#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 8 of 1
But yeah, I feel like the approach sort of falls short at the point where M and N might both not be flat
But yes ok, I mean tbh I think flatness is kind of irrelevant. My hint would be to consider it all modulo maximal ideal as you do in the flat case
Like in the case that A is a field, this is standard, so try to reduce it to that
Dimension of tensor product is product
Oh yeah ok
Or like every module over a field is faithfully flat
Cause they're all just sums of the field
can we formalize the condition of subjectivity for a "localization map" R \to S^-R
also what are the motivations to invert everything but a prime ideal (R_𝔭)
why would we want to turn a prime ideal into a maximal ideal
Well local rings are very rich
And the condition of being a prime ideal naturally gives you a multiplicative subset
But a lot of motivation comes from algebraic geometry as usual
Where local rings express the data about a certain subset of your variety/scheme and you want a localization operation to be able to extract that kind of information
I shouldn't be asking about non commutative cases, but is localization also a "technique" there?
might have to hold my horses and of now
Er good question and I think the answer is it's complicated lol
Non commutative algebra scares me ngl
have to open up Lam at some point, yeah it's scary as hell
also yeah, is there any significance for this case, as I'm completely unaware of the applications
do you study this algebra and cryptography in a undergraduate course
Uh idk about localizations lol
Tho ig if it's an advanced course then yeah
Cuz localization is ig more in the realm of commutative algebra
wait i never been to university before what do you typically study in an undergraduate course
Technically but it’s not super useful and it’s a fucking nightmare, assuming you can even do it
Ok I shouldn’t say it’s not super useful because it does have uses but it’s no where near as powerful as in the combative case
You can get a notion of localisation in non commutative rings under certain assumptions, but it’s no where near as simple as the commutative case of just slapping on some fractions
We only dealt with a special case in my noncom class and even that was pretty terrible lol
if you take an algebraic variety V of some kind we are interested in maps that look locally like a quotient of two polynomials (these are as "nice" as possible, think of it like the algebraic variant of differentiable / analytic functions), which are called regular functions. This means that every open subset has a set of functions with some local property attached to it, and thus it forms something called a sheaf.
With sheaves we like to know the "local behavior" of the functions at each some point; that is how functions defined on some neighborhood of a point x behave as we zoom in on x. It so happens that, when V is a variety, then you can attach a ring k[V] to it and points of V correspond to maximal ideals of V, and this local behavior at some point is captured by the localisation at its maximal ideal.
So localisation by a prime is an extension of the fairly concrete idea of "looking at a point" in classical algebraic geometry
hopefully it will make sense, oneday
you've got a whole concept called calculus of fractions apparently, which basically copes with the fact that things aren't commutative lmao
algebraic geometry is a beast of a subject
will it teach me cool algebra?
it will motivate a lot of it
would!
like localisation, I understand it pretty well now purely because I went out of my way and did classical algebraic geometry
because your base field is algebraically closed magic happens
You can read up on the basics of the Zariski topology (which is the topology in algebraic geometry). Dont need to do any exercises or whatnot to just get the idea. If you want to do some exercises, see Atiyah-Macdonald ch1, ch3
nice, currently trying to prove some proposition (exercise) from the book im reading, nothing mentioned from geometry as of now
yeah
i mean even just purely algebraically, localizing at a prime gives you a local ring which are super super nice to study
this one is nice
Is it because representatives of Ext^i(R/I^t, M) is given by kernel of some map between Hom(R/I^t, -), which I^t annihilates, and it is also given by kernel of some map between Hom(-, M), which Ann(M) annihilates?
Is there some theorem like, for k algebras R and S whenever the categories mod R and mod S are equivalent then the commutative algebras are isomorphic?
R and S are commutative right?
if so this holds for general commutative rings; see the center of a category
the center of the category R-Mod is isomorphic to Z(R), and equivalent categories have isomorphic centers
If I have polynomials $f_1, f_2, f_3,..., f_m \in \bQ[x_1,...,x_n]$ such that there exist polynomials $g_1, g_2, g_3,..., g_m \in \bC[x_1,...,x_n]$ such that $$f_1 g_1 + f_2 g_2 + ... + f_m g_m = 1$$ How can I show that $g_i \in \bQ[x_1,...,x_n]$ or at least there are polyonomials like $g_i$ that are with rational coefficients.
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
Adding onto what enpeace music said, you might be interested in something called Morita equivalence. Two commutative rings that are Morita equivalent are isomorphic, for the same reason enpeace said
goes to show how nice commutative rings are
Morita theory is cool.
does that study everything that follows from morita equivalence n such?
You can classify when RMod is equivalent to SMod as well as the types of equivalences
oh that is awesome
does it pop up "in the wild" i.e. have there been cases where it was easier using morita equivalence than showing the rings had certain properties in common?
poorly phrased question but i hope you get the idea
🙏
Wow thanks!
more generally you can think of RMod as an invariant of R and lots of the properties are reflected by this yes
Off-topic but @spice idol as a universal algebraist you might be interested in Morita theory for algebraic theories, where instead of RMod you compare categories of models of algebraic theories
does that exist?
thats pretty cool
im not very active in the category theory side of UA, tbh
and esp what im reading up on right now - tame congruence theory - is as far away from category theory as you can get (but i am hoping to change that in some way using polynomial representations)
do you have any resources for that?
borceux handbook of categorical algebra 2 discusses this i think
morita equivalence is most interesting in the noncommutative case imo (morita equivalent rings have isomorphic centers). theres a big field of representation theory that is only interested in rings up to morita equivalence - that is, studying module categories.
an important theorem is that every finite-dimensional associative k-algebra is morita equivalent to a path algebra modulo an admissible ideal. so this is why people look at quivers
i see, because most of the properties of a ring we care about are encoded in its representation structure?
hmhm okay
also schemes can be recovered from the quasi-coherent sheaves on them
this is sort of the motivation for noncommutative algebraic geometry
you can define Proj of a noncommutative ring via its module category
Isn’t it only interesting in the noncommutative case lol
It’s interesting in the commutative case in so far as knowing if rings are isomorphic or not is interesting lol
an isomorphism between rings seems easier to construct than an equivalence of categories
ino
im(naive)o
One would think
I want to learn more about morita stuff, I’d have probably done my masters thesis on it if I had stayed at edi
Let V and W be vector spaces and L a 1-dimensional vector space over a given field. Suppose for every l ∈ L \ {0}, I have an isomorphism pi_l: V → W and this has the property that pi_{tl}(tv) = pi_l(v) for non-zero scalars t. Is there a neat way to explain why this induces a canonical isomorphism from Hom(L, V) (or L* (⨯) V if you prefer) to W?
This can be done very explicitly: for f: L → V, let pi(f) = pi_v(fv) for any v. But I feel it should be possible to do it more abstractly.
Never mind: obviously we have pi^{-1}_{tl} = t pi^{-1}_l, so l ↦ pi^{-1}_l is linear, giving pi: L → Hom(W, V) or pi: L (⨯) W → V which can be shown to be an isomorphism.
I'm not sure why Wikipedia's definition of the tensor product of two modules is an abelian group. Other references I've read define it to be another module, which makes more sense to me. Is there an advantage to considering tensor products as abelian groups?
It depends on whether your ring is commutative or noncommutative.
If R is a commutative ring, the tensor product of R-modules can be given a natural R-module structure.
If R is a general non-commutative ring, then you have to distinguish left and right R-modules, and the tensor product of a right R-module and left R-module is an abelian group. To get natural module structures on the tensor product your original modules have to be bimodules.
Makes sense thanks. Is the abelian group operation addition of tensors?
For example, if M is an (S, R)-bimodule and N a left R-module then the S-module structure on M "survives" onto the tensor product and M (⨯)_R N is an S-module.
The intuition I've heard (from jagr actually) is that the tensor product M (x) N glues the right module structure of M to the left module structure of N and destroys them both in the process. If they are both bimodules then you're still left with a module structure on both sides
Yes, exactly!
I think I see that from the quotienting of the free abelian group
I always remember it like matrix multiplication, for getting the dimensions right
(Hom can also be thought of like this, except that the module structures on the domain are "reflected" in side.)
Not sure this is what youre asking, but you have things such that over an algebraically closed field every finite dimensional algebra is morita equivalent to a path algebra with admissible relations. So if you want to prove something about the module category of all findim algebras its enought o think about path algebras.
Similarly End(M) is morita equivalent to End(N) whenever addM = addN, so in situations where End(M) appears naturally you can simplify them quite a bit by reduicng to End(N) for some smaller module.
thats what i was looking for yes, thank you mr jagr man
ive never heard of add(M) before, huh
TIL that the projective dimension of C(x,y,z) as a module over C[x,y,z] is undecidable in ZFC
i can't delete it now, because you replied to it
there will just be two links
Ooh, very interesting!
anyone know how to prove this one
or just even like ... where one would start with seeing why this is true
Also, they must be isomorphic as R-modules?
Follows from 3)
do we have an isomorphism H_^i_m(M) (x) R_m \cong H^i_m(M) known then?
I havent thought about what 3) means yet
also H^i_mRm(Mm) = H^i_m(Mm) right
bro how do i write latex on here man
i been here for ages and still dont write with latex here
Oh I misunderstood
I guess basically means it is enough to show that R \ m acts invertibly on H^i_m(M)
whats goin on lowkey

communist algebra
Is there a metric vectorspace (V,b) over a field F such that for some field extension K/F, Cl(V,b) is a K-algebra, but is a clifford algebra over F and not K?
There are many easy examples of the (almost) converse, e.g. Complex Clifford Algebras which aren't Real Clifford Algebras
H_m^i(M) (x)R Rm = H_m^i(M) ?
by 3), H_m^i(M) (x)R Rm = H^i_mRm(Mm) so i see that part
I've seen the claim that if complexes of R-modules C and D are quasi-iso to C' and D' respectively, then C (x) D is quasi iso to C' (x) D'
Is there anywhere I can find a proof of this claim?
This is false, or otherwise higher Tor groups of modules would always vanish
(Cause taking projective resolutions would not affect M (x)_R N up to quasi-iso)
Conversely if the modules involved are all projective then you are good (by uniqueness of projective resolutions)
I havent seen Tor in action anywhere yet. what is a good first application of it?
I have seen Ext now for defining depth and stuff
E.g. universal coefficient theorem in alg top as well as kunneth formula
This is from the book "hochschild cohomology for algebras". The claim is marked in red
Maybe the statement assumes some of the properties in the preceding theorems hold
Yes the C_n and C_n' being flat would make it ok
Ah ok, this wasn't clear at all since it was stated randomly in the book
It did seem too good to be true, which is why I asked you all
Basically the thing that has the nice property you want is the derived tensor product, whose homology groups are the Tor groups. Then when the C_n are flat this can be computed by the "usual" tensor product
(Like more generally this is cause you can use acyclic resolutions for derived functors)
By derived tensor product, do you mean taking a tensor product of a projective resolution of the corresponding chain complexes? Projective modules are flat, so this seems ok
Yes
Like using projective resolutions is really the most like fundamental thing and then it's a general theorem that you could also use acyclic resolutions up to quasi-iso
Is this B. Richter's book?
Fortunately in my subfield, we mainly work with complexes of F_2 vector spaces
We endow them with group actions often though, in which case doing things like applying coinvariants after taking a tensor product becomes tricky (unless the group is odd order in this context)
Curious
I now wonder what field this is aha
Sarah Witherspoon
smt cs related?
Ah sorry yes
(quantum) error correction
damn that is a surprising amount of abstract math there then, sounds really cool :0
Well like ig finite fields are used for Hamming codes n stuff right idk
All my stupid questions the last few weeks is because I'm doing a project in quantum error correctikn that's making me question all the hom alg I learned a while back
But it's been deepening my understanding of material I already learned, so that's always good
yeah but I wouldn't've imagined chain complexes and stuff would come up, but ig i dont really know what they do there
I haven't checked out the book tho
No they haven't been stupid lol it's ok
But yes over a field all is good
if I may ask, how does hom alg pop up there?
Tensor product of chain complexes were used for one of the most major breakthroughs in classical and quantum error correction a few years ago
hom alg over a field.. one can dream..
Oh very nice
Lol yes
The study of graded vector spaces
It's a bit silly at first but gets a lot more interesting
A classical error correcting code is defined by a "parity check matrix" H with entries in F2 whose kernel defines your encoded information. This is just a chain complex with one arrow representing H
A "quantum (CSS) code" is an error correcting code specified by two such parity check matrices H_X and H_Z representing your Pauli X and Z operators acting on your quantum system. They must satisfy H_X H_Z^T = 0, hence it's a chain complex with two arrows
The homology in the middle of the complex (and it's dual) is your space of logical operators, which are the errors that are problematic for your encoded information.
Then you can play games like taking tensor products of chain complexes to get other codes. These constructions were essential in showing the existence of "asymptotically good quantum LDPC codes". Classical LDPC codes, for context, are used in Wifi and 5G for example
There's also lots of other tools from algebra and algebraic geometry that can appear in (quantum) error correction. For instance, QR codes use Reed-Solomon error correcting codes, which are based on evaluations of polynomials over finite fields. Algebraic geometry codes have also been used in QEC recently for certain important protocols for doing universal quantum computation
hmm, that is awesome
I've been meaning to go through some of this book for example:
https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-540-76878-4
one of the letters in CSS teaches intro abstract algebra almost every year at my school and he throws in quantum error correction stuff. i took it the one rare year he didnt teach it
my professor was more commalg heavy though. big win for me personally
That sounds cool
Ah that's unfortunate. It's one of those fields that's practically very useful and is mathematically quite deep
Fair enough!
yeah would have been nice to brush paths with the field in any case
It's fairly easy to pick up if you have a good math background. The harder stuff for me is ironically the more practical and application-heavy side of things, but maybe that's just because I'm more theoretically minded
me when I'm trying to prove something and there's a counterexample of an algebra on a set with three elements and two unary operations 😭
reading etingof's book on lie groups and lie algebras right now
I've been stuck on this kinda weird exercise
etingof does not require this to be part of the definition of a (g,K)-module, which is a little bizarre but ok
instead, he requires
- K is connected
- there is a map Lie(K) -> g and Ad: K -> GL(g) such that the differential of the adjoint action is the adjoint action of Lie(K) on g
- as usual, the two actions of Lie(K) on M (one by differentiating K and the other by g) coincide
I can show that the derivateives of both sides with respect to g are the same, but I can't seem to conclude from there because we are not really looking at a stabilizer ...
Life lessons
What book is this?
Is V finite-dimensional?
I would suggest the following: g and V are K-reps; the condition says that the action map g ⨯ V → V is K-linear, or that K acts trivially on it as an element of the K-rep Hom(g (⨯) V, V). But I'm unsure if in your setting you can take tensors and homs of K-reps as K-reps.
I’m 80% sure this question goes here, so here goes. I’ll move it if not.
For n is a positive integer, I define a number x to be n-algebraic if it is the root of a polynomial of degree n with rational coefficients (this also works with integer coefficients, but I’m defining this with rational coefficients for reasons that will be clear in a minute). From here, I can make several assertions based on prior results:
- x is 1-algebraic iff x is rational
- All non real x are at least 2-algebraic
- x is computable by radicals if x is 4-algebraic or lower
Etc.
Now suppose I want to try to use this to extend to transcendental numbers. I define a number to be ∞-algebraic if it is the root of a convergent infinite series with rational coefficients. For example, π is ∞-algebraic because it is a root of the sine Maclaurin series. The number e is also ∞-algebraic with the series for LambertW(exp(1+x))-x https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4948131/power-series-where-the-number-e-is-a-root?noredirect=1&lq=1
Now, I have two questions:
- What is the accepted nomenclature for what I’m saying here, if any? I know for a fact that I’m not the first person to consider this kind of question. As a super basic example, this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4643919/power-series-for-functions-that-have-e-as-a-root problem calls what I’m calling ∞-algebraic an “algebraic sympathizer”
- That stack exchange question has an answer which claims that all real numbers are ∞-algebraic. Is there a way to restrict the definition of “∞-algebraic” to something like “an infinite series with rational coefficients that can be explicitly computed at each step” which would then yield a result of something like “An number is ∞-algebraic iff it is computable”?
I have been going at this question for weeks now and couldn't find anything.
Can we have a series of the form:
$$f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n$$
where $a_n$ are rationals and not all $0$ such th...
what does it mean for a vector space to be endowed with a quadratic form?
it means that you have a pair <V, f> where V is a vector space and f : V -> F is a quadratic form
Which, to explain that being “a solution exists”, means there’s a “quadratic form” which essentially corresponds to some kind of inner product
(That’s not ALL a quadratic form is)
(But it’s kind of the thing to think about when relating it to a vector space)
This n-algebraic idea is just asking for the degree of the extension [Q(x):Q].
I don't know enough about the latter question to comment
I think https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Field_extension might be useful here.
Given a field extension K ⊆ L (in your case ℚ ⊆ ℂ), and an element s ∈ L, write K(s) for the smallest subfield of L that contains both K and s. K(s) is a K-vector space (since in K(s) we can do addition, and multiplication by elements of K). The dimension of K(s) as a K-vector is called the degree of K(s) over K, and written [K(s):K].
If s is the root of a non-zero polynomial with coefficients in K, then the minimal degree of such a polynomial is [K(s):K].
So x ∈ ℂ being n-algebraic is the same as having [ℚ(x):ℚ] ≤ n, as @rare walrus mentions.
In mathematics, particularly in algebra, a field extension is a pair of fields
K
⊆
L
{\displaystyle K\subseteq L}
, such that the operations of K are those of L restricted to K. In this case, L is an extension field of K and K is a subfield of L. For example, under the usual notions of...
The hard part of considering ∞-algebraic, I think, is that it's no longer pure algebra (concerning sets with a bunch of n-ary operations, in this case fields, i.e. sets with 0, 1, +, -, and ⋅ satisfying a bunch of laws and in which all elements have a multiplicative inverse). Instead a norm |-| gets involved too, allowing convergence of infinite sequences and series to be considered.
when operations are no longer n-ary everything falls apart
All computable numbers would fall under this by using your approximation to make the coefficients of the power series
So as to make evaluating it at 1 spit out 0
So, appropriately rescale and approximate, and I think you should get it?
I dunno, maybe I’m making some obvious mistake ofc, but rational approximations with some careful tweaking should probably save you?
I’d think some approximating polynomials thing shouldn’t be too far from it, but trying to actually write it down idk if that one works
Does someone mind checking over this to see if this is true
Let $R$ be a commutative ring, $K$ a unital $R$-algebra with unit $e$. Let $f \in \mathrm{Hom}\mathrm{UnitRAlg}(K,R)$, basically a functional that distributes over multiplication. Consider the module $M = \ker(f) / \ker(f)^2$. \
For some $R$-module $H$, define the space $D_f(H) = { p \in \mathrm{Hom}\mathrm{RMod}(K,H) : \forall x,y \in K [p(xy) = f(x)p(y) + f(y)p(x)]}$. \\
Assume $g \in \mathrm{Hom}\mathrm{RMod}(M,H)$, then by passage through the quotient we can imagine $g \in \mathrm{Hom}\mathrm{RMod}(\ker(f),H)$. \\ Now define the projected map $g'(x) = g(x - f(x)e)$ on $K$, then $g' \in \mathrm{Hom}\mathrm{RMod}(K,H)$. Now for $x, y \in K$, we have $xy - f(xy)e = xy - f(x)f(y)e = xy - f(x)y + f(x)y - f(x)f(y)e = (x - f(x)e)y + f(x)(y - f(y)e) = (x - f(x)e)(y - f(y)e) + (x - f(x)e)f(y) + f(x)(y - f(y)e)$ thus $xy - f(xy)e \equiv (x - f(x)e)f(y) + f(x)(y - f(y)e) , \mathrm{mod } \ker(f)^2$ \\
$g'(xy) = g(xy - f(xy)e) = g((x - f(x)e)f(y) + f(x)(y - f(y)e)) = f(y)g'(x) + f(x)g'(y)$, so $g' \in D_f(H)$. \
Therefore, by linearity, $\phi : g(x) \mapsto g(x - f(x)e)$ is a module map $\mathrm{Hom}\mathrm{RMod}(M,H) \rightarrow D_f(H)$
\\
Assume $\phi(g) = 0$, so $g(x - f(x)e) = 0$ for all $x \in K$, then for $x \in \ker(f)$, we have $g(x - f(x)e) = g(x) = 0$, so $g = 0$ identically on $M$, thus $\phi$ is monomorphic. \\
Now assume $d \in D_f(H)$, then we have that $d(e) = d(e^2) = f(e)d(e) + f(e)d(e) = d(e) + d(e) \Rightarrow d(e) = 0$, so $e \in \ker(d)$. Now, for $x \in K$, $d(x - f(x)e) = d(x) - f(x)d(e) = f(x)$, and that for $x,y \in \ker(f)$ we have $d(xy) = f(x)d(y) + f(y)d(x) = 0 \Rightarrow \ker(f)^2 \subseteq \ker(d)$, we have that $d = \phi(g)$ where $g(x) = d \vert_{\ker(f)} (x + \ker(f)^2)$ so $\phi$ is epimorphic. \\
Ultimately $\phi$ is an isomorphism
This is an abstract alg formulation of the fact that the dual of the zariski cotangent space is the space of derivations
miz
Actually, I had a small follow-up question for you about this result.
Suppose C, C', D, D' are complexes of F_2 vector spaces such that C ~ C' and D ~ D' (where ~ means quasi-iso) and let G be a group of odd order. Suppose we've also endowed C and C' with right actions of G and D and D' with left actions of G.
Now consider C (x)_F2 D and C' (x)_F2 D'. These are quasi-iso by the result we've discussed (as C and C' are trivially complexes of flat modules).
Exact functors preserve quasi-isos and taking coinvariants of an F_2 vector space endowed with a G-action with |G| odd is an exact functor.
So assuming my reasoning is correct till now, this implies that Coin(C (x)_F2 D) ~ Coin(C' (x)_F2 D'), right? And of course, Coin(C (x)_F2 D) = C (x)_F2[G] D and similarly for the other term
Maybe I'm wrong though, so I'm curious to know where my reasoning breaks down if so
@fierce steeple while you exist do you mind checking over this for me :3
my eyes fell out of my head like an AWOOGA moment looking at paragraph 3
use an align environment lol
I didnt jnow what this was for
This sounds good to me
Autism :33
For the second part, I suspect - but have not tried to prove - that an ∞-algebraic number is computable iff the power series is computable.
On the fourth last line, it's d(x-f(x)e) = ... = d (x). Otherwise correct.
I mean, it’s easy to show in one direction: if a humber has a computable convergent power series representation, then you can compute it as precisely as you like by taking as many terms as you like and then using Newton’s method or some such
I figured something like that.
For computable numbers s that are real, the other direction isn't much harder: Pick a sequence of epsilons e_n to bound how far the partial sums p_n = sum(a_i s^i for i = 0, ..., n) are allowed to be away from zero. Pick each coefficient a_n in QQ such that you have |p_n| = |p_(n-1) + a_n s^n| < e_n. This is always possible because QQ is dense in RR. This is computable because the partial sum so far and s^n are computable.
When I tried, it looked like for non-real complex s, it's a little more tricky, but still possible. That involves using that s^n and s^(n+1) are linearly independent in CC over RR, yielding that s^n QQ + s^(n+1) QQ is dense in CC. This means that for every second partial sum, it's easy to be as close to 0 as needed. Using some budgetting and estimations, we can also get the other partial sums as close to 0 as needed.
For the direction from computable power series to computable roots, I'd be worried about not being able to compute how many terms you need for a given precision, leading to non-termination of the computation.
there's a field that, given a real number, researches the possible converging rational sequences to it, but I cannot remember the name of it. Might be of interest to you.
Hmm, I don't actually know when a powerseries is considered computable...
So I have a Noetherian integrally closed domain A, and I'm seeing a reference to I_A as its "ideal group"
I'm not sure how such a group would look though? It also mentions that the group is free abelian and generated by the non-zero prime ideals of A
Are you familiar with Dedekind domains?
It kinda seems like the group action is products of the elements of the ideal (and hence the principal element when that's relevant), but I don't see how there's inverses with that action
Yeah that's what this is on
Well, part of what this is on
You can define an inverse ideal
Tho it's subtle
Hmm alright, I remember seeing that before but I though it was a set that wasn't actually an ideal, just a subset of the fractional field
I'll reread that section, thanks 👍
Oh dammit it literally defines the ideal group in that section. Thanks lol
for a k-module M where k is a field, the length of M = dimension of M is not trivial right
I mean it's not super hard
it's pretty easy to see that a maximal flag produces a composition series
What is a flag?
tbh if you haven't seen a flag, it's best to just say it's a composition series lol
but yeah if you've ever tried to produce composition series for vector spaces it's straightforward
the only simple k-modules are the 1-dimensional vector spaces, so a composition series must be the same length as the dimension
I guess i havent thought about how vector space dimension and dimension of module in terms of maximum length of chain of submodules are related
if you have a basis e_1, ..., e_n then you just take 0 <= <e_1> <= <e_1, e_2> <= ... <= <e_1, ..., e_n> = V
You can quickly see that the quotients are just 1-dim (as enpeace is saying)
and so you have a composition series
done, length = dim
formally you'd have to prove that a composition series implies finite dimension
but that's not too hard
Same argument in reverse tbh
ts
fuckass property I'm so jealous
Heh... 😎 guess you could say... that reps are just... too sigma 😎
chagrin
gimme a min i havent thought about this stuff in a while
I should ban you for this
does this not show that length of V is at least the dimension?
refer to my previous message
make a longer chain I dare you. I double dare you
you can't do it! the quotients are simple!
It's a composition series so by standard results on these things, it is of the maximal length. See, uh... what's the theorem called... Jordan-Hoelder
HOElder
catching strays
yea ive never studied composition series before somehow lol
But like if you're really wanting to prove it like that, you can do the converse argument and prove length <= dim
so you're done really
Maybe you can try forming the converse argument
Like take a chain and produce an l.i. set
On wiki it says length of a module is just longest chain of submodules. No quotients being simple is needed there?
basically a series 0 = V0 < V1 < ... < Vn = V can be seen as an inclusion { } = B0 < B1 < ... < Bn of linearly independent subsets, where Bn is a basis of V. A composition series, then, is a an inclusion of linearly independent subsets such that every step one element is added, as this is what it means for every quotient to have dimension 1. But the length of such a chain of inclusions must exactly be the size of your basis, i.e. the dimension of V.
This may help or may make it worse
if the quotients are simple you know you have the longest chain by obvious
and by obvious I suppose I mean the correspondence theorem
actual sleeper agent moment
Well you have a maximal chain but not necessarily the longest. The J-H theorem proves it's the longest
i should learn jorden holder theorem
M0 = 0, Mn = M.
So idk why you said that, that confuses me as a question
I meant to say what ur saying here
about wew's comment
they're vector spaces the skeleton is a chain
wtf did I just say like actually read that back as if you're a non-maths person
yea it's just subtle is my point
Lol
i like doing that sometimes
what does skeleton mean here?
ok enough escaping the simulation I gotta log back in
poset of subspaces taken up to isomorphism
oh hm I see
it's defined for any object in any category
nvm just thought about it that should be pretty well-defined for arbitrary algebras
or categories yeah sure
boo modernity
sYbaU
you can't make mee
you should!
honestly it's phrased pretty annoyingly usually because it does not make use of lattice theory
that's a good point I don't actually know what you need for jordan holder to hold
meets and joins?
you might need one but it remains to be seen if I do
what fails if you don't have it? I'm not immediately seeing it
oh right no I see it now. It's when you do the intersection step right?
and instead of having factor objects, you've got a correspondence between so-called projective intervals, which is quite technically defined but in group terms it translates to an isomorphism that is a composition of isomorphisms of the form MN/N = M/N\cap M
I do believe so
haven't gone through the proof in a detailed way myself, gotta admit
just act like you have
mathematicians hate this one trick
actually we LOVE it
understand ANYTHING by simple pretending to!!
Probably need her. Bc ure using jordan holder so u need her to hold. Bc holder
ya
Does anybody know anything about Hilbert series / functions?
My questions are just basic like definition stuff
Hilbert series of a graded R-module M has as coefficients the length of the graded pieces Ma right?
I ardly knew er!
I want to test latex
$M = \bigoplus_{a \in G} M_a$
Does the text show up here too?
$1+1=2$
Ok cool
Lol i never asked questions using latex before
L
L imma take this L
kiand123
#latex-testing exists
Thanks Broski
Hello everyone of MathCord. I cordially invite you to #latex-testing to cheer me on with my latex-testing journey.
Good luck broski!
Thank you man 🥰
@civic aurora I'm currently formalizing a bit so my question will be understandable, hold on a minute. I may not be able to finish now but withing the day.
Can anyone explain why m(M/N) = M/N?
Our version of Nakayama's Lemma is as follows: Let (A,m) be a local ring, M a finite A-module. Then M=mM implies M=0.
I also don't really see how we get to the second part of the corollary - the sentence starting with 'In particular,...'
M/N = (N + mM)/N = m(M/N)
god im silly
Consider the submodule generated by the s_i, and take that for N
M/N is finite over A in that case?
M is finite over A by hypothesis, so yes
Oh, yes, thanks
I wish i knew the proof of nak lemma. I saw the determinants and i just peaced out ✌️
Any alternative proof?
It's really not that bad haha, give it a go. You can also prove it by induction on the number of generators of M
I'm sure there are plenty of other proofs
The determinant proof is actually really slick imo lol
It’s a short and sweet proof
It’s also commonly used in some proofs about integral elements
Yeah i just dont know what a determinant is to be completely honest
Alternating bilinear map type shi? Idek
adj A * A = detA * I is all u need. it's laplace expansion
Yeah i guess what i was concerned about with it was sure i could go through the computation and see its true but that doesnt really help with intuition
Ive always seen determinant as some computation thing i didnt learn it properly theory wise
all that matters here is that, if you regard each entry of a matrix as a variable (that is, say x_{ij} gives you the (i, j)-th entry of the matrix), then the determinant is a polynomial in these x_{ij}'s
^ and this is all that you need
Do you think about that formula intuitively or just as a computational trick
both i guess, but i think of it as the former
it's how you give things like GL and SL and other subgroups of GL a variety structure, for example
actually in the proof of nakayama which uses determinants you do use the fact that the determinant is a polynomial in the coordinates
that's how you reach your conclusion
@civic aurora I guess after thinking for a bit I run into problems because of the way I asked my question here a couple times before. In general I tend to reach a bit with math.
I really want a reference to study this material better. I tend to have endless chains of problems that develop from previous problems until I run out of theory to accurately assess what I'm looking at. Is this like, the "hidden subgroup problem", or what exactly? I can explain my direct confusion in more detail if you prefer.
Here's an image of what I'm referring to:
It's a structure with commutative diagrams that relates to integer factorization / multiplication
I met a new post-doc and he’s like why am i using bruns and herzog
That book is universally hated man 😂
skill issue
what is "this material"
without context your image looks like nonsense (I'm sure its not- but youre giving no context as to what anything means here)
I have given context, I am looking for a reference request to discuss e.g. the pictured math. Could you read the text in the image?
My handwriting is bad
not really sure what I'm looking at
like I can somewhat get it but "finitely supported group"? "lift"?
"F"? "Lift = \varnothing"?
just because you can describe something with a commutative square doesn't mean that you should
I also don't really know what you want. You can express properties of algebraic operations diagrammatically through a standard process if that's what you're after
also, if I'm correct in what I'm thinking, the top diagram doesn't even commute, as group multiplication may not be commutative
and the second diagram is just a mystery
to me
The diagram was made with the intention of saying that the group should commute. I agree that it doesn't need to. Here G would need to contain a copy of the integers, and be homomorphic with multiplication
I agree with wew's sentiment, don't express stuff with commutative diagrams if you don't need to
unnecessary convolution is how you make mistakes lol
Sure. This doesn't answer my question. Do you have a reference for studying this kind of math (commutative diagrams, the Ring of integers, etc?) I'm beyond basic field theory, but before Galois Theory, although I do have a reference for Galois Theory I trust and could bridge that gap
category theory?
no
commutative diagrams and rings of integers are wholly different things
one is algebraic number theory which you could look into
and the other is just category theory
ur handwriting bro 😢
What's known about the finite dimensional division algebras (not necessarily associative) over real closed fields? In particular, is it true that any such algebra must have dimension 1,2,4 or 8?
There's this article In which dimensions does a division algebra over a given ground field exist? by Darpö and others, but I couldn't find it
well i mean what do you want to learn? you have choices here
I want to start with a reference discussing Group Factorization methods (factorizations of groups into subgroups), in a structured way. Do you know of a textbook?
oh okay it is indeed true. This is spelled out in Dietrich "A general approach to finite dimensional division algebras". Given the theorem over R and the first order theory of those fields the rest is elementary
wait just so I'm following is this a parallel convo or why did you answer your own question in 5 minutes
I had a question and found the answer, so I reported it
I wonder, is it possible to prove by purely algebraic means that the dimension must be a power of 2 (say, just for the case of R)?
This is a theorem, you want an algebra proof?
It does exist and there's a proof involving matrices I think
are these supposed to be commutative diagrams in groups?
I dont think there are any group homomorphisms Z -> Z×Z that look like integer factorisation
Hureitz' Theorem you mean, it's provable with matrices I think (had to google the name)
mmh probably not, otherwise we would be proving that there are no nontrivial odd dimensional field extensions of the reals
wait idk what you mean by Hurwitz
he was the first to prove what I asked for, but he also has another theorem were he introduces extra normed structure
I don't profess to understand "Hurwitz'" theorem
In mathematics, the Cayley–Dickson construction, sometimes also known as the Cayley–Dickson process or the Cayley–Dickson procedure produces a sequence of algebras over the field of real numbers, each with twice the dimension of the previous one. It is named after Arthur Cayley and Leonard Eugene Dickson. The algebras produced by this proc...
but it's there
there are only two group homs that look like they factorise 1, one sends 1 to (1,1) and the other sends 1 to (-1,-1). and for both of these, the only number they factorise is 1, and every other n gets sent either to (n,n) or (-n,-n) neither of which factorise n
So you don't think it could form a homomorphism, and hence the diagram is flawed?
For example, maps that factor integers exist, 15 -> (3, 5), but it may not be consistent in a meaningful way
and primes / units would need to be like, (p, 1), (u, 1)
although I'm guessing it should follow from C being algebraically closed
I was going to say that’s rude before I saw the actual writing, fuck me 
or R admiting only power of 2 field extensions. So if k is a field that only admits field extensions of degree p^k for some prime p does this imply that every finite dimensional division algebra over k must have degree some power of p?
F_2, F_3, F_3\times \prod_{i\in I} F_2 are examples of commutative ring where everything except 1,-1 are zero divisors. What other examples are there and is there a classification?
"not necessarily associative"
matrices are, famously, associative in their multiplication
also "can be solved by matrices" is like saying "we can solve this equation by doing algebra" lol
really, model theory comes into play?
that's awesome
I think the statement of "there exists a ... algebra of degree n over k" can be turned into a system of polynomial equations. If it has a solution, then you are good. This is first order
Tarski says that the first order theory of real closed fields is equivalent to the first order theory of R. Idk how the proof works tho
ah right
you've got a wacky ass theorem that says that says a field is elementary equivalent to R iff some conditions hold
isn't it what we are saying already (the Tarski thing)
yeah I guess they are somewhat reasonable but it's still cool that the algebraic closure being a finite extension is such a strong property
but this isn't obvious
no, that's why the theorem is weird
I mean that the statement "[ bar K : K] is finite" is not first order
First you use Artin-Schreier
then Tarski
Tarski is more recent I think
Artin-Schreier is more surprising to me than Tarski
the Artin-Schreier paper is from 1927, Tarski's paper is from 1931
Again, I never said I understood Hurwitz' Theorem. I said I knew there was a proof somewhere involving matrices.
wait actually are those the only ones?
For a graded R-module M over a graded ring R, we have
$M = \bigoplus_{a \in G} M_a$ decomposition as Z-modules.
The Hilbert function is defined as
$H(M,a) = l(M_a)$
kiand123
M_a is not necessarily an R-module, right? So is this the length of M_a as a Z-module (or abelian group?)
ok yall get the point
My question is here
no, else R_i M_j wouldnt be included in M_ij
(because of the direct sum)
for example R[X] is a graded module over itself
but the components are mere R-modules
from the definition, every component is an R_1 module though - R_1 M_i \subset M_1i = M_i
it's the length of M_a as an R_0-module where R_0 is the zeroth component in the grading of R
0 in group G yea
What is this?
Not sure what u wrote
1 is the identity of G here
so by the definition of a graded module we have R_g M_h \subset M_gh, which means that R_1 M_g \subset M_g, i.e. each M_g is an R_1-module
Ok cool
So we are indeed looking at the length of these guys as R1-modules
I dont know where in the definition ive seen for this it specifies that tho. Ill look again ig
Usually for hilbert functions/series/polynomials one assumes R is a standard graded ring and that M is a standard graded R-module
If you're willing to use a standard grading then Atiyah-Macdonald has some stuff on this
(They don't call their grading the "standard grading" but that's what it is)
What is a “standard” grading
G = non-negative integers
My purposes uses Z^n-grading on ring k[x1, … xn]
I didnt know a/m had stuff tho thx
Roberts' "Multiplicities and Chern Classes in Local Algebra" deals with this stuff in Z^n
If you want to look there as welll
Everything for the Z^n case ends up being a generalization of the Z case
Well I should be precise and say Z_{\ge 0}^n and Z_{\ge 0} since that's what Roberts and A/M and p much everyone else does
\ge 0?
Wdym? Like why do we want the Z_{\ge 0} grading?
Nah im just saying the exposition is nice
Oh yea
Why cant all advanced math texts be so nice like that
Some authors just love being like yo this is serious business im so serious with this shit
Ig personal taste tho
I wouldn't be so quick to gas up Roberts lol it's pretty encyclopedic
It has some nice exposition/historical remarks but they are very short from what i've read
Hahahaha
You could also look at Serre's "Local Algebra"
Though there's not much meat to it in the relevant section B.3
Actually, I think there's a gap in my reasoning here that I wanted to double check with yall.
As a reminder, let C, C', D, D' be complexes of F_2 vector spaces. Endow C, C with a left G action and D and D' with a right G action, where |G| is odd.
My overall proof strategy is to show that two quasi-iso tensor product complexes remain quasi-iso after taking coinvariants.
I started off assuming C ~ C' and D ~ D' as F_2 vector spaces and then concluding C (x)_F2 D ~ C' (x)_F2 D'
But to then apply coin, I need to interpret them as complexes of F2[G] mods since coin: F2[G]-Mod --> F2-Mod. Am I doing this by interpreting e.g. C (x)_F2 D as a complex of left or right F2[G] modules where
g (v (x) w) = v (x) gw
or
(v (x) w)g = vg (x) w?
If so, what's the guarantee that C (x)_F2 D ~ C' (x)_F2 D' as complexes of F2[G] modules?
The usual way to give a group action on the tensor product would be
g(v (x) w) = vg^-1 (x) gw
Then the tensorproduct preserving the quasi-isomrphism should follow from it being exact. But thats assuming C and C' (and D and D') are quasi-isomorphic as F2G-modules
Otherwise if you just have C=C' but with a different action, of course there will be no relationship
Ok, so the right proof would be to assume C ~ C', D ~ D' are quasi-iso as F2[G] modules (and my condition that |G| odd implies by Mashcke's theorem that C and C' are complexes of projective F2[G] modules, hence flat ones). This then implies they're quasi-iso as F2-modules since restriction of scalars is an exact functor
Then C (x)_F2 D ~ C' (x)_F2 D' as F2[G]-modules with the group action you described
Then I can take coinvariants of both and conclude they're still quasi-iso.
Is all this correct?
I guess its not really about them being projective/flat, since the tensor product over F2 is always exact, dont need G odd for thar (you need it for taking coinvariants being exact)
But you could just tensor over F2G to begin with I guess
since tensoring over F2 then taking coinvariants is the same as tensoring over F2G
I guess the only thing I need to convince myself of is that
C ~ C' and D ~ D' as F2[G]-modules
implies
C (x)_F2 D ~ C' (x)_F2 D' as F2[G]-modules (with the module structure you described in your previous message). Is this obvious?
Obvious is in the eye of the beholder I guess, but you might notice that if D is concentrated in degree 0, then C(x)D ~C'(x)D because -(x)D is exact. Then by 5-lemma, the category of D for which C(x)D ~ C'(x)D is a thick subcategory, so every bounded complex.
then same argument gives C'(x)D ~ C'(x)D'
Im assuming this is the same argument you used to see it is true as F2-modules....
I guess if you want an actually obvious solution. Since its semisimple, quasi-isomorphic is just the same as homotopy equivalent.
and tensor product is additive
You mean C ~ C' and D ~ D' as F2[G] modules implies C (x)_F2 D ~ C' (x)_F2 D' as complexes of F2-modules? I was just applying restriction of scalars to C ~ C' and D ~ D' before taking tensor products over F_2 for that argument
But it wasn't a priori clear to me that after giving the terms in C (x)_F2 D and C' (x)_F2 D' the structure of F2[G] modules, I'd get C (x)_F2 D ~ C (x)_F2 D as complexes of F2[G] modules
I mean the argument that C(x)D ~ C'(x)D' as F2-complexes yeah. Like restriction of scalars turns them into F2-complexes, but thats not the argument for why theyre quasi-isomorphic
unless you mean that the main part of the argument is "its obvious" I guess
In which case I guess "its obvious" is an approriate argument for F2G-complexes as well
Ah sorry, I'm assuming/applying the result that if
C ~ C' and D ~ D' are quasi-iso and C and C' are complexes of flat modules, then C (x) D ~ C' (x) D'
Isnt that like the defintion of flat?
or whats the definition of flat?
Either way I guess it would just come down to proing C and C' are flat then
anyway, a homomorphism of F2G-modules that is an isomorphism of F2-modules is also an isomorphism of F2G-modules.
So if you have a morphism of F2G-complexes that is a quasiisomorphism of F2-complexes it is also a quasiisomorphism of F2G-complexes
Yeah, that's why I assumed C and C' were complexes of F_2[G] modules where |G| is odd, so that C and C' would consist of flat F_2[G] modules by Mashcke's theorem
Ahh ok, this is the missing thing I was looking for
yeah so if you want to skip the whole coinvariants step and just tensor over F2G, this would work.
But by proving it this other way I guess you get something a little more general since you dont need G being odd untill the very end
Yeah, this was mainly just an exercise for fun I was thinking about to show how the two coincide
I guess now the last thing I'm missing is why we're guaranteed that the quasi-iso C (x)_F2 D ~ C' (x)_F2 D' (as F2-modules) is a morphism of F2[G] modules
Say f: C --> C' is quasi-iso (for complexes of F2[G] modules) and similarly for g: D --> D'.
Then the map h: C (x)_F2 D ---> C' (x)_F2 D' is certainly an F2 quasi-iso. But I suppose the fact that h is built out of f and g (something like h = f (x) g or direct sums of them?) means it is also a morphism of complexes of F2[G]-modules with the action g(v (x) w) = (v g^-1 (x) gw)? Should be easy to check assuming h = f (x) g is correct
Yes
a(x)b [g (c (x) d) ] = a(x)b [ cg^-1 (x) gd ] =
a(cg^-1) (x) b(gd) = a(c) g^-1 (x) gb(d) = g [ a(c) (x) b(d) ]
Z/4 is another
Thanks once again!
oh yeah misse that, but is there anything else?
Well you can do Z/4 times F2 stuff aswell.
Feels like there might be more to me, but that would need to be somewhat complicated rings if they exist
yeah make sense
Is Grothendieck's simultaneous resolution a pullback square?
I am referring to the following: let G be a semisimple algebraic group over ℂ with Lie algebra g, h the (universal/abstract) Cartan algebra, and W the Weyl group. Let F the flag variety of Borel subalgebras of g and g' the "incidence" variety g' = {(x, b) ∈ g ⨯ F : x ∈ b}. Then the resolution is the commutative square g' -> h -> h/W, g' -> g -> h/W (the last map is given by Chevalley's Theorem ℂ[g]^G = ℂ[h]^W, and g' -> h is analogous to "taking eigenvalues").
so I have to show "If V is an n dimensional irreducible representation of algebra A, then End(V) is isomorphic to the direct sum of n copies of V"
So I thought about it in terms of A modules, and took the following map:
but I never needed irreducibility of V to show this was an isomorphism
so where is irreducibility of V needed? Or is my proof wrong
Isomorphic as an A-module? What's the A-module structure on End(V)?
V is an A module, so define the obvious structure on End(V):
(f+g)(v)=f(v)+g(v)
(af)(v)=af(v)
Right. Then indeed you don't use that V is irreducible. In fact, for any A-module V and vector space W, Hom(W, V) is an A-module isomorphic to the direct product of dim W copies of V, by exactly your argument. It's just a coincidence here that W = V as vector spaces.
Actually, this is obviously not a pullback square: g, h, h/W are affine but g' is projective over g. Rather the question should be whether this holds restricted to the regular semisimple locus, i.e., whether g'^sr -> g^sr is the pullback of h^reg -> h^reg/W as principal W-bundles.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2317020/classification-of-modules-over-complex-matrices
In this SE post, he establishes M, as an M_n(R) module, is isomorphic to e11M+...+e_nnM. I get that, but then he says eiiM is isomorphic to an R module for all i, in fact they are all isomorphic to the same R module. Ok fine, but then later he uses this to claim that any M_n(C) module is isomorphuc to (C^m)^n, but I dont understand this. He knows that each eiiM is isomorphic to C^m as a C module, so how did he deduce that it's isomorphic to C^m as an M_n(C) module?
eii M is not an Mn(R)-module
So it can't be isomorphic to anything "as an Mn(R)-module"
The point is you think of an Mn(R)-module M as an R-module (you can think of R acting as multiples of the identity). Then M splits as a direct sum of eiiM, which are all isomorphic R-modules. And multiplication by eij gives isomorphisms between them.
Hence M can be described as (e11M)^n acted on by matrix multiplication.
anyone has some resources that cover solely tensor products? Possibly that make use of categorical language.
Have you looked at Keith Conrads notes?
Thanks (for other courses but not for tensors)
I don't think it uses a lot of categorical language, but obviously covers the universal property
Ok that is probably enough
hmm ok, so if he says as R modules each Mn(R) module is isomorphic to L^n, where L is some R module, how does he use this to conlcude that the only simple Mn(C) module is C^n. I get we can replace L by C^m in the case of R a field, but don;t see how his argument then says anything about simplicity of Mn(R) modules
So the Mn(C) modules are exactly V^n where V is a C-module.
The only simple C-module is V=C
So then C^n is the simple Mn(C) module
Wait so the only simple C module is C. Each Mn(C) module as as a C module is isomorphic to (C^m)^n for some m. In order for the C module structure of the Mn(C) module structure to be simple, we need m=1?
Oh, or is it: as an R module, Any Mn(R) can be written as the direct sum of n isomorphic R modules, call this sum R^n. But each R^n can be made into an Mn(R) in the obvious way, and doing this will give us an isomorphic Mn(R) module to what we started with?
So if I understand your question the answer is yes.
The Mn(R)-modules are exactly given by M^n for an R-module M where the action is matrix multiplication.
So for example for n=2 the matrix
[r1, r2; r3, r4]
acts on the element
[m1; m2] as
[r1m1 + r2m2; r3m1 + r4m2]
This are exactly what the Mn(R)-modules are and for R modules M and N, then N^n is a submodule of M^n as Mn(R) modules exactly if N is a submodule of M.
So similarly M^n is simple iff M is simple
Using scary words the two categories of modules are equivalent, making R and Mn(R) Morita equivalent.
interesting
Say M is a free module over a commutative ring R. Is there a name for elements which can be written as linear combinations of basis elements where all non-zero coefficients are in invertible?
Maybe this is too niche lol
Are you sure that doesn't depend on which basis you choose?
It does depend on the choice of basis, e.g. (2,1) and (3,2) form a basis of Z^2. This is a good point, but in my case I'm fine fixing a basis and indeed working with the standard basis of R^n
I should probably just say what I want though aha rather than expect there is a common notion
It sounds like "oh, those are surely well-behaved elements" for the first ten seconds.
If it depends on the choice of basis I would assume there is not a name for it
Yeah this is a good point lol
what could possibly lead to this question 😭
Basically I have a chain complex of free modules and I wanted conditions under which the homology was free. I convinced myself that certain conditions on the matrices could imply this, but then it ended up being too complicated and not working
Fortunately the case at hand is simple enough that i think i can get around it lol
thank
Lol turns out this stuff being shot down helped me find a better path ( I think)
many such cases
if it doesnt work nicely often its not the correct path
Maybe ye only thing is hm
Well it's like in problems made for exams or whatever this is usually the case but I feel in research stuff can often just be ugly
Or at least is until someone finds the theory later on or something
The MO trauma washes over me
Oh lol why
This does make me think of Qiaochu saying like everything should be clear from the right theory or something / there should be no tricks
I post to MO
People say meh
I figure out this approach is useless for my problem
Sorry oop
I love spectral sequences.
I ran one today and the universe conspired to make it manageable which is a miracle
I'm joking, but also... What I'm saying is true
Does it make sense to define the rank of any multilinear form?
For bilinear forms there is an associated matrix I think so you could take that rank
I'm not sure if that make sense (defining rank for multilinear form), but maybe what you need is called tensor
Could someone give a hint as to how to show that any p-primary factor must contain the kth symbolic power of p?
I believe this is equivalent to: if q is a p-primary factor in a minimal primary decomposition and if x is in q, then there exists some t in R - p such that xt is in p^k
why is there a notion of an acyclic complex. is it not the same as an exact sequence. i feel like i have it be missing something
Just terminology, no?
They are equivalent but I would say they are different points of view. I think of a complex being acyclic like a topological space being acyclic (and indeed they are very related notions(
thanks. seems like this is another instance that would be solved if i knew some algebraic topology
What are you trying to learn rn?
(i still have no idea why they are called boundaries and cycles)
Yea look up simplicial homology
i’m learning homological algebra
Its not too hard to understand
For what?
but i havnt see algebraic topology so i have no intuition behind some of the stuff we’re doing
Oh ur in a class?
yes
What have u been doing
I learned a little bit over the summer
I dont know much alg top either
we just constructed tensor products
Oh ok yea that part is more just everyday algebra
i had already seen that though from my masters research. we went through ext the week before last and it was cool
Yeah i like ext i learned about that stuff over summer
The process for constructing the derived functors was nice
it’s really cool
I agree
we’re gonna do tor this week i’m sure since we have tensor
Have u not seen tensor products before? If i was introduced to all of that all at once id die
i wish i wasn’t taking other classes right now so i could dedicate all my time to learning this stuff very well bc it’s so cool
i have bc i’ve seen commutative algebra and they also cane up in my masters thesis
What was your masters thesis about?
but they were confusing at first
I was uncomfortable with tensor products for ages
it was in the area of noncommutative invariant theory
Nice idek what that is
the idea is that you take some space (think any subset of the n-dimensional euclidian space) consider C_n the free abelian group generated by all simplices in your space. That is, all ways you can embed an n-simplex into your space (an n-simplex being the n-dimensional version of point, line, triangle, tetrahedron, etc). Then you have a boundary mapping d : C_n -> C_n-1, that takes a simplex to its "boundary". Here is how you'd do that for the triangle spanned by the vectors (a, b, c):
d([a, b, c]) = [a, b] + [b, c] + [a, c]
Then, as one would intuit, the boundary of a boundary is 0 (like, a sphere is a boundary, so it does not have a boundary itself). This means you get a chain complex. The cycles of this complex can be seen as actual "cycles" of n-dimensional simplices that in a sense form a "closed loop". It is justified in the n=2 case, where 2-cycles are exactly those (up to boundaries) given by a linear combination of actual loops in the space. Then the boundaries are, as the name would suggest, the linear combinations of boundaries of simplices.
whoops 😭
looking for as regular algebras that a certain family of hopf algebras act on
ignore this for now
why
Youve lost me now idk this stuff
i didn’t either i had to learn a lot
but it made me decide i will like commutative algebra better lol
Yea im doing combinatorial algebra
I knew i didnt like it from the start
lol
But im pushing througg
i wish i studied as much as you
i feel like i’m not doing enough bc i can’t find time to study outside of completing my weekly psets
Im just taking one class and trying to finish my masters thesis
And i feel like im barely working enough too
Im just tired and its all really hard tbh
it will feel worth it once you defend though
Yeah probably, once i get there
Could someone help me understand what is being said here? Are they claiming that the map R -> R[e^-1] x R[(1-e)^-1] by r -> (r,r) is an isomorphism? If so, I can see that it is surjective, but I don't see why it necessarily is injective. If r maps to (0,0), then e^k r = (1-e)^l r = 0, so r is in I_1 and I_2, hence in the nilradical. Can one conclude that r=0 from there?
Or does anyone know a reference for this lemma?
Say k>=l
Consider
r = 1^(2k) * r = (e + (1-e))^2k * r
Expand with binomial theorem and you get r=0
So clean
I like it
Thank you
Is there a version of Mackey’s irreducibility criterion that applies to locally compact groups? The versions I seem to find online all pertain to finite groups https://dec41.user.srcf.net/h/II_L/representation_theory/12
For the particular case I’m interested in G isn’t compact, the induced representation is infinite dimensional, and I’m inducing from a character
Does this do a good job of what you want? https://www.jstor.org/stable/1969423
In particular theorems 12.1, 12.2, 13.1
I don't know enough about the theory of LC groups to be able to tell if this converts into what you want in the same way Mackey for finite groups does, but it seems in the right direction
(I'll also leave part II here https://www.jstor.org/stable/1969786)
awesome thanks! I'll check those papers out
sorry to bother u again, Im trying to prove that again and am totally stuck
this is what I have so far:
and then I get stuck at the very last line
if we can eliminate the e_{1i} we are done
but I dont see a way to do it
So have are you defining phi_i exactly?
Because now it seems like you're saying they're just arbitrary / unrelated...
so we know the e_{ii}V are all isomorphic
so pick one of them as W, say e_{11}V, and let phi_i be any isomorphism from e_{ii}V into e_{11}V
or is that too general to proceed
Well if it's just any random isomorphism it probably won't match with the Mn(F)-module structure
There is however a very natural choice of isomorphism
(how do you know they're isomorphic in the first place)
Is e_{ii}V to e_{jj}V: e_{ii}v mapsto e_{jj}v an isomorphism?
probably not actually
Well, what happenes if v=eii?
ok so I think
e_{ij} and e_{ji} will invert each other
multiplying by them
e_{ii}V to e_{jj}V: e_{ii}v mapsto e_{ji}e_{ii}v seems to work
no
lemme think about the indices
yea ok
it works, e_{jj}e_{ji}=e_{ji}
ok, youre saying replace the $\varphi$ with the map into $e_{11}V$?
kerchooboi
Something that simplifies verification here also is that all the maps are additive, so you really only need to check for A = a eij
Just a little easier not messing up all the sums and indicies
hmm, but at the last line here
for example the first coordinate
if I replace phi 1 with multiplication by e11
I still have the same issue of there being e1i
So what is the issue?
e1j ejj eji = e1i, so exactly what you want yeah?
ok that was insane for indexing, shouldve done this
but I got it
thanks a lot
So defines a functor from Mn(R) modules into R modules right
I am learning about Lie groups and Lie algebras using Representation theory. A first course of Fulton & Harris.
I have already proven that the Lie algebra of Aut(g) is Der(g) in its previous problem 8.27;
However I have difficulty in proving Aut(G)->Aut(g), φ=>dφ is one-to-one and onto...
For (b) I know that using the hint in the end of this book, which uses a universal cover.
use the theorem that if G is a simply connected Lie group, then every Lie algebra endomorphism f of g lifts to a unique Lie group endomorphism F of G, namely f = dF
(side note: this is actually a special case of the fact that if F: C -> D is an equivalence of categories, then for every object X in C, F induces a group isomorphism Aut(X) -> Aut(F(X)) )
The problem is, this is like the "ultimate goal" of this chapter which isn't proved before, hence one technically shouldn't use this result
Does anyone know of a way to finish this off?
If the last isomorphism were k-linear, then I think one gets a contradiction as the sides have different dimensions a k-vector spaces, but I'm not sure about the details here... the last isomorphism is also only assumed to be a ring isomorphism
(p.s. k is the number of primes assumed to be lying above p)
I mean you can argue by dimension or just, since A is artinian the sum is finite.
But I need to argue that the dimensions don't match up, right?
To get a contradiction
Why do you want a contradiction?
I want to show that there cannot be k > n primes lying above p. So in the above, I want to get the contradiction k<=d < k
I mean
A has length <= d so there are at most d factors.
If we assume there are more than d factors that contradicts that there are at most d
What is length?
The number of simple modules in its composition series
It's essentially the same as dimension, so you can just use that if you're not familiar with it
An n-dimensional vector space cannot be the sum of more than n non-zero vector spaces
But we do not know that the last isomorphism is an isomorphism as vector spaces, a priori
I am looking at the proof of 13.25 and I believe it actually shows that it should be kappa-linear, but I'm curious whether your argument works assuming only ring isomorphism
I mean, the k-vector space structure is just induced by the ring homomorphism
Yeah
So then ring homomorphism implies linear, since that's just how the vector space structure is defined
Yeah, I guess to me it wasn't so clear that the k-vector space structure was actually induced by the ring homomorphism
But in the proof of that lemma, the map is given by R -> R_1 x R_2 by r -> (r,r), so I think you are right
Anyway, thanks for helping clear that up
I'm not sure but I think you can go in the other direction using the exponential map?
I used the exponential map to prove that φ=>dφ is one-to-one, but I can't prove that it is onto
Let A be a k-algebra. Does the functor sending A to its underlying k-vector space have any adjoints?
Yes, the left adjoint is the tensor algebra
yeah, any functor sending an algebraic structure to some reduct has an adjoint
(reduct meaning you remove some operations)
It does not preserve coproducts so does not have a right adjoint
Thanks jagr!
What are some sufficient conditions for a polynomial to have n distinct roots?
I know GCD(f, f') = 1 but this is annoying when you don't have a specific polynomial (rather a family of polynomials with some parameter)
Univariate polynomials ofc, can even say we're over a field if you have some field specific conditions
Hopefully the field is algebraically closed. Otherwise even the gcd(f,f')=1 condition is not sufficient.
Irreducible over a seperable field would work
Oh sure, good point lol
Having nonzero discriminant
That might be computational tractable with some parameters even
Or I guess it's about the same as computing gcd(f, f')...
But that seems tractable to me anyhow
For g a finite-dimensional (semisimple) Lie algebra over an algebraically closed field of characteristic 0, the regular (semisimple regular) locus is a Zariski open and dense subset. For the regular locus this can be made very explicit: let char_{ad(x)}(t) = t^n + a_{n-1}(x) t^{n-1} + ... + a_r(x) t^r for x in g, where n = dim(g) and a_{n-1}, ..., a_r are polynomial functions on g; then x is regular iff a_r(x) ≠ 0, so the regular locus is the complement of the zero set of a_r. Is there a similar explicit description of the semisimple regular locus?
Well, the discriminant being a (degree-dependent) polynomial in the coefficients makes it feel more attractive as a symbolic condition than calculating a gcd.
What is the semisimple regular locus?
{x in g : x is regular and semisimple}. I defined regular above; semisimple means that ad(x) is diagonalisable.
I see.
Well, the polynomial being seperable is certainly sufficient. Maybe if it's rank 1 that would give a characterization in some cases.
Idk
Unfortunately I think that is not necessary (I assume you are talking about char_{ad(x)}(t)/t^r to remove the t^r that is always there). For sl_n, one can show that semisimple regular <=> distinct eigenvalues, i.e., that char_x(t) is separable (so in this case there is an explicit description: the complement of the zero sets of the discriminant of char_x(t) p_x(t) := char_x(t)/t^r and its constant coefficient). But this does not imply that ad(x) has distinct (non-zero) eigenvalues: one can consider x = diag(0, 1, -1, 0) ... and this does not have distinct eigenvalues so it's not semisimple regular 💀. I need to think more then.
I mean you would just tack the condition of being regular onto it, no?
I'm not sure what you mean: being semisimple is not a (Zariski) open or closed condition.
I guess I'm not following what you're saying in the "but this part".
Unless you meant to say that x in that example is semisimple regular. I.e. that there are examples of semisimple regular elements with repeated eigenvalues.
I started saying something then realised it was wrong, but thought the rest of the message was still useful information, so decided to send it. 😅
I'm not sure now whether "char_{ad(x)}(t)/t^r is separable" is necessary or not (turns out it is sufficient).
Yeah, I wouldn't really expect it to be necessary in general, but maybe in some cases.
And are you assuming the algebra is semisimple to get the sufficient part?
Yes. I don't know if it's sufficient in general. (Anyway semisimple element is not so useful if the algebra is not semisimple because different definitions become inequivalent etc. And I already know that {regular} is open for any fd Lie algebra.)
OK so for sl_n the eigenvalues of ad(x) (at least for x diagonalisable) are all pairwise differences of the eigenvalues of x. In particular x = diag(1, 0, -1, -2, ...) has distinct eigenvalues hence is semisimple regular, but ad(x) has 1 as an eigenvalue multiple times (for 1, 0; 0, -1; etc.).
So it's not necessary for sl_n for n ≥ 3. It is necessary for sl_2 (rank 1, as you guessed).
It seems I got confused by two different definitions of regular.
Let r = min { dim ker(ad x) : x in g} and say that x is regular if it's an argmin, i.e., dim ker(ad x) = r.
Similarly define R as the minimum generalised (ad x) 0-eigenspace dimension (i.e. minimum dim ker(ad x)^∞ for x in g) and x to be strongly regular if it achieves it.
Now, for any Lie algebra, for any 0 ≤ k ≤ dim g, the sets
A_k = {x : dim ker(ad x) ≥ k},
B_k = {x : dim ker(ad x)^∞ ≥ k}
are Zariski closed subsets of g.
To see this for the latter, use the characteristic polynomial: if char_{ad x}(t) = t^n + a_1(x) t^{n-1} + ... + a_n(x), then a_i is a (degree-i homogeneous) polynomial of x, and B_k = V(a_n, ..., a_{n-k+1}).
To see it for the former, use that the rank is Zariski lower semicontinuous on the vector space gl(g), i.e., {T in gl(g) : rank(T) ≤ k} is Zariski closed as the zero locus of all (k+1)⨯(k+1) minors. Thus A_k = V(all (n-k+1)⨯(n-k+1) minors of ad x, as polynomials of x).
(Incidentally, since a_i(x) = tr(∧^i (ad x)) = ∑ {all i⨯i principal minors of ad x}, A_k ⊆ B_k, as it should be.)
Thus we have g = A_0 ⊇ A_1 ⊇ ... and g = B_0 ⊇ B_1 ⊇ ... The numbers r resp. R are the last indices i where the set A_i resp. B_i is equal to g, and the regular resp. strongly regular locus is A_r \ A_{r+1} = g \ A_{r+1} resp. B_R \ B_{R+1} = g \ B_{R+1} and hence Zariski open (and non-empty hence dense); in fact
{regular} = ∪_{each (n-r+1)⨯(n-r+1) minor} g \ V(that minor)
and
{strongly regular} = g \ V(a_R).
So far, this just amounts to the classical facts that geometric and algebraic multiplicity are Zariski upper semicontinuous (which just means that {mult ≤ k} is an open subset of the space of matrices for any k).
However, if ad x is semisimple then obviously geometric and algebraic multiplicity coincide. So for all k, A_k^ss = B_k^ss, where ^ss means to intersect with the set of ad-semisimple elements (which is not really a variety - it, is in the usual cases, neither open nor closed (nor locally closed) in the Zariski topology, although it contains an open dense subset - I won't assume these properties though).
In particular, if the ad-semisimple elements are Zariski dense, then they meet every non-empty open set, so {regular}^ss = A_r^ss \ A_{r+1}^ss is non-empty. But if A_r^ss \ A_{r+1}^ss = B_r^ss \ B_{r+1}^ss is non-empty, then B_{r+1} is a proper subset of g so r = R.
So (if ad-semisimple elements are Zariski dense in g) we can define a single number r as the minimum value of either multiplicity. However, note that this does not imply that the regular and strongly regular elements are the same - every strongly regular element is regular but the converse is only guaranteed for ad-semisimple elements.
Now, for g a semisimple Lie algebra, any strongly regular element is semisimple (over alg closed char 0). This is true because it can be shown that the automorphism group of g acts transitively, not on the strongly regular elements themselves, but on the set of generalised 0-eigenspaces of strongly regular elements (Cartan subalgebras), and it can be shown that one such subspace consists entirely of semisimple elements - so they all do.
So semisimple regular = strongly regular, which is Zariski open. If regular is used to mean "strongly regular", then actually the adjective semisimple is redundant.
@lone jacinth what sorts of things are people interested in wrt the complement of the g-vector fan (of a tame algebra)? vague question so i can give more context if needed, but i really mean it in as much generality as possible
I'm not sure. Whether it is finite / discrete would be a natural question I guess.
Wether it contains only rational vectors / whether they correspond to 1-parameter families.
I guess these are more things I'm curious about off the top of my head as opposed to "things people are interested in"
Why do you ask?
Mousavand and Paquette have a recent paper going over a lot of natural questions.
This manuscript treats the diverse applications of bricks within modern representation theory and several related domains, and reviews the recent developments and new results on bricks (a.k.a Schur representations). The current survey is an extended version of a mini-course by the second-named author, delivered in the research school on ``New De...
Framed more in terms of bricks than g-vectors though maybe
was just reading a paper which describes the complement in terms of flows through the fringed quiver and certain nonkissing strings, so was interested what implications that may have but that ig depends on the way and extent to which people want to understand the complement
hm, whats the paper?
The space of unit flows on a directed acyclic graph (DAG) is known to admit regular unimodular triangulations induced by framings of the DAG. Amply framed DAGs and their triangulated flow polytopes have recently been connected with the representation theory of certain gentle algebras. We expand on this connection by defining a flow on the fringe...
so Im stuck on pt 2 rn
I have this rn, if I could find the inner product of the characters in that sum I would be done by S churs orthogonality relations
but I dont see how to simplify to that point
prove that each ψ_i is an endomorphism of the regular representation (by left-multiplication) and look at what the image of it may be
can anyone give a crash course explanation in L_\infty algebras and possibly how they are relevant to Lie theory?
I’ve been watching Borcherd’s lectures on Galois theory and he mentions the notion of an “absolute Galois groupoid”, which is analogous to the fundamental groupoid in terms of getting around choosing a particular algebraic closure. Is this… actually useful in any way?
Pls don't crosspost
sorry, didn't know that was a rule. Won't happen again :)
ngroupoid was just talking about their use in p-adic geometry in neam’s thread
I'm seeing mention to one module being a "direct factor" of another, but can't seem to locate a definition for that
Would it be like:
If $V = U\oplus W$ then $U$ and $W$ are direct factors of $V$
NotABot
direct factors are usually in reference to factors or a direct product
this would be a direct summand
though in this case they are the same ofc, biproducts and allat
So would that be an appropriate definition do you think?
For context, I'm trying to understand what it means to be "relatively projective" here
Awesome, ty
yes this is often useful to consider
Explicitly or in the back of your mind lol
sometimes very explicitly otherwise you can make some mistakes
Ye sure
I am reminded of any arguments in l-adic cohomology where you define weights using a choice of embedding \iota:\bar{Q}_l->C
What I mean is like ok you should not usually fix an embedding
Or if you do then fix forever and be careful or smth
But I haven't seen like idk the groupoid used as a groupoid lol
it's more like you sometimes need to keep track of this choice and what happens if you change it
of course this picture is much more obviously useful when you're looking at \pi^et_1 for things that aren't just Spec of a field
in that case yeah the groupoid situation is incredibly useful
I guess another reason why you might want to consider this perspective is that you can often model these kinds of absolute Galois groups in terms of objects which are not 0-dimensional things anymore, and then you do need to keep track of basepoints
Just want to sanity check if my proof works
By applying $S^{-1}$ and $\hom(-,N)$ in either order we get that the two rows are exact. The rightmost square commutes since the vertical isomorphisms are natural. The red arrow composed with $f^\ast$ is zero so it factors through the dotted arrow and by the five lemma thats an isomorphism
Jussari
what is the Koszul complex?
@limpid horizon is there a certain context you need to understand in, because the definiton can be found anywhere
The first line in the last paragraph seems to suggest that all left exact presheaves on Ring^fin are representable. I can see how to extract a ring from such a functor (recover the underlying set by looking at F(Z[x]), recover the additive/multiplicative identity by looking at F(Z[x] --> Z) given by x goes to 0/1, recover addition/multiplication by looking at F(Z[x] --> Z[y,z]) given by x maps to y+z/yz). Let R be this ring. How does F being left exact help in showing that F is represented by R?
Any finitely generated ring A can be written as a quotient of $Z[x_1] \otimes ... \otimes Z_[x_n]$. Since the tensor product is the product in $Ring^{op}$ and quotienting is philosphically a limit in $Ring^{op}$, F should commute with everything (of course, the problem here is that we are quotienting by an ideal here, not a ring so it doesn't make sense to evaluate F at the denominator)
Finitely Many Bananas
The fact that you're quotienting by an ideal is an easy fix. Just take Z[x1, ..., xm] where the xi maps to the generators of your ideal.
I see. Will my ring then be the coequalizer of this map and the map that sends all the x_i to 0?
Very basic question, but it doesn't necessarily go in the groups-rings-fields channel I guess. I'm trying to wrap my head around free Algebras. In particular I'm having trouble connecting the "universal property" definition to the "explicit construction" (polynomials in words on an alphabet) definition. I've gotten some hand-wavy explanations of how a free algebra is supposed to contain every possible polynomial, and how evaluation corresponds to the universal property, but in all honesty it really just flies completely over my head and the lecture notes I've been given haven't really been helping me. This is the first time I've really had to deal with "free" structures (there was something short about free groups in my group theory class but we moved on very quickly from it and never really revisited it, so I came away with basically nothing).
Any tips on how to approach this? Analogies/explanations that made it click for you? Anything is appreciated
noncommutative algebra right?
Correct
Well the course I'm taking is actually on modules, but this is included and it's the first time I've worked with algebras as well
My suggestion would be to carefully examine what it means to define a homomorphism out of a free algebra
So take for example the free algebra
k<x, y>
a monomial is some multiplication of xs and ys for example
x^2 y^3 x y^5 x^7
the elements are linear combinations of monomials, and a homomorphism can map x and y to whatever you want where you extend the homomorphism by for example
f(x^2 y x) = f(x)^2 f(y) f(x)
Which part is it that gives you trouble. The fact that f is determined by the value of x and y? The fact that you can map x and y wherever? Exactly what the elements of k<x, y> is?
It might be beneficial to think about the case of commutative algebras first if that's more familiar.
There the free algebras are just the polynomial rings (for example k[x, y]) and maps are still given by evaluating the polynomials
you can think of a free structure as being as "generic" as possible. This means that your generators (which you can see as variables of some expression) cannot have any relations. Just like how you wouldn't expect the equation xy + 3z = 0 to hold for all x, y, z.
So, what might a "generic" algebra look like? Well, it must be generated by its generating set, so every element must be written as some combination of the generators, i.e. some linear combination of the monomials jagr mentioned, which are all the ways you can add multiply and scale some set of variables noncommutatively. But we also want no nontrivial relations between these variables, as our free object must be "generic", so two of these expressions must be the same iff all the coefficients before the monomials are the same (i.e. if one can show they are the same using only basic algebra).
To connect this to the universal property, convince yourself that any function f : X → A where A is some algebra, can be uniquely extended to an algebra homomorphism from your free algebra "assigning" to each variable x in X the value f(x), and then evaluating the expression. For this reason these maps are commonly called evaluation maps.
I think I have a good idea of what the actual free algebra itself looks like (since I've been given the explicit construction), what I'm still not really getting is how this is equivalent to the existence of a unique morphism from K<X> to some K-algebra A given just a regular function f:X-->A (this is how it's been defined to me)
So, given the explicit construction, can you see how such a unique morphism is made?
Not right now, thinking through all the responses I just got lol
Mhm mhm
I think it’s like - you define $\psi(x^2 y x y^2) = f(x)^2 f(y) f(x) f(y)^2$ and stuff, given your map $f : X \to A$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Right, so then the point is that given any function X -> A, it should extend to a unique homomorphism from K<X>.
So in the case k<x, y> -> A if you know the value of f(x) and f(y) can you determine what the homomorphism should do with other elements?
If an object satisfies a universal property P does it usually also mean that any other object that satisfies P would be isomorphic?
I mean I can definitely see that I can construct a homomorphism in this way, but I still can't really convince myself that it's unique. Like, why does it have to be that evaluation is the only way to pass from K<X> to A? I can definitely see that evaluation of a polynomial is a way to do it, but I don't really see why it is the canonical, unique way
i think the point is that given a function X -> A that function gives a unique way to map K<X> to A
where K<X> to A map restricted to just X is the f map
yes it does, thats why universal properties are nice
K<x,y> is a ridiculously massive set right, it's all possible elements in K in front of all possible combinations of x and y
unique in that it makes a diagram commute
is that a category theory proof or something? I remember for tensor products, later on there was a proof that showed that if an abelian group L satisfies those properties, its isomorphic to a tensor product. But we needed a whole separate proof for that
its unique with the property that it sends x to f(x) for x ∈ X
yeah, universal properties can be defined in a couple different ways
one of them being as a universal object of some functor, which has a particularly nice relationship with adjoints
so something would only be called a universal property if it also satisifies this nice thing
oh ok cool
yea
maybe just write out some elements in K<x,y> to see what they look like
It's actually even bigger than what I stated lol
It's also all possible linear combinations of those
yeah and sums and stuff
Yeah
the important part to note is that a homomorphism is totally determined by where it sends the generators
a classic
Ok I think I'm starting to get this direction better
it took me some time to get used to this stuff especially for tensor products
Writing it out I get that I have to eventually evaluate a word letter by letter essentially
And obviously then if I already have that then there's only one way to do it
like this is what the uniqueness part of the universal property says, that the free algebra is generated by X
Still seems quite cloudy but it is clearing up a bit
yes thats it
Haven't struggled this much with something that's supposed to be so basic in a long time
idk its kind of abstract at first
Everything in this fkn field is 💀
yeah the thing is with universal properties tho they do come up a lot so you're kind of just forced to get used it
I can see that now
I think if you're used to vector spaces you can kinda think of it that way
To specify a linear map you can send the basis anywhere
When I first encountered it in group theory I was just like "eh this was barely half a lecture I doubt it's that important"
and there's always a unique linear map
<---- clueless
lol
but in general when your objects aren't free relations get in the way of that
shoot yeah idk why im thinking now why doesnt just finitely generated modules not have that property
for example there's no (nontrivial) homomorphism from the cyclic group Z/3Z to the integers precisely because 3•1=0 so you would need 3•f(1)=0 for any homomorphism (which of course wouldn't work)
What I kinda hate about this is that I can already tell that once I get it fully it'll feel super obvious and if anyone asks me for help with it I'm almost certainly gonna give them answers that sound just as unhelpful as many I've already received
well finitely generated modules can have relations
because they arent free and can have relations
the special thing is that any module over a field is free
which corresponds to the fact that the ring has nontrivial ideals
yeah i got kinda stuck on thinking what that ruins
This is exactly how I feel about universal properties lol, I did not understand the tensor product for the longest time and found all of peoples comments so unhelpful but when it finally clicked I was like oh yeah it is just that
each relation on generators imposes a restriction on the possible homomorphisms
Anyways thanks for the help everyone, I still don't really feel like I fully understand what's going on (although I can't point out exactly why) but I definitely have a better idea at least
For example if x^3=1 in your group, then for any homomorphism you must have f(x)^3=f(1)=1
That is the image of f must have order 1 or 3 which is a restriction
and other relations impose more restrictions
i see
also, if we have a field, any relation between elements of a vector space can be rewritten as one element being a linear combination of the others
with no relations, you can send a generating set anywhere and get a unique homomorphism extending it
so this means that any relation on a free structure again just gives a free structure
also if you respect the relations you always get a homomorphism
oh wow so you cant send the generators of a fg module anywhere? i certainly did not have the right understanding of this before then.
i see what ur getting at though
easy example, both Z/Z2 and Z are Z modules that are f.g.
but you can't send 1 in Z/2Z to anything other than 0 in Z
since it's image must have order 1 or 2
but everything in Z has infinite order except 0
the relation in question here is the fact that 1+1 = 0 (ik obvious just wanted to say it)
Yeah
If you've done group presentations it only really clicks once you see that
or at least to me
do u mean that, if u send the generators in a way that respects the relations, then u get a homomorphism
yeah in the sense of group presentations basically
yes
this makes a bit mroe sense to me now because i did some field theory and thinking about homs of fields send solutions to solutions
over a polynomial yk
this is what the universal property of quotients says!! lol
so say you have a group <x,y | x^2=y^3> generated by two elements x and y subject to the relation x^2=y3
if H is some other group with elements a and b satisfying a^2=b^3
then there's a unique homomorphism from the group given as a presentation to H
sending x to a and y to b
theres a unique hom from that to H (not sure what u mean by given as a presentation to H)
I just mean let G be the group generated by x and y subject to that relation
I think the key point is that the homomorphism has to agree with f on the generators
So G is quite large
sorry can u elaborate just a lil :p
but you can define a homomorphism on G by only knowing where the generators go
provided that the images of the generators obey the relations
yea
It comes from the fact that a group presentation is defined as a quotient of a free group
i thought enpeace is citing universal property of quotients in general
Universal property of the quotient says if you have f:G -> H and a normal subgroup N of G such that f(n)=0 for any n in N, then there's a unique map from the quotient G/N to H
which, is.. R->S factors uniquely through R->R/I->S i guess (im just thinking in rings cuz i like them)
where f is given as the projection followed by that unique map
but yeah there's an analogous statement for most algebraic structures
Yeah I can see exactly that, but it's still a bit unclear to me that this would only correspond to polynomials right. Like going off of the universal property alone why should I expect the free algebra to be a set of polynomials? I can see that if we accept that it is to begin with then there's a unique homomorphism there, but I guess I'm just uncomfortable that we just sorta immediately assumed it was that way.
So if you want to define the group generated by x, y subject to the relation x^2=y^3
Like how would I eventually deduce that it did in fact look like that were I only given the universal property
do we also need to cite the factorization of maps like in the diagram? Like do universal properties always come with some factorization of maps in that way>
the precise way to do that is to take the free group on x and y and then quotient by the normal subgroup generated by the relation x^2=y^3
yeah f factors uniquely through the quotient in this case
say you have a quotient map p : A → A/R. Then a homomorphism f : A → B can be factored through p if and only if R ⊆ ker f
Ok this is a cool question
Here’s one way to think about it
Suppose you have a set X, and a function X -> A
i tried to motivate this in my initial response to you
(the normal subgroup generated by x^2 = y^3 is just the normal subgroup generated by the element x^2y^{-3})
.
Given that you only have access to X, this function, and the operations in A
What are all the possible elements of A you can reach?
The way to think about this is that a free structure should consist of all the different ways to combine your operations.
So a free group should consist of all possible products and inverses of your generators.
A free algebra should consider of all possible ways to multiply and take linear combinations of your generators, and that's exactly what a polynomial is (some linear combination of multiplications of variables)
Ok this is making more sense now
Like k<x, y> would need to contain x and y.
Then it also needs to contain x^2 and xy and so on of course. And what makes it free is that we never impose any relations. So for example xy shouldn't equal something we had before, it should be something new
Elements of a free object always tend to be built out of syntax
Jagr is the goat for understandable explanations
Each element corresponds to a way of taking a function f : X -> A, and producing an element of A
In a way that makes for “all” A
Ok I see
And then if we wanted commutativity for example then we start imposing relations like xy=yx
yes
This is making sense
Thanks everyone 🙏🙏🙏
It's still probably gonna take some getting used to but at least I'm not completely lost like before lol
Mhm, this would correspond to only considering commutative algebras A
to be honest i don't really understand what you mean by "as generic as possible"
generic in the sense that you're imposing the fewest algebraic conditions on the elements ig
why does that correspond to "generic"
@.@
I think generic is not really the right word lol because this is maximally simple
because it's generic in the sense that doing highschool algebra is treating the variables as "generic numbers"
Yeah it’s sort of the minimal set of assumptions so that your object actually is that object. I agree it’s not really any more generic than a given ring but I do kinda see what he’s saying
which is often like extra structure rather than generic lol
just like you're treating the variables in a free algebra as "generic elements" of an algebra in your class/variety
oh no this confuses me even more 😭
In alggeo you have generic points that special to more specific things.
So something generic should map onto something specific
there is a sense though too in that these are universal rings so like dealing with these is often as good as dealing with everything
"the" universal ring?
idk but there it seems the naming is more just cause those points are dense
For example you might make a variety of algebras
k<x, y> / (axy = byx)
where (a:b) is a point on the projective line.
Then the generic point of the projective line would correspond to k<x, y>
Well yeah, a specialization is a point in the closure. So being dense is the same as specializing to a bunch of stuff
ye
maybe i'll just stick with my existing categorical intuition...
Oh yeah Jagr I have a funny question
Of the word generic?
do you know much about reps of (say) sl_2 mod p lol