#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 20 of 1
damn, i fear your power
that shit scares me
It's fun, so many cool phenomena that just can't arise when you require commutativity
yeah, that is true
Anyways, I think I more or less understand your idea now, so thanks for elaborating.
Intuitively it feels to me this kind of stuff would be only be non-pathological in cases where there's some notion of completeness
But maybe that's actually just the boring class of examples
that's good to know. i am not always certain of my ability to explain
yea, i feel like an ultrametric structure gives rise to similar examples. actually, i haven't thought about it enough to say rigorously. maybe you're right, and it has more to do with ideal completions
i have no idea, I've only explored the surface i feel like
Has anyone here gone though Alugffi's algebra? Just wanted to know your thoughts on it
Nah but I went through a good bit of Aluffi Chapter 0
It was good, I like it
Ppl say the exercises aren’t hard enough, that may be true idk, but I like it a lot
Lol, silly typo on my side...
I was gonna go though some parts of the homological algebra
Thanks for letting me know
That’s what I did
I really like it for homological algebra
I learned the beginnings of algebra from Aluffi
And then did ring & Galois theory from D&F,
Then read the homological algebra chapter, and most of the last one
My memory says the last chapter begins to talk about the derived category which is really deep and pretty essential in a lot of fields
And I found Aluffi really illuminating for how to think about homologicsl algebra in a more modern way
Oh cool, sounds exactly what I was looking for...
I also did the structures from D&F
Anyone know Finacial Math
Wrong channel. IDK a right one, but I would try #advanced-probability.
This is a fact-checking question.
Let A be a fd algebra over a field k. Is it true that {a ∈ A : tr(multiplication by a) = 0} contains no non-zero left ideal of A iff A is semisimple with the dimension of each of its simple factors having dimension not divisible by the characteristic (and in particular, centre separable over k)?
(If A is semisimple, left and right multiplication have the sam trace. For either choice, the above holds for left ideals iff it holds for right ideals. So it doesn't matter which you pick.)
radu
I concur
For example A = F4, k = F2 has dimension divisible by the characteristic, but doesn't contain such an ideal
If A isn't semisimple you can certainly find such ideals.
And for A semisimple it's enough to consider Mn(D). If n is a multiple of the characteristic you get such an ideal. If n is not, then it reduces to whether D has such an ideal, which just means every element of D having trace 0.
You need D to have dimension multiple of the characteristic, but it's not sufficient.
OK I think it should be "each factor has separable centre and thi dimension over the centre is not divisible by the characteristic".
My idea was that we can base change to the algebraic closure where we have M_n(k) and it becomes an iff, but I now see this doesn't work as stated for non-trivial centre.
Hmm, so okay if the center isn't seperable everything should have trace 0.
But if the center is seperable, and the dimension over the center is a multiple of the characteristic, can you then be sure everything has trace 0?
Hmm, actually I think it should be okay.
For D > K > k you should have
tr_k(D) equal tr_k(tr_K(D))
Does anyone know whether there are any shortcuts in calculating multiplicities with Kostant's formula? For example whether maybe vanishing of p for simple reflections implies vanishing for all reflections or something?
I've gone through both yeah
it's good, would recommend 👍
What’s the undergrad one like?
it goes elementary number theory -> rings -> groups -> frields
this is the first algebra book i read
so there was a good chunk of time i knew what a ring was but not a group
in retrospect, i question this design decision
on the other hand, rings are, subjectively, more fun, and i suppose aluffi agrees too
the elementary number theory can be seen as ring theory over Z, as preparation for the general thing, which is quite a clever framing device
oh yea, my goal ended up being to do all the exercises in the book (at least in my head), and that facilitated that goal
i tried doing this with another textbook but it didn't work cuz the exercises were too hard
Yeah like in the sections I did I did most of the exercises
It was doable
And I feel like I learned how to work and think with say Tor and Ext well from that
There’s a camp of people who say this makes more pedagogical sense because people are more familiar with ring-like things
But I am partial to groups first because well, I learned it that way, and it makes sense to start from less structure to more in my head
the issue i have is that rings, in retrospect, are best viewed as being built from abelian groups
so yeah, essentially what you said
people really really like the parts on homalg. i actually sorta bounced off it iirc, that's mainly just cuz i dont really enjoy homalg that much
i did it anyway and i can recognize it's a well-done chapter but
idk, i think i have to be one of the only people who prefers the rest of aluffi to the last section
Hello! I'm trying to understand what my grandma's master's thesis was about. The title is "On the existence of algebraically closed extensions in a family of Ω-algebras". It was written in 1968.
Please do note that I have a background in engineering physics, so I never saw abstract algebra. If it's just way too advanced for me to even understand what it talks about, just say so. I'm just curious about it, because my grandma was a high school teacher, and so she forgot all about higher maths.
do you have a link / doi for convenience?
It has not been scanned, and it's written in French
ahhh alr
I'm not expecting to understand the details, if I can see the general landscape in which it is, it would already be great
im doing some research, i think I've found what an Omega algebra is, it seems to be a dated term for what we'd now call an algebraic structure
a family is just another name for a set or collection, just having several of them
algebraically closed extensions usually refer to things called "fields"
if i had to explain it simply, consider the system of real numbers. that forms a field because it has a sense of +, -, ×, ÷
(and it obeys a lot of nice axioms)
I know what a field is, from baby Rudin
hell yeah
an algebraic closure of a field closes it under all polynomial equations
for example, we might want a solution to x^2 + 1 = 0 in our field
so it means that all polynomial equations written in it have their solutions in the field ? So, the complex field would qualify, but not the real field ?
R is not algebraically closed, but the "extension" of R to C closes it, by the fundamental theorem of algebra
yeah exactly
ok asterisk
i should say nonconstant polynomials
1 = 0 🤓
does it have a different meaning in UA?
I assume that would be what's relevant here
it seems that their grandma was looking at a generalization to UA yeah
since it seems like an Omega-algebra is just an algebra with a signature Omega
which is interesting cuz UA is an old field that most people don't study anymore, but i do
yeah my googling confirms this too
the "signature" of an algebraic structure is the set of operations you define on it
fields have 0, 1, +, ×, -
not division cuz that's not a complete operation, it needs to be defined everywhere
so she wanted to generalise the notion of algebraically closed to those algebraic structures you talked about ?
yeah seems to be the case
that, or she built off an existing generalization
i know in modern day that model theorists look at existentially closed structures
That's possible, the print document is only 50 pages long
yeah I'd not know
but yeah, the existence of an algebraically closed extension is essentially, asking if it even exists
yeah, so if I understand, she was trying to see if that generalization was even possible in the first place
you could imagine a world where there didn't even exist an algebraically closed extension of R, or something. thankfully we live in that world, but she must have been studying the situation for other types of structures
yeah prolly that too
I see, thanks a lot for your help!
oh this is interesting
I've been thinking about this too
the interesting part about this is that you'll have algebraically closed with respect to a variety
because, how do you decide which equations p = q you want to have a solution?
i guess that's how you exclude 0 = 1 on principle
wdym?
"on principle"
you define an algebra A to be algebraically closed with respect to a variety V, if for any unary polynomials <p, q> such that they do not generate the top congruence in A[X]_V, there is a solution in A
A[X]_V here is the polynomial algebra with respect to V
as opposed to ad-hoc
hell yea
can we say under which conditions on R (except for R being hereditary) is the category Proj-R of projective R-modules semisimple?
wdym by semisimple here?
using the def on nlab (every object is a semisimple object, meaning for any object P, every ses 0 -> P' -> P -> P'' -> 0 of objects in the category splits) the category is clearly always semisimple
so I don't really get the question
maybe they mean that they must be a direct sum of simples
this feels like it could be stronger, although maybe it's equivalent, I've not thought about it much
but im thinking about, hypothetically, what if a nontrivial projective module always split into the sum of two other projectives... and i guess, that's equivalent to splitting into the sum of any nontrivial modules, cuz that guarantees projectivity of the factors
can that ever happen?
also i forgot that, maybe a projective module might be directly irreducible but also not simple? i also forget if that can happen
hm yea this is what I meant, but for R-modules M I believe the two are equivalent, i.e, M is semisimple (can be written as a direct sum of simple modules) <--> any SES 0 -> M' -> M -> M'' splits.
ah but simple objects in Proj-R are not necessarily simple projective R-modules
yeah i suppose, that corresponds to this possibility
sorry what does directly irreducible mean?
ah, i am thinking about this, and i see why that's the case. because, if M' -> M is injective, then, because that map must break down into a map to each simple factor, each of those maps must be 0 or surjective, so you always end up with just a subset of the factors
oh wait that's just one direction, er, i should think about the converse
maybe it's some recursive argument, not sure how to properly carry out the induction
shorthand for "does not decompose into a nontrivial direct product"
i got tired of saying it so i switched to that buzzword 
Isn’t that just indecomposable?
It’s crown graphs all over again
directly irreducible is the more general term so i forgor the specific one
Anyone know if the direction <= is true?
Lambda^+ being the set of dominant integral linear functions
V(lambda) the irreducible verma module
Yeah this is true. If lambda is dominant and a sum of roots then in particular it's a positive linear combination of roots. The weights of V(lambda) will be all weights of the form lambda - positive sum of roots. In particular, 0 is of that form.
I don't see why dominant + sum of roots => positive sum of roots.
this is a general fact but I don't recall the proof off the top of my head
Oh, could one just evaluate at the fundamental weight corresponding to the alpha?
I think you need to evaluate at the fundamental coweight, but yes
I'm not sure that works after all
Cause dominant only puts a requirement on evaluating with roots
Man, rep theory makes my head hurt
The point is that the fundamental weights are positive linear combinations of simple roots
so a positive linear combination of fundamental weights (i.e., a dominant weight) is a positive linear combination of simple roots
(but not conversely)
I like ur pfp
I think this makes sense...: 0 <= (lambda_i, lambda) = (lambda_i, \sum k_alpha_j alpha_j) = k_alpha_i
Though at this point, I think need to call it a day cause my brain is not functioning
thanks, it's my main brand image for my math stuff atp, i also use it for my math blog and mse/mo pfps
But thanks for the help
Sure! Tbh I also find root/weight combinatorics super annoying... I just remember some basic facts and then look up the rest (eg in Humphreys) if I need to
is there a name for like, cross operation associativity, even if the operations themselves arent associative?
so g(f(a,b),c)=f(a,g(b,c))
id call it middle associativity but idk if thats a proper term
If lambda is a sum of simple roots, then 0 < lambda. As 0 and lambda are dominant integral weights, this then implies that 0 must be a weight in V(lambda).
The argument goes as follows: Let lambda and mu be dominant integral weights and let V(lambda) be the associated irreducible highest weight module . The set of weights gamma of V(lambda) satisfying mu <= lambda is non-empty (it contains lambda) finite and thus must have minimal elements, call one of them v. Assume that v is strictly larger than mu, so that v-mu is a non-trivial sum of simple roots. We obtain that (v-mu,v)=(v-mu,v-mu)+(v-mu,mu)>0, as mu is dominant. This then implies that exists some simple root alpha such that (alpha,v)>0, but in that case v-a_k is again a weight (V(lambda) is saturated) and it satisfies mu <= v-a_k < v, contradicitng minimality.
More generally you can phrase it as mu occuring as a weight of V(lambda) iff if w mu < lambda holds for all w in the Weyl group. In the case of 0 it suffices to just check if 0 < lambda holds, which is just asking if lambda is a positive root.
What the helly.
Being someone who does algebra but doesn’t understand anything about Lie algebras this looks like Finnegan’s wake lol. It feels like I should understand what these words mean but they’re in an order that doesn’t make sense and you get the feeling something is going on that you don’t see.
It's just combinatorics.... albeit voodoo combinatorics. That's why a lot of ppl in rep theory are essentially fancy combinatorialists (not derogatory -- that stuff is hard)
I'm not sure your statement that mu is a weight of V(lambda) iff w mu < lambda for all w \in W is true for Vermas. For example, for dominant lambda, all antidominant weights will be weights of the Verma module V(lambda).
Ah sorry, I meant the irreducible highest weight module with V(lambda), where lambda is dominant inegral. It is finite dimensional and W acts by permutation on it
However, this does give another proof of what they were asking, since your statement is true for irreps, and the irrep of highest weight lambda is a quotient of the Verma
You can see the characterization is true by the fact that w mu < lambda must be necessary (W permutes the roots after all) and sufficient (W takes mu to the fundamental Weyl chamber)
Or more convincingly, a guy at the MPI decided to make it homework to prove that characterization
Is it?
It is, yes
This looks like Humphreys, where Z(lambda) is the Verma module of highest weight lambda
That's right, the question Fyodor asked is about that Verma
So your statement about irreps does answer the question (upon taking the quotient)
Okay the exercise is in Humphreys (21.4 Ex.3 ), and V(lambda) is introduced in (20.3) Thm B (where it is shown that exist as the unique irreducible quotient of the Verma module)
You can even see in the picture that the next exercise references Z(lambda), which is the Verma module.
Ah. In his question, Fyodor said that V(lambda) is the Verma. I guess he misinterpreted the exercise, so I answered the question he stated
But anyways, would be cool to know if the converse holds even for Verma
Oh wait nvm, yeah thats pretty direct from knowing its basis
Yeah, this statement is also true for Vermas. More generally, 0 occurs as a weight of Z(lambda), where lambda is any weight (not necessarily dominant), iff lambda is a positive linear combination of roots.
But this is trivial to prove, so it's not very interesting
It's good to check that taking the PBW-esque monomial associated to any positive root alpha applied the highest weight vector yields an basis element with weight lambda - alpha, and that such basis elements form a basis of Z(lambda)_lambda-mu
Yes, good point
Also makes it pretty cheap to know the dimensions of the weights spaces of Verma in terms of partitions of positive roots.
I feel silly now.... I should have gone to Humphreys to check whether the question was actually about Vermas. Ah well
lol yeah
This is a good place to note that Humphreys' book on Category O is a banger
fantastic book
Oh yeah, woops. Got my notation mixed up
Also, I found an exercise in Humphreys which guarantees that the fundamental coweights are positive linear combinations of the simple roots (Exercise 13.8)
Does anyone have a tip on how to show that (\mathrm{Ext}^1_{\mathbb{C}[x,y,z]}((x,y,z),(x,y,z)) = 0)?
mh_le
What are the prerequisites to understand the representations of SL_n(Z)
and is it too ambitious to attempt to learn this after a first course in rep theory
Jagr have you run into the notion of silting discreteness
I have yes
I guess just taking a projective resolution of (x,y,z) and applying hom would work well enough
fair
this is covered in fulton harris i think
Why you ask?
I’ve been trying to prove silting discreteness for preprojective An but it’s been deceptively hard
Just curious what other contexts it comes up in and how people think about it
sorry, I misremembered the assignment I need to calculate (\mathrm{Tor}^1_{\mathbb{C}[x,y,z]}((x,y,z),(x,y,z)) )
mh_le
What kind of C[x,y,z]-Module is (x,y,z)?
Non-free
Why?
Men it’s not principal
Uh
Free modules can have as many generators as you want
So take projective resolution and tensor then
You are correct it's not free or projective though I had a bit of a brain fart, apologies
Making you do it for 3 variables is kind of mean
Why is it mean?
2 variables has a much nicer resolution
This is just more fuss for not much pedagogical gain except doing more computations
I mean, the koszul complex is pretty nice, no matter how many variables there are
The question is if they've learned about it
I haven’t
If 3 variables is a hassle you can always consider
0 -> (x, y) -> (x, y, z) -> (x, y, z)/(x, y) -> 0
and use a long exact sequence
Is (x,y,z) projective?
No
I was trying to think of using fg projective iff it is a direct summand of a fg free module. Do u use that to show its not projective?
or can u see it directly or something
I guess you can compute its Tor with R/(x, y, z)
I want to do more hom algebra its cool
Or yeah, show that the map R^3 -> (x,y,z) doesn't split
Why do we only need to consider R^3?
You just need a surjective map that doesn't split
That's probably the easiest one to consider
let (A, 0) be a pointed set. let B ⊆ C. we have a map A^B -> A^C given by sending a function f: B -> A to the function g: C -> A given by g(c) := f(c) if c ∈ B, and 0 otherwise
is there a common name / notation for this?
ok i thought about it, and this can actually be viewed as precomposition, just in an unconventional way
we use the pointed map p: C ⊔ {0} -> B ⊔ {0} given by p(c) := c if c ∈ B, and 0 otherwise
this actually extends to the case i was thinking about with abelian groups too
i saw a ghost ping here with something about sheaves which makes me really interested but i assume it was deleted cuz the approach ended up not working out. hopefully you can salvage something cuz i had vague sheaf sensations related to this but couldn't develop it
yes, i am working on salvaging it
the variance was wrong
but it reminded me of the usual presheaf action of ptSet(-,(A,0)) : ptSet^op —> Set
this is extension by zero, no?
Maybe this is what your motivation was but this is the usual way of viewing sets with partial functions as maps of pointed sets, where you view the additional point as a placeholder for when you stuff is not defined
So like here the point is given f: B -> A you can view it as a partially defined function C -> A, hence a function C u {*} -> A u {*} via the recipe you described
@waxen fractal lol
Maybe my point is just that this is a common thing to do
i thought about what all of yall said, and then the phrase "domain expansion" popped into my head
insert jjk meme here
skimming the stacks page, it seems that it's an adjoint to restriction
and this perspective makes it look similar to restriction, but instead of restricting the domain, we're expanding it
hell yeah
ill think about if i can relate this to base change
cuz the way they define it on stacks looks like base change but it's in the context of stuff i can't understand
notably, maps of pointed sets carry a pointed set structure, so we can actually upgrade this to ptSet^op -> ptSet
idk how stacks puts it but its a left adjoint to the inverse image functor which exists the map is an inclusion
for i alone, am the honoured one
pointed word: domain expansion
wait im mixing up memes
shit guys im not a weeb

neither am I i havent watched anime in like 5 years
yeah nvm it's definitely more subtle than i thought
maybe i should just stick to the simple way of viewing it
horrible take, but its a left kan extension 
ok the issue is that this doesn't seem to be a common way to view things in the case of abelian groups, people still view 0 as an element of the group, not a placeholder 
every left adjoint is a Lan if you try hard enough
🗣️
ok im going back to trying to understand it abstractly
what was this case?
ok issue is idk the inverse image functor

same deal but, we let A be an abelian group
the exact same construct does work
concrete example: if we consider the vector space of power series R[[x]], this construction includes R[[x^2]] as a linear subspace. for every x^2 coefficient we copy it over exactly, and for the rest, we just put 0
domain expansion 🗣️
extension by 0 seems to be the proper terminology but also kinda obscure and i think it's used more in geometric contexts? so it's not that useful
Lol idk how it is obscure
i never heard of it but maybe it's not obscure and this is just my moment to learn it
Extension by zero not obscure
im intimidated by the fact my only reference for it is stacks project
Non-Hartshorne exercise doer identified
i dont do AG
Terminate immediately
you liked my pfp so here's a gif of it blowing up (in game)
ironic... you would think the AG people would be blowing up
I've read a good chunk of the vakil exposition on sheaves
so it's not like i have no knowledge of some terminology used here
😠😠😠
Yeah but it’s defined in a Hartshorne exercise so among alg geometers it definitely isn’t niche and nonchalant
hell yeah
ok phew
What game is this
Wat
im not joking
Wat
Was it made by a guy named Toby Mouse
rpgmaker
it's like a full 10-20 hour experience to be clear
Lmao
very very late into Vakil yes
Idk why it is Hartshorne in particular
The symbol “!” is read as “shriek”, presumably because people shriek when they see it.
Ig just cause this is a very early exercise
Doesn't everyone learn about 6ff in kindergarten tho
Yeah
ok i have an idea how to view it in sheaf terms anyway
If you live in woke
Bonn you mean
DEI sheaves
Real
and uhhh
we uhh
take the open set B
and if we have a sheaf on B
we extend by 0 to C !!!
guys look im doing AG
it's like, uhhhh the constant sheaf
It’s like what if u had functions on B
valued on A
And you said I’m gonna extend these to all of the space
By just saying it’s 0 where I don’t know where it’s defined
wait that's a truke
And then u made that a definition
And what’s the cokernel of this gonna be
It’s something like what are the sections on the whole space
Supported on the complement
And this is how you get the SES
oh we're making this an ses now

makes sense
mfw i have to look at sections of the interior of the compliment of U
man this does sound pretty foundational
I think it’s actually open on the other side
I think you have a j^-1F there
shit, for real
Which is like approximating the complement via descending opens containing the closed
It makes sense too cuz you can’t actually just define f to be 0 outside U on the nose
Because th complement is closed
And so you can’t glue those functions over that cover
So you have to wiggle stuff a little
That’s what ^sh does
ok imma think about this rq
oh, we like, compute on presheaves, the sheafify?
classic maneuver
I think so, if my memory serves me
are we tryna solve this
0 -> A^B -> A^C -> ? -> 0
Idk what that notation is
Lol
I’m talkin about some SES that’s like
Yeah just look it up kek
oh i was just borrowing from my notation from my usecase
like, A^B is maps from B to A
relatable
2 many beers
true
im just worried tho cuz like
i dont wanna get poisoned yknow
actually maybe i should try applying sheafy thinking to my (larger) problem
will update if i succeed
this convo gave me ideas
wow that's messed up. The state of our education system is truly abysmal right now. Back in my day any newborn would know about 6ff
Does anyone know of a good exposition of whitehead’s algorithm for when two elements of a free group are images of each other under some automorphisms?
Preferably one that follows a more 3-manifold route than a combinatorial route
(Not sure if I’m more likely to get an answer here or in #alg-top-geo-top so #alg-top-geo-top message)
I get that you have to teach them kids to count up to 6, which compared to like 2 or 3 is pretty hard and I sometimes struggle with it too. But once you do, there is no reason to just pick it up on the side, maybe make some flashcards if really necessary
If f: A ---> B is a chain map of complexes of R modules and I: C ---> C is the identity chain map on a complex of R modules C, it's certainly true that cone(f) (x)_R C = cone(f (x)_R I) right?
Someone had the initiative to add a higher categories course starting next winter semester in Bonn. The go to strategy until then for learning MPI nonsense prerequisites of the month is to just try to breathe in the air Scholze exhaled and hope they unlock those skills as if it was a supersoldier serum.
peter scholze once walked past me and that's probably still powering any mathematical intuition I might have to this day
why is the im functor not left or right exact?
The im functor?
it is given as Fun([1], Ab) -> Ab that maps homomorphisms to its image
there are probably a lot of counterexamples available but something easy would be applying im to the sequence
0 -> (0 -> Z) -> (Z^2 -id-> Z^2) -> (Z^2 -pr_2-> Z) -> 0
clearly 0 -> 0 -> Z^2 -pr_2-> Z -> 0 is not exact at Z^2
is this an exact sequence of chain compexes?
It's an exact sequence in Fun([1], Ab)
I see
Another clue that it shouldn't be exact is that the image is the kernel of the cokernel.
So the composition of something right exact (not left exact) and something left exact (but not right exact)
let A be an abelian group. let A_i be a sequence of descending subgroups such that their intersection is trivial. sanity check: do we get an induced ultrametric on A, i.e. for nonzero x ∈ A, we define |x| as 2^-i where i is the greatest i such that x ∈ A_i
[this is unrelated to above discussion, I've just been thinking about this]
Yes
absolute cinema
is this a joke about the banality of sanity checks
this feels important but i dont feel I've ever actually seen it anywhere, what kind of math is most concerned with this construction?
Number theory 🙃
I mean this is literally the construction of the p adic metric
yeah but that also is induced by inverse limit topology
this feels like it has to be more general? like i dont see how to express it as an inverse limit
Like I’m not sure a lot of Profinite groups stuff cares about the fact this is metrisable
Mostly because a lot of the examples we care about don’t look like this
I guess this is just the situation for any first/second countable topological group really
i guess we could generalize it to a metric by using Q as an order
😔
justice for sequential inverse limits
Yeah like you can do it with sufficient finiteness properties
But like I’m not sure anyone who does profinite stuff actually thinks about it this way
Because you need to make a lot of non-canonical choices usually
Look into channel, wonder why people have weird colors on their names, realize this is not TAU.
I feel like the topology is more interesting/useful than the metric in this case
yeah actually in retrospect this actually is how ALL ultrametrics on groups arise
(that are compatible with group structure)
The topology is the metric without the unnatural choices 🙃
The metric is the topology with a chosen “descending” countable basis of the identity
if you only study the metric you'll miss the fact it's a boolean space
and who wants to miss that
so actually i think i accidentally confused myself into rediscovering basic group theory
it's really interesting to me that there is this entirely "algebraic" description of a topological phenomenon. and it's not even for inverse limit stuff, it's just, filtrations naturally have topological structure
like isn't that weird
to be clear i only care about the metric for the sake of inducing the topology
well I'd argue this isn't an algebraic phenomenon per se
because take any set X and a descending chain of equivalence relations
nuh uh
i should just jump straight to the topology
it'll be more enlightening
anyone with negative opinions on UA can never be 100% correct
it's my standard reaction
mishu is righter than micot :3
it's hard to convey what I mean with it
and when i think about it
it IS inverse limit stuff
so actually im just blind
THINK KEITH THINK
we can view it as the smallest topology such that the quotient maps A -> A/A_i are continuous
with the latter being discrete
ok i feel better
everything is right again
i was just blinded by the evils of metric spaces
so yea, we can also make a topology from this too, it seems
same way
You should do Group cohomology
the descending condition just guarantees that we get a sequential inverse limit
people keep telling me that but it looks unfun
just go straight to Beck module cohomology atp
keith you should do Beck modules in congruence modular varieties 
I wonder if there is a cohomology theory on profinite spaces such that profinite groups have the same group cohomology and space cohomology and in asking that question I answered myself because something like Z_p and Z_q are homeomorphic but should have different group cohomologies
It fun
Read Brown’s book
there's unfortunately no (algebraic) cohomology of boolean algebras
they are congruence-distributive, so the commutator is intersection, and therefore there are no nontrivial Beck-modules (these play the role of G-modules)
but maybe there are other cohomology theories for profinite spaces
holy shit I accidentally stumbled upon a paper from my group theory professor lmao
Give to mishu :3

poop theory
sometimes i turn off my filter
and just say the first thing that enters my head
Me when the I-adic completion isn’t actually complete with respect to the I-adic topology
@karmic brook
yeah sorry that's my fault
We should make every course a group theory course :3
i prefer abelian groups to groups usually purely because that way i dont have to tell my left from my right 🗣️
there is some group theory in the UA im reading rn
well, only a little
Tw(R, E) 🔥
Do this :3
Yeah it should be doable just from the definitions
oh i suppose that would be fun actually, dont need to pull out baer criterion or anything
i just need to remember the definition of injective (i forget every time)
if B ⊆ A and B maps into I, then we can extend this to a map A -> I that commutes
Prostrat would be showing that ||Hom_Z(R, Q/Z) is always an injective R-module.||
It’s the same as amateurjective
if B ⊆ A and nA = 0, then a map B -> Z/n extends to a map A -> Z/n ???
it's weird cuz i see how it has to be true by jagr's argument, but it's pretty nonobvious in this form, to me
I did it via Baer’s criterion where it’s kinda trivial
ah yea fair
I mean the idea is basically just that if something in B is a multiple of something in A it will have smaller order so restricting where a map B -> Z/n can send it
yeah
im thinking about it and i think if i thought about it long enough I'd rediscover baer's criterion
ill just move on
ok (a) is trivial
It’s essentially what you get if you try to inductively construct it
You try Zorn’s lemma and realise this is exactly what you need to turn anything into something bigger
yeah
ok i feel like im missing an important proof technique from my mental library cuz (b) feels like it would require some sort of recursive argument, but i can't figure out how to formalize the union step
Zorn
subgroups that are direct sums of cyclic groups?
i guess that would be closed under nested union
nah that doesn't feel right
it feels better to say, linearly independent sets
yeah ok im feeling it
for (b) i think you recurse on the set of linearly independent sets
at each stage it's a direct sum
when you add a new generator it remains a direct sum
when you union it's still a direct sum
and it's only maximal once the entire group is generated
so i guess it's similar to the proof that every vector space has a basis
It becomes fairly easy if you first ||reduce to n a prime power||
i think universal algebra (hi enpeace) sorta illuminates why Z/n-modules would be similar to Z/p-modules
but i dont have anything but vibes
so im saying this to bait enpeace into saying something smart
The fact that Z/n is a product of Z/p^k explains why the modules are similar to Z/p^k at least.
And for any rep finite artinian ring you have that every module is a direct sum of if finitely generated ones
yeah this problem is completely reducible to Z/p^kZ by CRT
I love how you say "rep of" instead of "module over"
concept with an attitude
😭
anyway, getting back to the convo start, (where i asked about the topology thing), the inverse limit actually explains a certain construction i was experimenting with
suppose A is a sequential inverse limit of A_i
then, we can define a map A^w -> A by compatible maps A^w -> A_i, and we can define those maps by maps A^n -> A_i, which only gives us finitely supported stuff, but this still leads to a lot of examples
the reason the map as a whole is not finitely supported, is because, for each i, we can increase the n that we fix
so i guess i should have written n_i
tl; dr i feel a lot less spooked by the "topology" aspect now because it's apparent to me that this phenomenon can be described purely algebraically
anyway, the bizarre thing is that, the converse is also true to some extent: let phi: A^w -> A be any linear map, with one condition: denote phi_n as A^{n+1,n+2,...} -> A given by precomposing phi by the extension-by-zero map A^{n+1,n+2,...} -> A^w. then we require ∩ im phi_n = 0
then phi is induced by such a map
this fits into the general pattern i see, "natural maps A^w -> A should have finite support in some sense, wild maps won't", im curious if there's a way to formalize the difference between a "natural" and a "wild" map, beyond something ad-hoc like "ZF proves it exists"
lol
do you like poops
What’s a good source to learn about arithmetic groups?
arithmetic poops
Cohomology of arithmetic groups?
This book provides a gentle introduction to the study of arithmetic subgroups of semisimple Lie groups. This means that the goal is to understand the group SL(n,Z) and certain of its subgroups. Among the major results discussed in the later chapters are the Mostow Rigidity Theorem, the Margulis Superrigidity Theorem, Ratner's Theorems, and the c...
what do yoy think
remarkable poop
symmetric power of irr rep is irr??
Not in general, no
how is identity element obtained in a loops if x(x^-1) isnt equal to x^-1(x)
but for SL_2 standard lie alg irr rep , it is true
I'm not quite sure what you're asking.
In a loop x will have both a right inverse and a left inverse. If you multiply x by its right inverse on the right you will get the identity.
Ahhh okay makes sense
Like so x1,x2,x3
Are the elements
Then
(X1)(X2)^-1=e
(X3)^-1(X1)=e
If this is true then it would mean X2 is the left inverse and X1 is the right inverse right?
Cancellation dosent apply to loops since they are non associative
how to show k[x_1,...,x_n] is free as a k[x_1,\cdots,x_n]^{S_n} module ? S_n acts by exchanging x_i's. i know a argument using heavy CA machinery but i wonder there are easier arguments?
Found this https://mathoverflow.net/questions/216242/free-kx-1-dots-x-ns-n-module. Like you can look at these elementes and show by induction and stuff that they span
I don't know if Galois theory counts as heavy machinery. But looking it the field of fractions you get a degree n! Galois extension. So it's enough to verify that there is a generating set of size n!
Huh this is very cool!
Let f : G -> H be a homomorphism of groups, and make ℤ[H] into a G-module using f. Let M be another G-module. Is the tensor product M ⊗_G ℤ[H] the same as M extended to H restricted to G?
thx both of you, initially i just shown it's flat via dimension counting and apply a graded version of nakayama so this is simple enough
When you say "is the same as," I assume you mean to consider the tensor product as a G-H bimodule, in which case the answer is yes by definition: the restriction of this module to G is exactly the left G-action on the tensor product.
okay nice
More generally, this is an example of the induction functor, and this works because ind \circ res is always the identity functor
ive got a small conjecture that Beck modules over algebras in modular (or at least permutable) varieties always have a tensor product, so that extension of scalars agrees with it
wdym more generally? what i described is induction
right?
Yes, you're right. I meant to add that this is an example of adjunction for the ind and res functors. In particular, what you're asking boils down to the general adjunction fact that ind \circ res \circ ind = ind, since res is the identity map on the underlying abelian groups
thats not true though
if i take the inclusion 1 ≤ G, then inducting corresponds to taking the free G-module on an abelian group
this yields a way bigger underlying group
Let's call that free abelian group F. This identity says that ind(res F) \cong F, which is true.
is it though? when restricting you forget all the G-module structure
when inducting this structure gets added freely, iirc you take the direct sum of F indexed by G and let G act in the obvious way
That's not true
oh no
I guess I messed something up on my adjunction formula
I don't think there's really anything to do with adjunction. It's just res F and F being the same abelian group
isn't ind an adjoint functor though? so I should always have ind res ind = ind
ind and res are adjoint to eachother, but you shouldn't have such a formula
(and you don't)
if only
but this is always a fact for adjoint functors, yes?
no
You have maps
F -> FGF -> F
that compose to the identity
But the other composition is usually not the identity
But it is true that
ind F is a direct summand of ind res ind F.
And in fact slightly stronger F is a direct summand of res ind F
Is this extracted from right exactness of ind?
Hmm, might be some relationship there.
But I guess the easy way to see it is just that ZG is a (bimodule)-summand of ZH
ah ok, makes sense
I was told that there is a ring R such that the R-points of PGL have a element that does lift to GL2. Whats a reasonable way to find such a ring and element?
I have been playing ideals the nonprincipal but invertible since that feels like the right thing, but am kinda stumped why i think that even is
Take R=Z/2Z
I compute the action on B and get 0. $ (y \cdot B) (x)(z) = y \cdot B(x)(z) - B(y \cdot x) (z) = - B(x) (y \cdot z) - B(y \cdot x) (z) = 0$ for any $y, x,z \in g$ and g acts on itself by the adjoint. Why is B g-invariant?
pink_panther
oh i mixed up the definitions on invariance for a lie algebra with lie group
Im trying to prove the following:
Let L/K be an extension of number fields. O_K, O_L are the ring of integers on K and L, respectively
If P is a prime ideal of O_K, P ramifies in O_L iff the discriminant ideal is contained in O_K
i just dont really know where to begin, like intuitively
what is the link between a discriminant and ramification
think about the situation K/Q
a prime p in Z ramifies iff it divides the discriminant of K
a similar logic applies here
but the link here is that ramification is controlled by polynomial reduction modulo P
and the discriminant is defined in terms of polynomials
so that's your relation
in the sense of like
the polynomials that appear in the determinant?
well take O_K = Z[a]
then the discriminant is determined by Prod(x_i-x_j)
now take the minimal polynomial of a
when we reduce mod p, if it has a repeated root it ramifies at the prime corresponding to that factor
but this is equivalent to Prod(x_i-x_j) bein 0 modulo p
i.e. p divides the discriminant
Adjoint functors are not as well-behaved as Galois connections, they don't have to satisfy this in general. The ones that do are (IIRC) called idempotent adjunctions.
Does the Grothendieck monoid of an abelian category (generated by objects with relations [A] + [C] = [B] whenever there is an SES 0 → A → B → C → 0, but without formal inverses) show up anywhere not as the Grothendieck group?
for finite groups that would be positive integers under multiplication right?
Oops wrote something wrong and deleted. Anyway, I haven't seen it come up, but for the category of fg abelian groups the Grothendieck group is trivial, but the Grothendieck monoid does retain a lot of information.
does the grothendieck group ever have nontrivial torsion? how does that arise?
Grothendieck groups are weird
If let R = Z[sqrt(-5)] and consider the category of fg projective R-modules, then I believe P = (2, 1+sqrt(-5)) has P^2 = R^2.
So in the Grothendieck group [R] - [P] is torsion.
thats so weird
To my the weirdness is that you can have P^2 = R^2. I'll stick with my Krull--Schmidt categories
does this have to do with Z[sqrt(-5)] not being a UFD?
Yes. It's a dedekind domain, so it's a ufd iff it's a pid and the indecomposable projectives are exactly the ideals
Googles ai thingy tells me the Grothendieck group for a dedekind domain is Z (+) the ideal class group
So [R] should generate the Z part and then [R] - [I] for ideals I the other part
It should come down to showing
R (+) IJ = I (+) J
Any ring without IBN would also be an example, as long as you don't have R=R^n for all n, right
In the only examples I know you do have that though
Same
I do actually wonder if any examples exist that are only part of the way
Like say only even powers are isomorphic
The primary example I know is End(F^N) for some field F, and that has R=R^2
Anyway for this, so every ideal is uniquely a product of prime ideals, so enough to show the case where J is prime.
Then I want to show I/IJ = R/J, i.e. that I/IJ is 1d... [Okay I guess localizing at J does the trick]
i feel like you should be able to do this with leavitt path algebras if i remember its properties correctly
(disclaimer: i know practically nothing about LPAs but the idea sounds pretty similar to what i've read off someone's poster awhile back)
so that ring would automatically be noncommutative right
yeah
proofs involving the adjugate of a matrix are ones i will never wrap my head around
i dont know why we should expect such a thing to exist lol
Yes, necessarily
Found this
LK(Rn) is the LPA of graph with one vertex and n loops
So presumably it would have R = R^n
Only works for commutative rings, so you probably shouldn't expect it 
that is true 
ye
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1410.1835
there's an interesting more general version here in prop 4.4
Oh this is fun
It's my motivation for asking about monoids actually
Yeah this is a step in the classification of fg modules over a Dedekind domain
Yeah, IIRC for any m and n there exists a ring R such that R^a = R^b only if a-b is divisible by n and a, b ≥ m. Don't remember a reference though.
Ok coolio
this is leavitt's theorem. there's a reference in the arxiv i sent above (see theorem 1.4)
Oh yes, that's perfect.
Pog
I like ts pfp
Another approach is to show that you can choose a representative of I which is an ideal (not fractional ideal) which coprime to J. (Indeed use CRT to choose an a whose divisibility by prime powers is just right to ensure aI is an ideal coprime to J.) Now I/IJ = R/J follows by CRT.
Once you know this (and the rest of the classification) you get that the Grothendieck group is ℤ (+) Cl(R). More strongly, it is generated by the rank-1 projectives which correspond to (1, [I]). Hence the "Grothendieck monoid" is {0} ∪ ℤ_+ ⨯ Cl(R), which I find interesting (that it's this particular "cone" in the group).
(Although in general I believe the monoid need not be cancellative (e.g. if there are non-free stably free projectives), so it's not a submonoid of the group.)
You can also include torsion, i.e., do K_0(fg) instead of K_0(fg projective) as a monoid.
In this case you get [R/I] + [R/J] = [J/IJ] + [R/J] = [R/IJ] (aliter: because [R/p1^k1...pn^kn] = k1 [R/p1] + ... + kn [R/pn]). So the torsion part is replaceable by one cyclic module. Similarly [R/I] + [IJ] = [J/IJ] + [IJ] = [J] for coprime ideals I, J - but for any fractional ideal class K we can choose a representative of the form aK = IJ with I, J coprime ideals by CRTing the a to multiply by (or by weak approximation if you prefer).
(BTW note that we don't have the freedom to modify I appearing in [R/I] by a principal ideal the way we do for K in [K].)
Hence any module is equivalent to [R/I] for an ideal I (if rank 0) or [R^{n-1} (+) I] for an ideal class I ∈ Cl(R) (if rank n > 0). I am pretty sure these are unique, i.e., there are no more relations, but need to prove this.
Assuming, this K_0 = the previous K0, but the {0} is replaced by the free monoid on the set of prime ideals. The addition is given by adding ideals in that torsion part as the (inverse) ideal class of rank 0 (that is, [R/I] is added as (0, [I]^{-1}) in ℤ ⨯ Cl(R)). In particular, [R/aR] is non-cancellative and invisible in the Grothendieck group.
K_0 monoid for fg modules over a Dedekind domain
Hi everyone 👋 Is anyone here currently looking into the topological constraints of the Exceptional Jordan Algebra (h_3(\mathbb{O}))?
I've been exploring how the Albert matrix applies to Trace Dynamics. Interestingly, the non-associative geometry seems to rigidly lock into exactly 3 fermion generations without any extra parameters.
Would love to get some insights from the algebra experts here on the math side of things before I share my preprint. Anyone open for a quick chat about this?
Just wanted to check something quickly
Let's say I have two chain maps phi1: A --> B, phi2: B --> C.
Octahedral axiom says there's an exact triangle cone(phi1) --> cone(phi2 \circ phi1) ---> cone(phi_2) --> cone(phi1)[-1] (sorry for using homological grading)
If phi2 is a quasi-iso, this immediately implies by analyzing the LES in homology this triangle induces that cone(phi1) ---> cone(phi2 \circ \phi1) is a quasi-iso
Is my reasoning all correct? I feel like I'm missing some subtlety
Never apologise for homological grading
I agree
In Prismatic Potatos I trust
The way I would think of it is basically that you have uh
A -> B
|| |
A -> C
You have some square and this induces a map between the cones. Since A -> A and B -> C are quasiisos the map between cones is too
e.g. via the 5 lemma and LES if you are working with the derived category, if you want
or: ∞-categorically, cone is cofibre which has a universal property to this effect, analogous to cokernels in an abelian category
Ah, are you thinking of the cone here as a pushout?
Uh well here I guess maybe you need to be careful like replacing your map and then doing it as a literal pushout (but also it models the homotopy cofiber/pushout which is what I was actually thinking)
Ah my bad, thanks!!
Yeah, this is another nice way of seeing this. Thanks for the tip!
Always apologise for homological grading
The most important category has homologically nonnegative stuff
Do you guys have any nice examples of path algebras that are not finite representation type other than the polynomial ring?
the ones that come from the euclidean diagrams (extended dynkin diagrams) are in some sense well-understood. these are called the tame quivers (more generally, one has the tame algebras) and they have the nice property that their indecomposables can be described as one-parameter families and isolated points
another one beside the jordan quiver you just mentioned (polynomial ring) is the kronecker quiver (two vertices with a two arrows from one vertex to the other one). iirc, the one-parameter families of indecomposables have some kind of parametrization in terms of P^1
path algebras get not as nice very quickly though without imposing some relations on the quiver because not finite-type and not tame-type give rise to wild-type algebras where classification of the indecomposables is hopeless (see: tame-wild dichotomy). an example of this is the quiver with a single vertex and two loops (you get k<x, y>) and classifying representations here is equivalent to classifying pairs of square matrices up to conjugation
yes i like this one
problem is that im giving a talk on representations of finite algebras, and introduce gabriel's theorem to a bunch of undergrads
i want to illustrate gabriel's theorem both by showing the path algebras induced by dynkin diagrams are finite representation types and some non-dynkin diagram is not finite representation type
itzsomebody what kinda math do u do
i think the polynomial ring is a great example but I was hoping for one where the underlying module isnt a vector space
wait are you the person who wrote on r/math about this exact same thing lol
i do algebraic combinatorics mostly
but i also like reading about random rep theory things
Sheesh
kronecker is pretty interesting. the indecomposables can be described very explicitly
I don’t think u do the type of algebra I like
🤣
Unless you like the Stanley Reisner stuff which I might be able to talk about
SR is on my bucket list of things to learn properly
will certainly give you a ping sometime if you wanna kill some time haha
I only barely know the theory
I learned it at a summer school last summer
And my general comm alg knowledge doesn’t help too much for that sorta things haha
A basic result in module theory is that a semisimple module is a direct sum of simple modules (for the purposes of this question, it doesn't matter whether this is by definition). There is also a "coordinate-free" formulation of this statement: if M is semisimple, M = (+)_V M_V (⨯) V, where M_V = Hom(V, M) is the "multiplicity" space: a vector space canonically parametrising the copies of V in M that can be used to decompose it.
Is there an analogous "coordinate-free" formulation of the classification of finitely generated (say torsion) modules over a PID (or Dedekind domain)?
I guess you can consider the map
R/p^n -> R/p^n+1 (+) R/p^n-1
Applying Hom(-, M) and taking cokernel should give you a R/p vector space with dimension equal to the number of summands of R/p^n in M
Then you just need to turn the vector space into a free R/p^n module somehow
I guess you could do projective cover. It's not functorial, but I guess this decomposition shouldn't be functorial anyway
My goal is kind of to understand what is functorial, but yeah, it is an important observation that the decomposition simply isn't functorial/natural.
what are the main motivations for quantum groups?
Funcoriality of classification of finitely generated modules over a PID
I believe the initial motivation was to develop continuous deformations of semisimple Lie algebras/algebraic groups, since the latter is discretely parameterized.
The category of Lie algebras is equivalent to the category of certain Hopf algebras (enveloping algebras). Also, the category of algebraic groups over a given field is equivalent to the category of cocommutative Hopf algebras over that field (hyperalgebras). This leads to continuous deformations of Hopf algebras via a parameter q, such that when you specialize q at appropriate values you get back your original hyperalgebra/enveloping algebra.
Also, if you let your quantum group be non-commutative and non-cocommutative, this provides noncommutative generalizations of algebraic groups. These are fundamental objects in noncommutative geometry.
To be more precise: by duality, cocommutativity of the hyperalgebra is equivalent to commutativity of the coordinate ring of the algebraic group, so if you want some gadget that is the algebraic group except noncommutative (which can't be done in usual algebraic geometry since your rings must be commutative), you can go to the category of Hopf algebras and relax the cocommutativity requirement on the hyperalgebra. Equivalently, you can relax the commutativity requirement on the ring of functions, since it is dual to the hyperalgebra.
That is, the category of algebraic groups embeds in a larger category, and you can "do algebraic geometry" in that larger category where you allow noncommutativity.
What if in Tannaka-Krein duality we consider representations into GL_n(k) for some other field k other than C? Since it's about compact groups, maybe a starting point is when k is a (Hausdorff nondiscrete) locally compact field, these are the local fields. For example, suppose G, H are (Hausdorff) compact groups and that there exists an equivalence of categories Rep(G, k)-->Rep(H, k), k some local field, that is continuous in some sense (I think?), respects tensor products, and respects dual representations. Does F induce an isomorphism G-->H of topological groups?
References on this subject are appreciated
for which rings R does M being a projective R-module imply that M is a free R-module? the wikipedia page says R being a (skew) field, PID, and local ring, but this isn't exhaustive
your question got me curious, so I started googling and came across this paper. Haven't taken a close look yet, but seems relevant.
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1812.02452
Seems like Theorem B answers the question for finite group schemes over k.
What exactly is it that fails for modules, why are we introduced to vector spaces before those?
Could you maybe list a few nice things we get for VS but not for modules?
Vector spaces are semisimple, so whenever you have U < V you get V = U (+) W for some W.
Vector spaces are free, meaning every vector space has a basis.
These are the key two properties vs have that modules don't have in general
Thanks
An example to keep in mind could be
Z/4 (as a Z module)
Z/2 is a submodule (as {0, 2}), but Z/4 is not Z/2 (+) something.
It's also not free, i.e. doesn't have a basis
I don't think an exhaustive list really exists, but you can add polynomial rings over a field and free algebras to the list
Another thing to keep in mind: Vector spaces are classified uniquely by their dimension. It's possible to have rings where free modules don't have a good notion of dimension
i.e. the size of a basis isn't unique
Im kind of new to modules (in the end they are almost VS though so I guess some intuition just comes from those..?); it seems they are closely related to k-algebras by Noether normalisation:
This is a very specific type of module
This is definitely not something fhat exists in general
Algebras over fields and modules over those have some very nice properties
Like you're starting with a k-Algebra here so I'm not sure what you mean by they're related to k-Algebras
I guess I shouldve said it the other way around
We start with a k-algebra and end up with a module
General modules over general rings are going to have some wacky pathological behaviours
They're related in the sense that you can consider modules over an algebra. Otherwise there isn't really a special relationship per say
An algebra is already a module. What we're doing here is finding a new ring over which that module is finitely generated
And in fact we can find algebraically independent elements that generate a ring that does this!
Oh
The distinction here is that finitely generated describes each structure
So f.g. algebra means it's finitely generated as an algebra
i.e. there are finitely many elements whose products generate the entire thing as a module
f.g. module means it's finitely generated as a module already
So a good example is k[x] is finitely generated as a k-algebra, just by x
But it's an infinite dimension (i.e. not f.g. ) vector space
Right, thanks!
You'll often see in the literature "finite algebra" to mean "algebra that is a f.g. module"
crazy
yes lol
Is there any group version of the classification of indecomposable representations of a quiver of finite (or tame) type?
For example, apparently the list of indecomposable representations of the Borel subgroup of SL2 is parametrised by finite arithmetic progressions of integers with difference 2. Which IG is closer to the classification for SL2 than the path algebra of A2 (which would be closer to the Borel of GL2), TBH, so maybe not that great of an analogy.
Hi everyone! Can you please help me review this paper. This paper contains pure mathematics and modern physics. Among the mathematics found in this paper are the Hermitian matrix, h_3(\mathbb{O}), Shirshov-Cohn Theorem, characteristic equation of matrices, and Jordan identity and I have submitted this paper on OSF. I am waiting for your response. Below is the link:https://osf.io/nszmw
If there is a problem with the link opening etc. below is the file
I recommend reading the first file or Neutrino Seesaw before going to the second file.
For (a), I can confirm that the hint works. Where are you getting stuck? (b) is I guess just an exercise in applying (a).
I guess this isn't what you asked, but if k is an alg closed field of characteristic p and G is a finite group then kG has finite rep type if
the p-sylow subgroup is cyclic
tame for p = 2 and the sylow subgroup dihedral or generalized quaternion
And wild in all other cases
Is there a construction of the quiver (with relations) it's equivalent to in these cases or is it like a non-constructive proof?
OK maybe that's too much
It's the same as computing irreps and their Ext's
The proofs are quite constructive, but I'm not sure what you're asking exactly.
For cyclic you can compute all the modules quite easily. In the wild case it's not particularly hard to give an explicit wild family.
The tame case I'm not sure about
I see. I just meant that if we know the quiver in the finite/tame case then we can list the indecomposables (more or less), so this answer is satisfying.
In class, the proof of complete reducibility of semisimple lie algebras includes this step. I understand the idea but I don't know why such a decomposition into W_\lambda exists in the first place. I am also confused on whether this decomposition is over every possible linear functional \lambda : < C_V > \to C or not. I'll really appreciate it if someone could explain the direct sum here.
For some context:
C_V is the Casimir element corresponding to the irreducible representation V. This part of the proof basically shows Ext(C, U) = 0 for any subrepresentation U.
Part 1 referred to at the end is the claim that a representation V is trivial if every casimir element acts nilpotently on it.
And I get everything that comes after the decomposition. I just don't see why this decomposition exists.
IG as follows: note that (i) A := <C_V> is a commutative algebra (ii) C_V's generate A. I will only use these two facts about the representation.
Now because A is commutative you can simultaneously upper-triangularise its matrices, say in a basis e1, ..., en. I'll need to be more explicit about this. We can decompose W into generalised eigenspaces for C_V1 (pick some V1). By commutativity, A preserves each of them.
Decompose each of them into gen eigenspaces for some C_V2. Again each piece is preserved by A. Repeat. This terminates (there can be at most dim W pieces), at which point you have a decomposition of W into A-stable subspaces W_i each of which has the following property:
For each C_V, W_i is a single generalised eigenspace for C_V, say with eigenvalue l_{i,V}.
Moreover, different pieces have to give different tuples (l_{i,V})_V by the way we constructed them.
In fact, for each i, there is an algebra homomorphism l_i : A → ℂ such that l_{i,V} = l_i(C_V). (Fun fact: I believe this can be false in positive characteristic if the matrices don't commute.) To see this, simultaneously upper-triangularise on W_i, then the first basis vector is a common eigenvector for all C_V's, hence for A. The eigenvalues on that vector define l_i : A → ℂ.
This gives the desired decomposition (check that W_i in my notation is equal to W_{l_i} in your source's).
i see thank you so much!
consider the functor F from R-mod to (s)CAlg_R that send an R-module to its exterior power. then, the functor G that sends A = A0 \oplus A1 to A1 is the right adjoint of F. is it true that, in general, F has no left adjoint? the problem I am solving requires that R is a field k of characteristic not 2 (i.e, in this case F has a right adjoint but no left adjoint), but I believe this holds for generally for rings R (?)
This is true yes.
If it preserved limits then it would preserve products, which it doesn't. Indeed it doesn't even send 0 to 0 (the terminal objects)
any ideas on how to do this? i found a proof online(second picture) but exercise was in the section on classification theorem of equivalence class of extensions and H^2(G;A) so im wondering if there is something else taht I was suppose to do
that's the natural thing to do
Maybe sidestepping the problem, but the only m for which such a G exists is m=2 right?
So maybe that simplifies it
yes i think thats true, i will probably just go with something similar to what the second picture had in mind
Lmao I guess you're right yea
Hello everyone! Idk how "advanced" this question is, something borderline I guess.
Let $R$ be an UFD with infinitely many prime elements, $K$ be its field of fractions, and $A$ be a commutative $K$-algebra. I want to show that $A$ isn't finitely generated as $R$-algebra.
Suppose otherwise. Then $A=R[a_1, \ldots , a_n]$ of some $a_k\in A$. Consider a $K$-basis ${e_i}{i\in I}\subset A$. Then there exist a finite subset ${i_1,\ldots , i_m}\subset I$ s.t. $a_k=\sum{l=1}^m{\frac{p_{kl}}{q_{kl}}e_{i_l}$. Thus $\frac{1}{q'}\notin A$ if $\gcd(q' , q_{kl})=1$, a contradiction.
Is this statement even true? If so, is my proof correct? And is there any more elegant way to prove it?
Mitya
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i don't know if you've justified that 1/q' is not in A
but if A is unital then it contains an isomorphic copy of K so it's probably cleaner to just argue K isn't finitely generated and refer to specific fractions in K
Yes, $A$ is unital, of course. And yes, it's really easy to establish via close to ours argument that $K$ is not a f.g. $R$-algebra.
But as far as I know there is no "transitivity property" for finite generated algebras, i.e. the statement "Let $R$ be a commutative ring, $A,B$ be commutative $R$-algebras s.t. $A\subset B$. If $A$ is not f.g. $R$-algebra, then $B$ is not f.g. too" is simply false
Mitya
You can use the Artin-Tate lemma with a little work:
||A is R-algebra so also K-algebra. Then by Noether normalization A is integral over some polynomial ring. Then integral + fg gives finite, so Artin Tate tells you K[x1, ...] is fg over R[x1, ...]||
||And then you're inverting infinitely many primes in a UFD, so same proof for K not being fg will work||
Thank you, I'd elaborate on this a bit later
This assumes R is Noetherian though I guess
In which case I guess it's not too hard to prove directly
We may consider the set of all denominators in R[a_k] and notice that there is no way to obtain an element 1/q' because every element of this ring have a form P(a_k).
Formal explanation may be a bit messy but I believe that it's somewhat obvious
Consider Z[1/2] with chosen basis {1/2}
Then the is no denominator in the relation, but 1/2 is in Z[1/2]
(of course this isn't a true example as Z[1/2] doesn't contain Q, but it's not adressed in your proof)
Fair point, we may try to find e_l s.t. e_l is integral over R
Well, I'm not sure why you would expect to be able to find such
Hmmm, this statement seems to be not as trivial as I thought.
Maybe we should consider a finite generated faithful $R$-algebra $A$, the inclusion map $\iota \colon R\to A$ and find the maximal multiplicative subset $S\subset R\setminus {0}$ s.t. there exist an induced homomorphism $\hat{\iota}\colon S^{-1}R\to A$?
Mitya
Hmm, okay. By taking out a maximal ideal you may assume A is a field. Then by Zariski it's a finite field extension of K. Then you can pick an integral basis.
Btw, is it okay here to use TeX during the conversation as I did?
Yeah, that's great
Anyway, once you have an integral basis your original proof should work. Just invert the denominators and boom
I tend to believe that the following approach may be useful.
Let $R$ be a Noetherian UFD and let $R\subset R[a_1, \ldots, a_n]=:A$ be a commutative ring extension. Then $A\simeq R[x_1, \ldots , x_n]/(P_1, \ldots P_m)$.
Recall that our assumptiosns imply that there exists multiplicative monoids isomorphisms $R\setminus {0}\simeq R^{\times}\times N$, where $N$ is a free monoid generated by nontrivial prime principle ideals of $R$. So the multipilcative subsets $R^\times \subset S\subset R$ are in one-to-one correspondence with subsets of prime principle ideals.
I tend to believe that for our algebra $A$ there exists a maximal multiplicative subset $R^\times \subset S_0\subset R$ s.t. there exists an induced homomorphism $S_0^{-1}R\to A$. And that $S_0$ is a finitely generated free monoid
Mitya
what is the definition of the Picard group of a Dedekind domain?
it's canonically isomorphic to the ideal class group for dedekind domains
but for a general commutative ring A the picard group is just the group of isomorphism classes of A-modules invertible under tensor product
as you'd expect
i made a blog post summarizing everything i have thought about in regards to something ive briefly posted about here before, i am curious how readable it is, so that i can better communicate my ideas
https://frank-9976.github.io/untitled.html
Fun fact this is the same as the group of Morita Self-equivalences, i.e. progenerators A that give a morita Equivalence R->R
Such a progenerator is just an invertible module
oh yea ShiN, this is an elaboration on that thing i talked about to you
Lol maybe this is more of a french question than an algebra question but what's meant when the french say a quadratic form is "paire" ('even' i guess)?
Actually in this context the form is Z-valued so i guess it literally means even aha nvm
I think Pic(R) just sees the R-linear equivalences. The full automorphism class group of R-Mod is Pic(R) semidirect Aut(R).
Oh yes I was considering self-equivalences of R as an R-algebra
let us take a canonical module K of R, which is not an ideal. is there a way to obtain a ring R' such that K is a canonical ideal? the idealization does not work (for R cm+local) bc then it becomes gorenstein and the canonical module is itself, not K
having K be an ideal is equivalent to R_p being gorenstein for all minimal primes, i'm not aware of a canonical construction of a ring R' where that is satisfied but R' isn't gorenstein, and don't have a reason to expect one
Wait I think I dont completely get the question. I have a ring R and its canonical module and the question is if I can find another ring with an ideal isomorphic as modules to R’s canonical module?
I feel like there might be a trivial answer to this but I can’t quite find it off the top of my head
trivial may suffice, this came up while thinking about transfer of homological properties of amalgamations, which generally require us to glue through the canonical module/ideal
so i was thinking: if i have a module but not an ideal, maybe i might apply the theorem after some "idealization"
Has a cohomology for a group G acting on a commutative monoid M been defined and/or studied?
@hallow bone IDK if you've seen something like this; the definition I have in mind basically replaces subgroups with congruences when taking kernels, which makes it pretty UA-pilled.
how would you take the cohomology then?
That's what I'm hoping someone else has figured out 
because i know how to go the other way; cohomology of monoids (its just the Quillen(?) cohomology of Beck-modules over monoids)
I'm not sure, but I think this weakens G to a monoid, whereas I want to weaken the structure on M.
Maybe relevant:
I do feel it's not too much oh a stretch because nonabelian cohomology (where you let M be a group instead of an abelian group) has been considered (at least in small degrees) and the cochains are pointed sets or stuff instead of abelian groups and coboundary homomorphisms are replaced by coboundary actions of the group C^0 on C^1 (which you can view as C^0 mapping to relations on C^1 and quotienting by the generated equivalence relation)
or something vaguely like that
hmm
commutative monoids are interesting because you can localize them very easily, right
I guess you could just take the usually construction, and for each relation move all the negative terms to the other side and consider it a relation on monoids
I've never seen anything higher than n=2 considered in the nonabelian case
That's exactly what I did. But I don't think cohomology can be defined as easily as the same thing. In fact I think each H^n(G, M) is actually a monoidal(?) category (in the usual case, it's a disjoint union of groupoids, one for each element of classical H^n, with automorphism group in bijection with Z_{n-1}).
Probably there's no point doing more theory beyond this before computing some examples.
Do you have some other perspective motivating this? Or why do you say H^n(G, M) is a category?
I think the low dim results like H^1(G, M) = Hom(G, M) for trivial action and H^2(G, M) being extensions
M -> E -> G
should generalize to monoids with the usual construction
Not a perspective, just trying to make definitions. The coboundary map goes from Functions(G^n, M) to Functions(G^{n+1}, M ⨯ M). In particular we can define the n-cocycles Z^n as the preimage of the identity (a congruence! on M, not an element) and these are cochains valued in M, but the coboundaries are cochains valued in M⨯M. The only way I could come up with to relate these is to view coboundaries as morphisms between cochains (using a condition which showed up in an application), which I think leads to a category I can call H^n (I have to check this).
I was thinking more:
Define Z^n(G, M) to be
functions G^n -> M with
g1phi(g2, ...) + phi(g1, g2g3, ...) + ... = phi(g1g2, ...) + ...
And let H^n(G, M) be Z^n(G, M) modulo the relations
g1phi(g2, ...) + phi(g1, g2g3, ...) + ... = phi(g1g2, ...) + ...
Then this aggrees with usual group cohomology when M is an abelian group
Oh wait
I was taking G a monoid at some point
That's why I got a category
Yes I think you are correct
Shouldn't work in what way? Or what does that mean?
I'm guessing I found a category which is some truncation of their higher groupoid (and it's not a groupoid because something became a monoid)
Did the moderators actually ban the use of five-letter word's in this server?
words
Huh
words
??
i thought it was over
i have postgrad role
words
is "words" the only five-letter word not banned
Banning "grou p" is really too much
especially in this channel 💀
I have postgraduate though
This is aprl fool joke
NGL I barely know what that means and I definitely don't know how to do it.
Jeez its tuff
oh hell nah im taking the five letter penalty instead of having poop colored name
The fact this had no 5 letter word
So tuff
yea 😎 im cool like dat
this is so fax
omga my name has changed colour
Hi, Let (R= \mathbb{Q}[x,y,z]) I am trying to find (\mathrm{Tor}^R_i(R/(x+y^2), R/(y+z`2))) I have a porjective resolution of the first argument: (0 \to R \overset{\cdot (x+y^2)}{\to} R \to R \to R/(x+y^2) \to 0 ), but I am stuck at finding the image and kernel of the non-zero morphism to get the homology
mh_le
Correction: Hi, Let (R= \mathbb{Q}[x,y,z]) I am trying to find (\mathrm{Tor}^R_i(R/(x+y^2), R/(y+z^2))) I have a projective resolution of the first argument: (0 \to R \overset{\cdot (x+y^2)}{\to} R \to R/(x+y^2) \to 0 ), but I am stuck at finding the image and kernel of the non-zero morphism to get the homology after tensoring with ( R/(y+z^2)).
mh_le
So you tensor and get
0 -> R/(y + z^2) -x+y^2-> R/(y + z^2)
Then the homology would be things in R/(y + z^2) annihilated by x+y^2
thanks 🙂
Does that follow maybee from induction and depthh drop by 1 afterr quotient by regular
I understand the prooff for the firstt cohomology but I don'ttt see the idea for generalizing it to higher cohomology groups. Couldd someone explain? (writingg this way bcuz of the wordleee ban)
I believe this is not true? From what I remember, H^1, H^2 are zero for fd irreps of a ss Lie algebra but further H's need not be.
it made it to lie algebras by jacobson
i mean i canttt provide a counterexample nor provee it
!wordlespoilers
Type ,iam 1488687375340273675 to get immunity from the wordle spoilers filter!
,iam 1488687375340273675
,iam 1488687375340273675
hello there
So like in the proof of the Whitehead lemma you construct a Casimir operator Gamma whose trace is nonzero. Then as M is irreducible Gamma is just multiplication by a scalar, so it's an automorphism of M.
On the trivial module k, Gamma acts as 0 (since it's just a linear combination of products of things in L). So on
Ext^i(k, M) = H^i(L, M)
Gamma is both an automorphism and 0.
Something like R[xi,xi^-1] is the same as Rxi right
I guess if you write R[xi, xi^-1] one would assume xi isn't already an element of R
yes, gra de and de pth both drop by 1 when you mod by a non-unit nzd
should follow from some long ex act sequence of Ext or something
if that is even needed
i can't send as a link because the filter
i suppose because it has h t t p s
Yeah
,iam 1488687375340273675
Gave you the Not Very April selfrole.
im trying to make the character table for D4 but im kinda lost on how chi2, chi3, chi4 would work? i tried to use the commutatorgroup so you get that D4/{1,a²} would be isomorph to V4 but im not seeing how your characters 2,3,4 are defined in either V4 or C2 x C2
i didnt do chi5 yet because i wanted to do the linear ones first
Does D4 have 4 or 8 elements?
OK. So your current goal is to find 4 1-d characters of C2 ⨯ C2?
Let's try it with C2 ⨯ C2. Each C2 has 2 characters and you can multiply any character for the 1st C2 with any character for the second C2 to get a character for the product (actually this will work for any finite product of finite groups, even for non-1-d characters).
Question: In general for a commutative ring homomorphism f: A → B, it is not true for I a radical <sub-A-bimodule> of A that the extension f(I) (I really mean B f(I)) to B is also radical. However, is this true in the special case that A, C are algebras over a <commutative ring with (0) maximal> with C reduced, and B = A (⨯) C?
i havent seen radicals
Understandable. That was my question, for anyone in this channel to answer. My response to your question is on top of it.
oh wow im blind lol
commutative ring with 0 maximal 
would f here be the natural map into B?
i believe you can construct a counterexample if k is not perfect
Ah, (A (⨯) C)/(im(I)) = A/I (⨯) C so naturally I precisely need C to be geometrically reduced.
maybe in general you look over all geometric points
By defn, it mean C remains reduced over any fld ext
and if C is a fld ext (and perhaps for any C), this can be checked just over alg closure (or perfect closure)
I want to compute depth of that k[Delta]xi ring. Is that the same as computing depth of k[lk{xi}] at its irrelevant ideal?
I also dont think I know exactly why in the standard graded case (so R0 is a field?) we can test CM by only checking CM at the irrelevant ideal
Anyone reading dummit and foot abs alg book?
yeah
I am trying to show that if g is semisimple as a Lie algebra and V is a nontrivial representation, then the cohomology groups of g are trivial. I got to the point where is am trying to show that the pullback of the Casimir of \kappa is trivial. Is this reasonable? Also how would one do this?
Ive used semisimplicity quite a bit to get to this point
i have resolved my question
Quadratic formula
That doesn’t help
Bro I didn’t learn the quadratic formula
lol
If one knows a quadratic, they know the formula through a simple application of noggin
by that logic, if one knows a quintic, they know the formula through a trivial application of noggin
Someone should try this
yeah, every finite group is solvable!
If one knows what a polynomial is one knows all of Galois theory by a little application of noggin
Yeah I can solve quintic
prove it!
x^5-1 is pretty easy, and all other quintics are like this but with at most, an easy to solve quadric in there
The solution to a quintic q is the set {x \in \mathbb C | q(x) = 0}
the only thing galois theory shows is that Galois can't solve 5th degree polynomials. however i am not a french teenager so i can do it
Yeah like
I’m english and the fundamental theorem of England is “the French are always wrong”
wait until you find out the Fundamental Theorem of America ([Washington, 1776])
I love when random niche fields have a fundamental theorem
I saw “the fundamental theorem on simultaneous resolution”
Like the horseshoe lemma?
It’s like, if you have a one parameter deformation of a singularity you can resolve the whole thing at once in some way I don’t understand nor remember
This is one of the main goals of algebraic geometry, I don’t think it’s niche
The more you know
i wonder if its the french part or the teenager part that tripped galois up
French part 
I have a set of Lie algebras $\overline{\mathbb{F}q}\otimes{\mathbb{F}_q}\mathfrak{g}$ over $\overline{\mathbb{F}_q}$ and I would like to classify their $\mathbb{F}_q$-forms using Galois descent, does anyone know how to do this in practice? I'm not familiar with the method.
Callie Wallie
This isn't an area I'm that interested in so it's not necessary I have all the rigorous details, just a rough sketch or program of how to do this.
This is for any characteristic $p>3$ and it's based on the Strade-Premet classification
Callie Wallie
this is what Galois cohomology exists for!
I would look at some of the constructions of twisted forms of finite groups of Lie type for some closely related inspiration here (e.g. Steinberg groups, Suzuki groups, Ree groups...)
While some of the details are slightly different between the cases of algebraic groups and Lie algebras, the overall idea for the classification of twisted forms in terms of Galois descent is the same; in each case you have a classification of the split forms (e.g. in terms of Chevalley groups and their corresponding Dynkin classification) and then you can construct nontrivial twisted forms of these by considering automorphisms of the corresponding Dynkin diagrams
What is the best way to check given decomposition is minimal or not?
Remove one ideal and see that the equality doesn't hold anymore I guess
okay i got it, i think all are isolated ideal

