or QCoh vs IndCoh)
Ok that was bad of me, add D if u wish
I would just say Perf tbh lol
Well whatever the notation, you would think of it as compact objects in the derived category. Instead of complexes of projectives
Yes
Or equivalently for rings like it is generated by A under retracts and fiber sequences / triangles and so on
thick(A)
Yes
Hey is anyone here familiar with with this result by Chevalley? I'm trying to find a precise reference to inspect (ultimately, I'm trying to find a graded analogue to his result).
Let R be a 2-dimensional Noetherian domain and let P be a height 2 prime of R. Then by a result of Chevalley, there exists a discrete (rank 1) valuation ring V containing R with maximal ideal M, such that M \cap R = P.
It's theorem 3.11 here
https://homepages.math.uic.edu/~marker/math512-f18/valued_fields_3.pdf
Oops this only gives you that it's a valuation ring
So I guess you need to use the hypothesis's to show Northerianness
Noetherianity?????
is it not possible to just use "Noetherian" without any suffixes
This is about when you want to say "by noetherianity/noetherianness". Sure you can avoid this by saying "By the ring being noetherian" or w/e but that means you are not the poll's demographic
its grammatically unpleasant
I've only heard noetherianity until very recently
Notherianity is what I would use, but I would also try to avoid it because it feels clunky lol
noetherianity sounds cooler
I always just say "being noetherian"
yesetherian
"Smol"
"nice"
"Which adjective do you use?" (Asks to select between two nouns).
Thanks
I'm used to being asked this
@Moderators automod circumvention.
I love using “By virtue of A being Noetherian”
@ornate atlas there’s a moderation problem, see Troposphere’s comment
Yes
Oops
"Noether would tell us that ________"
Can't believe I confused adjectives and nouns. That's almost as embarrassing as the time I misunderstood the temporal scope of the paronomastic infinitive
thanks for the help 🙂
Is there a nice way to compute H^i(G,F_p(j)) for i=2?
Where G = Z/pZ \rtimes (Z/pZ)^{\times} and F_p(j) is the 1-dim F_p space on which G acts by jth power of the primitive character?
Using Hochschild-Serre, it boils down to H^2(Z/pZ, F_p(j))^{(Z/pZ)^{\times}} and I can do that explicitly but its very ad hoc and annoying
Quick question, is the following fact is true? I'm not sure if it is a typo or just something that is completely left out and not proven yet. R is any arbitrary ring btw. (It only talk about the case for it is the tensor functor of R-module with R being naturally isomorphic to the identity functor, not when we treat it as tensor product over Z-module)
It's supposed to be tensoring over R yes.
Same goes for the top sentence.
Hom_R( -, Hom_Z(R, D)) is isomorphic to Hom_Z( - (x)_R R, D)
The equation is true, but not relevant to anything written above or below
But it’s not true that tensoring with R over Z is identity on R-modules
Concretely like, if R is Z[x] then tensoring with R is the countable infinite direct sum functor
For example
got it, thought i was going crazy.
what is an example of two complexes that have the same homology groups but are not quasi-isomorphic?
Does "tensoring over Z" even produce a well-defined R-module? There seems to be two different ways to define a scalar multiplication for the result.
Yes
Yes to which of my sentences?
Consider the ring R = k[x]/(x^2) and the two complexes
R -x-> R
and
R/x -0-> R/x
I don't understand that description, sorry.
You consider R as a Z-module in the natural way
For any algebra B over a ring A, the functor - (x)_A B gives a natural structure of B module, this is base extension
This is the process applied here
what does (x^2) mean here?
I'm missing a /
ah
What I mean is, if we have $R \otimes_{\bZ} R$, then how do we define $r\cdot(s\otimes t)$? Unless I'm missing something, $rs\otimes t$ and $s\otimes rt$ are different elements of $R\otimes_{\bZ} R$ in general, so they can't both be the value of $r\cdot(s\otimes t)$.
Troposphere
do you mean 0 -> R -*x-> R -> 0 ?
thank you!
Perhaps what I should be asking is, what is the source category of that functor?
A-modules
But fun fact: over Z (or any hereditary ring) then two things are quasi-isomorphic iff they have the same homology.
(At least if quasi isomorphic means isomorphic in the derived category and not the existence of a quasi-iso between them)
Okay, that makes sense then.
But then "tensoring with R over Z is identity on R-modules" is not merely false but a type error, right? It can't even aspire to be the identity on R-Mod when it is actually a functor Z-mod -> R-mod.
Ugh
You are first applying restriction of scalars
There’s a fixed map from Z to R that lets you first consider R-modules as Z-modules
I think it would be reasonable to say a functor Z-mod -> R-mod is the identity on R-mod if it did restrict to the identity there.
But either way it's not what the author meant
Since that restriction corresponds to precomposing with a forgetful functor which is not faithful, the result still has no hope of being (isomorphic to) the identity.
It is faithful though
Yeah, the argument I had in mind doesn't quite seem to hold together when I think it through.
It's not (typically) essentially injective. So that would cause a problem
Say R is a Noetherian ring and I is an ideal. How “far” can I be from being cohen macaulay. AKA is there a standard example of an ideal with the “maximal” difference between its height and its grade?
This might have a very simple answer but I just realized I don’t know it
I have a feeling the answer is “arbitrarily far”, but I have trouble constructing ideals of certain heights without just using regular sequences
I guess take
R = k[[x, y1, ..., yn]]/(x^2, xyi)
and I the maximal ideal.
Then (x) = R/I, so I has grade 0.
Does U_lambda have a name?
What adjective do you use to refer to the noetherian property
12
26
1
Noetherianity
Noetheritude.
this result is ridiculous someone must have botted the vote
Common sense wins again ❤️
no.
Because it’s maths and maths is hard, tis the struggle
but no joke
algebra is the hardest among analysis, algebra, geometry
smh
the mathematician's favorite state of mind is confusion
depends who you ask
algebra is far easier for me than analysis
and geometry, depends on the geometry
but you probably will get a biased answer on mathcord, its very algebra pilled
analysis people are the ones with jobs
I guess in algebra I am introduced more to foreign ideas
Geometry is algebra 🙃
geometry = arbegla
and analysis usually builds up and ties well with geometric picture and previous concepts
that is my impression at least
and when I am handed with foreign stuff I get lost easily at first
No, algebra = geometry
We’re actual geometers here, not algebraic geometers
geometry is when locally representable sheaves on sites
Geometry is when isometry or homeomorphism groups
Do you know about seperable degree and the relation with homomorphisms?
In terms of
the number ways you can embed E into algebraic closure of k is separable degree of E over k
is \emph{the} definition we have
And then an extension is seperable iff the degree equals the seperable degree
For finite ones?
Yes
Yup
$[E(\alpha):k]_s = [E(\alpha):E]_s[E:k]_s = [E(\alpha):E][E:k] = [E(\alpha):k]$
Kintiru
I see
And then in general something is seperable if all the finite sub extension are
Ah unfortunately I never saw that result
element in a field is separable if its minimal polynomial is separable (factors into distinct linear polynomials in its splitting field)
a field extension is separable if every element in the field is separable
Right so then E/k is seperable if k(alpha)/k is seperable for all alpha in E
That's what that's saying
Ah
I was somewhat trying to relate minimal polynomial of \alpha over k and E, but it didnt work well
sadge
I find this separable degree stuff so fascinating
Like I’ve worked through the proofs, but I think it’s magical these things are true
i haven't really heard of this
but i've seen "number of embeddings into C" described for some number fields as being identical to degree
i guess that's by char 0 fields being perfect
Yes
This is a very vauge question, but is there some standard notation of what is meant by (kG-mod)_\sigma where \sigma is a family of subgroups of G closed under subgroups and conjugation? I think k could be any field and G any (finite) group, but lets say im interested in the modular case.
This is based off of a conversation I had, so I cant really give much more in the way of helpful context, but its in the real of like modular rep theory and model categories, but im a bit confused about what this category should actually be. It could just be adhoc notation that ive forgotten the meaning of, so this could be somewhat meaningless, but yeah
Like obviously this is just some subcategory of kG-mod, but I dont know if theres some standard way that its restrcited. Possibly just to modules which are Ind^G_H(M) for some H, but that feels like itd be very small, I get the feeling its something a bit larger than that (but this is probably impossible to answer without knowing more if this isnt a standard construction/notation lol)
Things that are direct summands of Ind^G_H stuff would be reasonable.
That's not really that small either necessarily
It would only be interesting in the modular case though
Hmm yeah it could be that, ill play around with it and see if it seems to match up with what im thinking about. Only interesting in the modular case is fine though, its what im interested in (and I guess expected)
This is cocomplete right (if so I think its what I want)? This might be nonsense, but as a quick sanity check
Suppose that all the $M_i$ are direct summands of some $\mathrm{Ind^G_H}$, then $\bigoplus_{i\in I} M_i = \bigoplus_{i\in I} \mathrm{Ind}^G_H(M_{i_j})\bigoplus_{i\in I} N_{i_j} = \mathrm{Ind}^G_H(\oplus_{i\in I}M_{i_j})\bigoplus_{i\in I} N_{i_j} $ since $\mathrm{Ind}^G_H$ is left adjoint to restriction. Then since kG-mod is cocomplete, so is $(kG\mathrm{-mod})_\Sigma)$
Nope
Notation smh
But also i mean I think like this is not cocomplete unless you already close under direct sums cause can't H vary
Hmmm yes
like considering things like $\bigoplus_{i} \mathrm{Ind}^G_{H_i}(V_i)$
Prismatic Potato
No you make a good point
omitting some direct sums makes me sad
reminds me of hatcher lol
but it's okay if you choose that lifestyle
wdym lol
Well like
But also this makes me sad because im now at a loss again, rather unsure what this category should be
looks like you're writing $\bigoplus_i A_i \bigoplus_j B_j$ instead of some variant of $\bigoplus_i A_i \oplus \bigoplus_j B_j$
but it's ok
Prismatic Potato
i am not sure but this looks familiar lol
Ah, yeah lol
hmm
This is somewhat hopeful, I had hoped one of you wew or jagr wouldve come across this before. Its something my advisor was talking about, and I need to put a model structure on it, but ive either entirely forgotten what the actual notation meant (or never really knew)
One guess would be like the stabiliser has to be in the set of things or smth idk
cause i have seen smth similar for variants of BG and things
I do remeber we spoke about fixed points a bit, so something like that could be involved. I may honestly just need to rock up on friday like "ive not done anything because I forgot what we spoke about and couldnt work it out again (sorry please dont kill me)"
But yeah Ive tried to find a refernce for this for the last few hours with no luck, and I cant seem to come up with a reasonable seeming definition myself
I wonder maybe if I just actually want to work with kG modules and deal with the family of subsets condition elsewhere, like weak equivalences are given by H_* isos but like WRT fixed points or something
Back to the thinking mines I guess (but if anyone has seen this before please do let me know!)
i'm just confused so like were you just shown this notation by someone in person?
hm
it seems like what Jagr said is reasonable, just maybe you wanna close under some operations
Yeah, but im a dumb dumb and have either entirely forgotten what it meant or just never understood in the first place (this was a couple weeks ago, im just only getting around to looking at it now). I took a note that ive to work out what the model structure is on this and that its probably cofibrantly generated and very similar to the usual one on ChR, but nothing else, we then just waffled about different but related stuff for the rest of the time
sure hm
whats a good place to read on bi/hopf algebras and their representation theory?
Just email now and ask what it meant
i like montgomery for hopf algebras in general
thank you so much!
idk if this is the best place to ask this, but i want to find a structured way of decomposing RU(C_p)into indecomposable components (after p-completion and maybe inverting p) so that adam’s operations behave nicely (i want them to be stable under most of the summands), i.e. RU(C_p) = Q_p[C_p] = Q_p[g]/(g^p-1), but i will just write Z for now and “neglect” the problems with p-completion and inverting. i have a few examples for p = 2 and 3, namely the way it works there is finding a set of idempotents and try to work with that, there’s a general formula that gives you this for e.g. C, but i don’t necessarily have sufficiently many roots of unity, for p = 2, we do have nice idempotents 1+g/2 and 1-g/2, so (up to working 2-locally) have Z[C_2] = Z[1+g] and Z[1-g], same thing can be done for p = 3, but this is a bit more complicated, the only non-trivial i can think of is the one corresponding to the regular representation e=1+g+g^2 and thus 1-e must also be one and playing around a little and doing some check, we get a decomposition Z[C_3] = Z[1] + Z[1+g+g^2] + Z[g-g^2]. is there a way to generalize this somehow or has this been done in some paper? (note here: that the adam’s operations on RU(C_2) are trivial and on RU(C_3), they are stable under the first two summands, but not the third)
is it true that hdim(R) = sup{pdim(M) | cyclic R-modules M} for any ring R? wikipedia says its true for any ring R, but i thought it's only true for noetherian rings. here hdim is global dimension of the ring
It's true yes
To see why:
First if the supremum is infinite you're done. So say pdim(R/I) <= n for all. Then we want to prove that Ext^n+1 vanishes.
Ext^n+1(-, M) = Ext^1(-, Sigma^n M) where Sigma is cosyzygy. So if we can show that Q := Sigma^n M is injective we're done.
As Ext(R/I, Q) = 0 we have that Hom(-, Q) is exact on the sequence
0 -> I -> R -> R/I -> 0.
This is known to characterize injective modules. Exercise if you haven't seen it before
ic
is there any relation between global dimension of a ring R and a subring S of R
if R is finite projective as an S-module we should have gldim(S) \leq gldim(R)
further I'm fairly certain that this works for left global dimension if R is flat as a right S-module and projective as a left S-module
ok yes (edit: see below)
proof left as an exercise uwu
Restricting to commutative Noetherian rings you have that the finitistic dimension equals the krull dimension.
So if for example R/S is an integral extension and S has finite global dimension, then the global dimension of R is either equal to that of S or infinite.
Hmmm,
So it's not too hard to see
||pd_S R(x)M <= pd_R R(x)M <= pd_S M||
So one would think the clue is in showing
||pd_S R(x)M = pd_S M||
I was wrong 
consider R = M_2(k) and S the ring of upper triangular 2x2 matrices over k
I see.
Yeah here R is fg projective on both sides
if we add in something like S is a direct summand of R as a left S-module it should work since then it's not hard to see that pd_S(M) <= pd_S R(x)M
Yeah, but that's kindof a big ask
is there a reference for different methods (or ways to simplify) of computing global dimension (or an overview of the common methods}? are there any sort of bounds? for ex, all I know right now are essentially, based on various properties of R, reduce to computing sup{pdim(M)} for some class of modules M (i.e, cyclic or if R is artinian, irreducible}. also, hdim(R)=0 iff R is semisimple, and hdim(R)=1 iff R is hereditary but not semisimple. also, the other definition of hdim(R) = {max d for which there exists M,N s.t Ext^d (M,N) is nonzero} seems kind of unusable, since ultimately you still need to enumerate projective resolutions right. in particular, without any assumption of R being artinian/noetherian
I used the Ext characterization in the proof that it's enough to consider cyclic modules, so I wouldn't call that unusable.
Ext has many nice properties that often makes it easier to compute then directly dealing with projective resolutions
yea i've seen that M is injective iff Ext^1 (I, M) for every ideal I of R (baer's criterion i think?), but i haven't learned about (co)syzgies yet so i will have to look into that
The module category of a cocommutative bialgebra is symmetric monoidal right? because you can give it the identity as universal R-matrix
It's Ext(R/I, M), which corresponds to the lifting property with respect to the inclusion I -> R.
Anyway, a cosyzygy Sigma M is just the cokernel of
M -> E
an embedding into an injective module.
You can see immediately from the long exact sequence that
Ext^n+1(X, M) = Ext^n(X, Sigma M)
Should be yeah.
You just make M (x) N into a module through comultiplication. Then cocomutativity ensures it's symmetric
alright yeah,
so cocommutative bialgebras are boring
imagine not having a nontrivial braiding
All in the eye of the beholder
well I can imagine they're less useful for knot invariants lol
There's a nice little table here
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/triangular+Hopf+algebra
ah yeah tannaka duality, which definitely isn't just enriched yoneda
If you want braided monoidal you should reach for the quasitriangulated bi algebras
yisss
Lol
I remember like
I think some original things in this theory are just Barr–Beck and Yoneda
representations of these get you braid invariants, though knot invariants need a little extra conditions
because the closure of two different braids may yield the same knot
what's Barr-Beck? I think I've heard of it
I would have done my master on this Young-Baxter hopf algebra stuff if it wasn't for covid
well I've definitely seen the two names
I think maybe it's a good thing I didn't 🤷♀️
oh, lol
There are many variants but provides conditions for a functor to be monadic
Very useful
I'm thinking of doing my bachelor's on this, or something related
maybe how it relates to like racks and quandles (I've been told there is some very deep stuff there)
One of my favourite theorems ig lol
ohh that one
Often just called Beck's theorem too lol
poor Barr
Though.there is also Barr–Beck–Lurie
how so?
I am sure someone calls it Beck–Lurie
It just feels a little meh
And then my life would be different, and I kinda like my life
to you maybe 😔
I for one am having a blast
Lurie-Beck?
that is valid
Idk ig alphabetically should be Beck–Lurie
Well, I don't know if I would be doing what you're doing exactly
And chronologically lol
I guess I'm going very much into the knot invariant side of things
so I'll be reading up on vassiliev stuff too
the book I'm reading has a chapter about monodromy too which is cool
Another thing is that the alexander polynomial was initially defined super topologically and I'd be interested in seeing how that specifically connects to the super algebraic/combinatorial ideas of quantum and vassiliev invariants
right right
why do we insist on calling theorems after the person who "found" them
lol
i thought we insisted on naming them after the 2nd European who found them
hence "found" in quotations
yeah lol
so if I do this strategically I should just wait for someone to discover something and then immediately write a paper clarifying some minor things
I don't think there's all that much expectation in practice that the person whose name is attached to a result was the first one to prove it. That's somewhat often the case, but there are enough prominent and well-known exceptions that nobody ought to take such naming in itself to be a claim of priority.
let's take the triangular matrix ring R = (Z Q | 0 Q) and a left ideal I = (0 B | 0 0) of R, where B is any additive subgroup of Q. i want to show that pdim I <= 1. any ideas? i was trying to construct a Z-resolution for B and lifting it to a R-resolution but idk if that works
also does anyone have references on this "lifting" of resolutions from one ring to another?
Wait WTH
I thought you were older
im stuck on proving [A:K]_r = [A:K]_l here
So I is isomorphic to just [B, 0]^T. So for a Z-resolution
F1 -> F0
you can just do
[F1, 0]^T -> [F0, 0]^T
I guess if you need some kind of pattern here I is just B tensor the projective module [Z, 0]^T
How old do I appear?
Here's a hint: start with a basis for Z(D) over Z(D)nK and work from there
i'm having trouble showing that for F: = Z(D)nK, the F-basis of Z(D) is K-linearly independent (I showed it's K-spanning)
oh does this work || suppose {z_i} is an F-basis for Z(D), and suppose sum k_i z_i = 0 for k_i in K. then multiply on the right by arbitrary z in Z(D): this gives sum k_i (z z_i) = 0. but since {z_i} in an F-basis for Z(D), the map Z(D) -> Z(D) that sends x -> x z_i is like an invertible F-linear map, and then you can isolate each of the k_i to get they all have to be 0||
You don't need to show it's K-linearly independent
hm i was trying to show that the F-basis of Z(D) gives a K-basis of A
Any spanning set contains a basis
oops so true lol
Also you probably shouldn't expect it to be K-linearly independent in general.
Like if you had something like
Z(D) = Q(a real cuberoot 2) and K = Q(a complex cuberoots of 2), then Z(D) is 3d over the intersection, but Z(D)K is 2d over K
wait sorry im confused acc, why does this show the left and right K-basis of A have to coincide
Well you found something that is both a left and right basis
Enpeace Cohomology
yes
Let k be a commutative ring and R be a k-algebra. As an exercise, I wanted to show that the bar resolution of $R$ as a left $R^e$-module is free. $R^e=R \otimes_k R^{op}$ denotes the enveloping algebra
Former Rank 7 LLORT AJNIN
but im fairly confident now that the bar resolution isn't free
im not even sure if the resolution is even projective, does anyone know?
It is important that R be free as a k-module.
For example if k=Z/4 and R = k[x]/(x^2, 2x), then
Just as abelian groups
R^e is Z/4 (+) (Z/2)^3, but R(x)R(x)R is Z/4 (+) (Z/2)^7, so cannot be a free R^e module.
And it's not projective either
If R is free you get a free resolution, and if R is projective you get a projective resolution
I think your R there takes the crown for my least favourite ring I've ever seen
Smallest ring that isn't principal ideal ring
Anyway, the bar resolution is most useful for k a field, because then every R module is free over k and you can use it to construct free resolutions.
why do we need k to be algebraically closed here? like don't we just have [Pj] = sum over i of C_{i,j} [Li], and then dim_k Hom(Pi, Pj) = <[Pi], [Pj]> = sum over k of C{k,j} <[P_i], [Lk]> = C{i,j}
this thing below is also stated for any R that's artinian and of finite homological dimension, and i don't see the problem with it. the only thing that the proof uses for this is that every term in the projective resolution of each irreducible L_i is finite length and hence can be written as a direct sum of the indecomposable projectives P_j. but then that would suggest the cartan matrix C in GL_n (Z) is always invertible, i.e det(C) = \pminus 1 always, but that's not always true
Oops I assumed k was a field
Even though it says commutative ring
i realized here that we should instead have dim_k Hom(P_i, P_j) = C{i,j} dim_k (End(L_i)) oops. when k is algebraically closed, End(L_i) = k so thats when we get the equality
ok this is also fine lol, the cartan should always be invertible for hdim finite and artinian R, i was getting confused
Is there a simple combinatorial formula for the order of a fundamental weight of a crystallographic root system modulo the root lattice?
IIRC if you take the fundamental chamber of the affine root system, its vertices are 0, li/ni, where the ni's are the coefficients of the simple roots in the highest root. Moreover, the vertices in the weight lattice, i.e., 0 and the fundamental weights corresponding to the simple roots appearing with coefficient 1 in the highest root, form a complete system of representatives for the weight lattice modulo the root lattice.
Consider for example k = the real numbers and R = the complex numbers.
Then for R = P1 = L1 you have C11 = 1, but dim End(P1) = 2.
If you don't have finite global dimension the sum wouldn't be finite.
Can someone explain how I have the matrices formula for the differential (pic on right side) from the pic on the left side?
write $\partial^Q_n = \begin{pmatrix} a & b \ c & d \end{pmatrix}$
Irony
then by the commutativity we have that $\begin{pmatrix} a & b \ c & d \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} p \ 0 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} p' \ 0 \end{pmatrix}$
Irony
Irony
restricting to the other summand gives you $d = \partial_n^R$
Irony
and $\mu_n$ is some homomorphism
Irony
I get that for (p, 0), what about (0, r)? Does that suppose to give (0, r')?
Mu is just some random homomorphism? Do we need to know anything about mu, or we dont need to at all?
now you go in the other direction
you project to the second coordinate instead of embedding it
i.e. you have a commutative diagram like this
I mean it's the homomorphism such that $\partial^Q_n (0,r) = (\mu_n(r), \partial^R_n(r))$
Irony
but it's not super important what this is concretenly
Ahh made sense
Okay thank you a lot.
If u have a valuation on a division ring and define a new valuation by shifting by some constant, the valuation rings are isomorphic right
What do you mean by "shifting" here?
v'(x) = v(x) + c for some fixed c in Z (disc val in my case)
im 99% sure it's true
But that won't be a valuation anymore
I have a (noncomm) algebra $A$ which is a right Ore domain of GKdim 2, and a disc val on the right ring of quotients $Q(A)$. The context for the above is that I want A to sit inside $\mathcal{O}_\nu$, I think I can pass to $S^{-1}A$ where $S={a\in A:\nu(a)\leq 0}$ to do this -- when does this preserve GKdim
Sara
A is fg also
Any good resources on Finite Gorenstein Algebras?
Wassup
someone sent some spam about crypto or something should I delete my message?
It was deleted
Dw but thanks for pinging. Just usually mod pings get thumbs up by the mod who deals with stuff but this wasn't so I thought I'd follow up lol
turns out almost never, cor. 6.5 here shows every non-PI complex domain of GK2 has localizations of infinite GK dimension
neat
are lie rings/modules a thing
they probably are but havent yet bothered with those
maybe modules over a lie algebra idk
lie algebras are skew symmetric right which mean the transpose of the lin operator A is the same as -A i think
using the bracket operation, where [X,Y] = -[Y,X] or something
Yep, nothing in the definition of a Lie algebra breaks if you replace the ground field with a commutative ring. So in particular picking Z gives you a Lie ring. These come up pretty naturally in group theory, as there's a way to associate a Lie ring to any strongly central series, particularly the lower central series. There's also the Malcev and Lazard correspondences which are pretty useful if you want to study (locally) nilpotent groups
Yeah, but it's better to define the Lie bracket as being alternating (i.e., [X, X] = 0) since this implies skew-symmetry when the ground ring doesn't have characteristic 2
There are a few definitions, but one is that G has a central series of finite length
seems familiar
are the composition series and central series different
never done anything with central series yet
Yeah, but you're right that they're similar in concept (both types of subnormal series)
when the ground ring has characteristic 2
does that mean [x,x] = -[x,x]?
by anti symmetry
Yeah
i still dont follow what central series is
lower central series mean like descending central series with subalgebras instead of normal subgroups
not entirely sure
arent abelian groups an example of being nilpotent
which is determined by whether its central series length is finite or not
Yeah
Yeah, those are the groups of nilpotency class 1
Can I ask what is the canonical map of A -> cone(id_A)? I was thinking it might be the inclusion map from An to A(n-1) (+) An or to An (+) A(n+1) but i got stuck tbh. Wondering if someone could help me out.
That's what it is yeah
The inclusion of An -> A(n-1) (+) An?
Ahh okay
Ill get back to you if im still stuck
whatbook is this
Actually
I found the notes but this might dox @lyric rapids since these seem to be from an ongoing course
Why does the definition of the Pontryagin dual of a locally compact abelian group G consider only homomorphisms from G into the circle group, and not the entire multiplicative group of C? If we allow for these extra homomorphisms we get a different notion (e.g. if my example works, in the case of G=Z) that gives a perfectly good abelian group.
Is there a name for this object?
Some good answers here
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/294019/why-the-circle-for-pontryagin-duality
One reason not to take C^x is that taking a non-compact group you get that the resulting dual won't send LCA groups to LC Groups
Which is already not great
I think I'm making some stupid mistake here. Do I not get a homomorphism between Z and C by sending k to 2^k?
You get a cts hom Z -> C* for each element a of C* by sending k to a^k
I found some slides which say that for an abelian group G, any homomorphism from G to C maps into S1
Are you sure that G is not assumed compact or even finite
For any finite abelian group that holds
But a^k need not lie in S1? Have I misremembered the definition of C*? I thought that was C\{0}, the group of units of C under multiplication
Sorry to put this in this channel, I wasnt sure where else it would go...
Yes
There is no problem with what you said
Except this
Ah okay yes I figured it was probably something I was reading wrong there
Well okay I think your message is correct in that I do believe you found such slides
Your suggestion also wouldn't be a duality.
You can of course define Hom(A, B) for any abelian groups A and B, but there's nothing special about C^* in that regard.
I think initially people often define it as C* for finite abelian groups which adds to the confusion potentially lol
Yes, I saw that somewhere else and my confusion was added to, lol
Bear in mind for finite abelian groups you could even work with the set of roots of unity in C (can be written as Q/Z) so you will see that too lol
Yeah this comment came to mind lol
It's okay in the UK as long as you draw a cigarette next to it
It’s okay if ur writing it in French
Well you can't have any homomorphism from a finite abelian group to S1 that doesn't lie in Q/Z can you?
FinAbGrp
If only…
That's what I mean
For finite ab groups it doesn't matter if u pick S^1 or C* or Q/Z
I pick R* just to be cool
Ig more generally discrete torsion groups lol
U r cool
😎
I use Z* to be cool
Sheaves
Well thanks all, this was very helpful
You’re welcome
My comments were very helpful here
I will take the majority of the credit and thanks

I will take care when writing down the names of categories of groups of any sort
👍
It actually pisses me the F off that the obvious abbreviation for spectral sequence is SS
But like… bro
At least you can write GSS
What does the G stand for?
I haven’t read it but I imagine Tohoku isn’t that hard to make sense of
Oh no it is just some random textbook i picked up to learn homological algebra on my own lol. The material in my own course was lowk quite lacking.
They don't even teach left, right derived functor 💔
Oh ok. The reason I said this is because the notes I found (which seemed to contain this exact section verbatim) were last updated 3 days ago
Oh wow that's awful
That's like
One of the major points of homalg
They only taught like Tor, Ext functor. Which is like whatever i guess but no where there is more general treatment of just left, right derived functor in general.
does the the projective cover of a simple module over an Artinian ring have to be finitely generated
tbf that does require a lot more machinery
Which is would need for algebraic geometry.
Well yeah, i suppose. Which is why I got the textbook to begin with. Very nice for someone like me that is tryna self study
It give proof of theorem, (unlike my uni material) and example of stuff. And a good enough amount of calculations so I could do it on my own and check thing through.
Whats a slope
Does it?
I guess if you dont know any cat theory and just know what like modules are
that is usually what the prereqs to hom alg at unis are
Fair, feels odd not to just introduce abelian categories but maybe this is just me having learned it from Weibel
Tbh abelian categories feel like overkill for most times I care about homalg
Yes.
The ring itself is a projective mapping onto it, so the projective cover will be a direct summand of it.
oh i see
i somehow ended up with the fact that P must be cyclic, but this doesn't seem like it should be true? take our projective cover pi: P ->> L, then take x in P such that pi(x) is nonzero, hence pi(x) generates L i.e R pi(x) = L, so pi(Rx) = L, where Rx is a submodule of P. Since this is an essential surjection we need Rx = P
So the indecomposable projectives are exactly Ae for primitive idempotents e and they are the projective covers of the simples
Ae/Je
(J Jacobson radical)
Yes, that's correct
oh wow interesting
So this isn't really limited to artinian rings either, except that you don't usually have projective covers in general
if Q is injective, why does any surjection Q ->> L have to split? i thought we only knew that every SES 0 -> Q -> A -> B -> 0 splits when Q is injective
How do you remember semidirect products
I always forget which by which
Extension of H by N or Extension of N by H
💀
Every surjection splitting is equivalent to Q being semisimple.
Injectives are usually not semisimple, but they can be...
ah ic
Are you just asking whether it is called H by N or N by H?
It's not particularly important.
You usually think of it as N being a normal subgroup and H a quotient group. So it would make sense to say N is extended by H.
But the notation Ext(H, N) has lead many to say H extended by N instead. So doesn't matter to much as long as you're consistent / clear
let's say I have an SES 0 -> K -> P -> L -> 0, where P is injective and projective. then does this have to split (?)
No
This would again only be the case (for all such sequences) if P was semisimple
Consider for example
R = P = Z/4
oh right. i was basically trying to prove that R being Artinian self-injective with finite hdim must be semisimple, i.e hdim(R) = 0. equivalently, pdim(L) = 0 for every simple R-module L. we have here that every f.g projective must be injective. so then I took a projective cover pi: P ->> L, i.e an SES 0 -> K -> P ->> L -> 0, and we know P must be f.g projective, hence injective. so then I was somehow trying to establish that L must be projective
Start by assuming L has a finite projective resolution. How does that resolution end?
with a surjection P0 ->> L
That's how it starts
And what do you know about such injections from your assumption?
I.e. what do you know about Pn?
Yes, Pn is injective so it splits
So then what must the minimal resolution of L be?
oh ok so now we ended up with a shorter proj resolution
0 -> N -> P{n-2} ... -> P0 -> M -> 0
but that contradicts the fact that we took a minimal proj resolution so we're done
so L has to be projective
Yeah, so the general fact being proven here is that any module is either projective or has infinite projective dimension (for self injective artinian ring)
makes sense tyty
It is just because I have to memorize for test
My professor just uses H by N or whatever is correct (he has been doing this in homework) and I dont wanna be confused mid test
Well, then you'll just have to stick with whatever convention your professor uses
Oh does different literatues/professors use different convention?
I thought H by N is the convention
.
Both are in use.
N by H is the one that makes the most sense / historically the first.
But H by N is also in use, presumably because it matches the order in Ext(H, N)
So if you want a rule of thumb, I guess just think about what would make sense and then do the opposite.
I see
I guess I will just have to write it down ten thousand times and make sure I get it right or something
engrave in my brain
I think your time is probably better spent and understanding the concept so that you wouldn't be confused if you encounter the terminology swapped. But idk what kind of problems you'll be meeting.
When we have external semidirect product
I am pretty sure you can have both N -> Aut(H) or H -> Aut(N)
or maybe I have misconception
Yeah, so I guess if all you're given is something like
"Describe all semidirect products of H1 by H2 for two given groups"
Then there's no way to tell which is which.
So if you expect to be given exercise with absolutely no context then I guess you just have to memorize what is being asked of you.
But for example if you're asked
"Describe all semidirect products of H by N where H=.. and N =..."
Then it would be reasonable to assume N was the normal group (since normal starts with the letter N)
a normal subgroup will be invariant to conjugation so you ought to have Aut(N)
Well yea if you are given with a larger group
but as above, something like compute all semidirect products of S_n by S_m would be troublesome, since you dont have a larger group to realize which one should be normal
It's okay I just realized the convention is just we write s.e.s. and it is the opposite of the order of its appearance in s.e.s
0 -> N -> G -> H -> 0
and reverse the order : H by N
What’s the difference between “Advanced Algebra” and “Groups, Rings, and Fields”?
Advanced algebra is for stuff like homological algebra, noncomm algebra, commutative algebra, Lie algebras
Groups rings and fields is more like undergrad level or beginning graduate level algebra stuff
Do algebras with uncountably many elements need infinite generators/n ary operations/operations?
What
Is this a universal algebra question
Because an algebra has a fixed number of operations if you are using it in the usual way it is in like, ring theory
And the answer is no, as long as the base ring is uncountable, and necessarily yes if it’s countable
what channel
yea it comes down to the countability of the language, if you are referring to algebras in general, and not R-algebras
Universal algebra
what chair monkey said applies to the general case tho
nooo this server could have been peak
Base ring?
i think they might have interpreted you as talking about R-algebras
admittedly. an R-algebra is an algebra
and R is sorta the language in a sense
so it ends up being the same answer
There was never a universal algebra channel
there is no secret test factoid in ba sing se

Given the rotation group $SO(3)$ and its irreducible representations (irreps) $\mathbf{V}^{(l)}$, what are the most computationally tractable methods for computing the Clebsch–Gordan decomposition of the tensor product $\mathbf{V}^{(l_1)} \otimes \mathbf{V}^{(l_2)}$? Specifically, I am looking for algorithms that avoid the $O(l^3)$ complexity of traditional summation and focus on maintaining the structural integrity of the resulting direct sum $\bigoplus_{L} V^{(L)}$
Canvas123

Is a cocomplete abelian category with a finitely generated (i.e., compact) projective generator P equivalent to End(P)^op-Mod or do you have to assume something else?
those are the only conditions for the mitchell embedding theorem so you're good to go
if memory serves correctly you don't even explicitly need cocompleteness, just all small coproducts
Same thing since we have cokernels.
Will that give me that it's an equivalence though?
I meant the full embedding theorem not the "it's a full subcategory" theorem
OK, neat.
If P is an R-module in an abelian category A (i.e., an object with a ring homomorphism R → End(P)^op) is there a functor P (⨯)_R -: R-Mod → A?
I mean you should just map presentations of R-modules to the cokernel of the same map of direct sums of P's but has someone already checked that this is well-defined?
It is well defined.
Basically just that a morphism of projective presentations is well defined up to a diagonal lift and if you have such a lift the map on cokernels is 0.
Ah, so like
For any abelia category and projective object P, let C be the category whose objects are morphisms of direct sums of P's, and morphisms are commuting squares up to a diagonal. Then the cokernel functor embeds C as the full subcategory of objects which have a presentation using P's.
This is the argument basically?
Yes exactly
And in particular if Hom_{R-Mod}(R^I, R^J) = Hom_A(P^I, P^J) for all I, J (true iff End_A(P) = R^op and P is fg), then the first category is the same for R and P.
(^I = direct sum)
Depending on your definition of generator you might need some form of well powered-ness.
For example it should be possible that for any pair of maps M => N there exists a map P -> M that seperates them without a direct sum of Ps mapping onto M. (Essentially when M has a proper class of quotient objects).
Should be taken care of if I define generator as there is a direct sum of P's mapping onto M, right?
Hmm, actually I think you should always be able to do
P^(Hom(P, M)), so nvm
Although I think if the category is locally small then TFAE (for projective P): (i) Hom_A(P, M) is non-zero for non-zero M (ii) P^{Hom_A(P, M)} surjects onto M.
(Because Hom_A(P, M/all images of P) = 0.)
Yeah so the issue only comes if you don't have all coproducts
currently thinking about how many binary operations there are on a 2 element set, up to isomorphism and swapping the input order, which depend on both inputs
i think there is ∧, +, ¬∧, ¬+, →
if your + and ¬+ are what I think they are, they are isomorphic, by exchanging the two elements of the set.
xor and nxor to be less terse
oh yea ur right
im a silly bean
∧, +, ¬∧, →
semilattices, F_2 vector spaces, boolean algebras, ???
i have deep seated unearthed trauma from the last one cuz in my first logic course it was the only midterm exam question i couldn't answer
i still dont know the answer
- If the two results on the diagonal are the same, then it must be either xor/nxor or implication.
- If they are different, then either f(x,x)=x for both x or f(x,x)!=x for both x. The requirement that no input must be irrelevant then fixes it as either and/or or nand/nor.
to be precise, what operations are generated by → ?
that makes sense
(i think i just did process of elimination)
post's lattice might be helpful
i keep getting distracted irl by my class lecture
good idea
although i should probably just overcome my fear and systematically investigate it myself
i should think about what the following operations are
x → (x → y)
x → (y → x)
(x → y) → x
(x → y) → y
(x → y) → (y → x)
the others are obviously trivial
oh the first two are also trivial via currying
the next one is less obviously trivial
(x → y) → y = x ∨ y ???
and the last one is trivial
wtf why is there exactly one way to escape
no wonder my soul left my body that fateful day
this is so evil
the funny thing is that i can come up with a categorical justification for why x ⊔ y always maps into [[x, y], y] in a cartesian closed category
as a sort of way to check im not making a mistake
ok I've mentally recovered from the shock that ∨ is in the clone of →
the question is, what's next
tbh im demoralized imma just check posts lattice
nvm this thing requires a manual to decipher wtf
ok i went on Wikipedia and i found a useful fact
apparently x → y has the property that y ≤ x → y, and this is preserved by composition
that is, the operation is bounded from below by a projection
yeah i finally know the answer now
the proof is quite beautiful to me
there's exactly 6 operations that have this property, x, y, x ∨ y, x → y, y → x, and 1
@hallow bone my inner turmoil is finally resolved
sorry yall for the chat spam
YIPPEE
wow
I didn't mean caps
because a long time ago i had an exam question that stumped me and now i know the answer after over a year
the exam asked to prove ∧ is not in the clone of →
actually i still have a copy of the exam hold on
time to check my memory
yes i just bullshitted apparently and said the only things were 1, x, y, x → y, and y → x
and i got half credit cuz the instructor said there was one more
well i think half the credit was for the ∧ doesn't generate → part
the ∨ that got away...
take that martin zeman
i win
for the record i took this class in fall 2024
but it's been a thorn in my side ever since that i did not know the clone of →
btw does it generate a weird reduct of heyting algebras
like if you downgraded distributive lattice to semilattice
I'm gonna be honest idk
What is the use of the lattice theory (order theory)? outside of distributive lattices, I do not see any application
the concept of an ordering is pretty general and poset theory is the language we have for that
subset inclusion, partition refinement, divisibility, etc
theres a lot of examples
discussion is probably better suited for #combinatorial-structures
the language of lattices and closure operators (in particular Galois connections) is one that pops up very frequently in algebra
think of the lattice of submodules, or subgroups, or normal subgroups, or ideals, for example
from what ive seen though its not necessarily the lattice theory itself thats applied but moreso that abstracting to arbitrary lattices makes proofs a lot more elegant
for example, the jordann-holder theorem for modules has a nice lattice-theoretic analogue in modular lattices, or the equivalence between every ideal being finitely generated and the ascending chain condition
if you can stomach it, lattice theory is absolutely instrumental in a lot of universal algebra and related fields
@hallow bone btw i have a question about post's lattice
Wikipedia's description reveals that, apparently, you can use → to create any operation f on 2 such that there exists a projection x such that x ≤ f
im wondering if you have an idea how to prove this, i thought about it for a bit but im getting stuck
also it's kinda bizarre to me I've never heard of this construction before, it seems really interesting
seems like some induction typa thing lol
hmm
Suppose xi ≤ f(x1, ..., xn)
=> f(x1, ..., xn) = (xi -> 0) -> f(x1, ..., xi-1, 0, xi+1, ..., xn)
then apply induction
im not sure if i see a way to do it without 0
if we had 0, then we could get any operation
lol im stupid
i did just get an idea
(x ∨ (y → z)) → z = (x ∨ ¬y) → z = (x → z) ∧ (¬y → z)
is this true?
from there i think we can get a CNF of any operation f such that z ≤ f
rubber duck i guess
idk youre the one doing a master in logic stuff
im too lazy to check

bullshit major
so im thinking about the universal property of ∨
(x ∨ y) → z = (x → z) ∧ (y → z)
this is gonna sound sad
i remember logic rules by corresponding category facts

the issue was i got stuck how to put ¬y in there
until i realized i can put y → z
this doesnt even work i should go to sleep ugh
(y → z) → z = y ∨ z
i.e. ¬y → z
yea ok i believe Wikipedia now
but anyway it's kinda wild this is a clone on. any poset
the proof is quite beautiful
given a term t(s1, s2, ..., sn), there exists i such that si ≤ t, and by induction on complexity we can assume x ≤ si for some projection x, so x ≤ t
Wikipedia didn't list a proof but the proof isn't hard thankfully
it's interesting that this forces all constants to the the top element of the poset if it exists
thus the top element is also fixed by all operations
maybe im thinking abt this completely wrong, but i dont know how to find splitting field without finding the roots, but the roots of this thing kinda suck, and im thinking what if i have an even worse polynomial with terrible roots? is there a better way to do it?
It’s a polynomial in x^2
Write y = x^2 and it’s a quadratic
Apply quadratic formula to find solutions of y
Take square roots to get all roots
This one is actually p easy to do directly
i found the roots of it, i just dont like them very much lol
i need to do some complex number shit to simplify
but regardless, my question is, is there a better way to do it that isnt just find the roots and then adjoin?
Just find the roots
You just get fucked lol
so there is no other way to do it?
I think there’s not really a nice way to go about it
If you know extra information you can maybe try and figure something else out, but I don’t think there’s anything very general
Maybe a NTist can say more, but I don’t know how to look at the polynomial and know if the splitting field is generated just by a single root for example
hm ok
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/45893/how-to-find-the-galois-group-of-a-polynomial is fairly comprehensive on a range of methods but this is not easy to do in general
Let me know if this does not belong here. If a finite group G has l representations, and we know the characters for the first l-1, we can always find the character of the last. This is because there are (number of conjugacy classes) variables and as many equations as ways to get the inner product of the trace of the remaining irrep with a different irrep (namely l-1 = num conjugacy classes - 1). Is that right?
Yeah you just use row orthogonality
Or column orthogonality if it’s too hard
Is this the usual statement of column orthogonality?
Yeah Thats it although it’s normally written as |C_G(g)| instead of the fraction
Maybe I'm being silly but you need to use row orthogonality at least once, at which point you can use column orthogonality, right? Since if you don't know any values of the remaining character, then all column orthogonality can tell you is the absolute values of the remaining character (using part (i) in the screenshot)
Well after thinking about it it seems that this may not always work; you may get some tautological equations. But just using row orthogonality should always work (?)
Excuse me, this is nonsense. You know chi(e).
I'm wondering if this is correct: to show phi is injective, suppose phi(x)=phi(y). That means that x-y is in the kernel of every irrep rho. Hence, by Mashke's theorem, x-y is in the kernel of the regular representation. Yet by uniqueness of inverses in groups, this means that x-y=e, or x=y. Next, since G is finite abelian, we can use the structure theorem for finite abelian groups to write it as a direct sum of finite cyclic groups. By modifying the argument that |V|=|V*| for vector spaces (we showed this in class. I'm thinking of irreps of G as Z-module homomorphisms G -> C), we find that |G|=|G dual|. Since we have an injective between groups of the same size, we have an isomorphism.
Well I think it would do to go into more detail where I show that G and G dual have the same size, but we have other ways of showing this from class. I'm wondering specifically about where I show that phi is injective.
Also, if the trick with the regular representation works, then I think I need to use both the left and right regular reps to guarantee x-y=e.
you are overthinking the injectivity - if x is in the kernel, then rho(x) = 1 for all rho
Is your rho an irrep?
rho is any arbitrary element of Ghat
Ok, yes
But why does rho(x)=1 for all x imply x=e?
(Just making sure, when you write 0 you mean the identity map on C?)
it is enough to show that for all x != 1 there exists a rho such that rho(x) != 1
You can do an explicit construction
I guess you can identify $G\cong\mathbb Z/{n_1}\mathbb Z\times\cdots\times\mathbb Z/{n_t}\mathbb Z$, write $e_i\in G$ for the tuple with a 1 only in the ith place, write $x=\sum a_ie_i$, pick $a_i\neq 0$ and let $\rho$ send $e_i$ to the principal $n_i$-th root of unity, while $\rho(e_j)=0$ for $j\neq i$? Maybe I'm completely in the wrong ballpark
person2709505
Yeah that’s roughly the right idea
Did I get something wrong?
No it looks right but I’m a bit tired to check the details
Thanks for the help
some stupid question but why both the trivial module and the zero module have their own articles on Wolfram?
A module having only one element: the singleton set {}. It is a module over any ring R with respect to the multiplication defined by a=* (1) for every a in R, and the addition +=*, (2) which makes it a trivial additive group. The only element * is, in particular, its zero element. Therefore, a trivial module is often called the zero ...
It seems to me that they are essentially the same.
because wolfram is stupid
lmao
I am not sure about i), what does it mean by reducing this equation mod b?
the ring map B → B/𝖇 sends 𝖆 to 0, so you get an induced map A → A/𝖆
but we have already natural map A -> A/a, right?
yeah what i mean is that this diagram commutes, where the right vertical arrow is the one you want to show is integral
essentially all the coefficients go to A/𝖆 when you reduce mod 𝖇
what's crazy is that they both have the same author
so we are identity A/a with subring of B/b?
Can anyone help me on this or give me a hint on how to do this btw.
This is the cone differential btw
have you got any direction
