#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 5 of 1
degree k terms like in what sense sorry
k-th term in your complex
Ok
it's nothing that adds new information you just play with the indices
Yeah
but seriously what is that lk_{st H_a} G_a notation
lk is "link" an operation on simplicial complex
i see
im trying to learn about Hochsters formula and reisners criterion
this is in chapter 5 of bruns and herzog
Say we have a filtration
$$0 = E_0 \subset \cdots \subset E_r = E$$
of $E$, then we get an associated graded object
$$G = \bigoplus_i \frac{E_i}{E_{i-1}},$$
and we can recover $E$ from $G$ by considering extensions of the summands. Is there a name for the condition where we ask for the extension
$$0 \to E_{i-1}/E_{i-2} \to E_i/E_{i-2} \to E_i/E_{i-2} \to 0$$
to be non-trivial for all $i$?
shingtaklam1324
If we think of the extension going from $G$ to $E$ as an upper triangular matrix $A$, this is the same as asking for $A_{i, i+1}$ to be non-zero for all $i$
shingtaklam1324
So this should be a condition on the filtration. Also the last term should say E_i/E_{i-1}
The basis consist of the single basis vector [] so is rank 1
Assuming my laptop feels functional when I get home I’ll send you some stuff, I don’t remember where but I remember finding a paper which was significantly less ass than Bruns and Herzog
My laptop feeling functional is currently a nontrivial assumption
Oh, thank you, yeah i have been spending a long time on it its pretty annoying to parse through
Yeah it’s certainly a book…
I don’t remember exactly where the exposition I found came from but I’d possibly check Miller and Strumfels, it could’ve been in there
There’s also a real possibility my laptop is just no longer working so I wouldn’t hold your breath, but there is definitely better stuff out there, I remember looking at all this for my UG thesis
book so ass the laptop gave up
(for simplicial homology) it says if the complex is acyclic then its also split exact.. is that because the modules involved are all free modules?
Sorry for the silly q but what precisely do you mean by split exact?
But yes this will very likely use the fact that the modules are free (it does if my interpretation is correct)
Well this does not have the definition of split exact
yeah thats just what it says
oh lol
But okay one definition is that the canonical map 0 -> C is a chain homotopy equivalence
And then it'll be a special case of the fact that a quasi-iso of (homologically) bounded-below chain complexes which is degreewise free is a chain homotopy equivalence
Naive question, but what exactly is the purpose of forming rings and modules of fractions? Is it just for the purposes of localizing, which tells us information about the overall ring/module?
I would view them as - analogously to forming quotients - simplifying your ring/module by cutting out some information. As a simple example, if you have some finitely generated abelian group $M$, then you can write $M$ as some direct sum $M = \mathbf Z^{\oplus m} \oplus \bigoplus_n \mathbf Z/n\mathbf Z$, and considering $M[1/p]$ will kill the bits where $p$ is not invertible (the $\mathbf Z/p^n$ bits). Or if you go all the way and form $M_{\mathbf Q} = M \otimes_{\mathbf Z} \mathbf Q$, then this kills all of the torsion and just leaves you with $\mathbf Q^{\oplus m}$. So this is much simpler and lets you e.g. work out $m$ more
Prismatic Potato
You can also think about what it does to primes of a ring
Also, do we need Proposition 3.3 in order to see that S^{-1}M' is a submodule of S^{-1}M? It should be pretty clear without it, using the definitions (at least I hope, I did it in my head)
Oh interesting
Yeah it isn't bad
i mean basically if m is zero (in either) then that is witnessed by some stuff in S which doesn't have anything to do with M beyond the span of m
for example localising at a prime gives a local ring and those are nice to work with, and there are so-called local properties which hold iff they hold in all localisations at primes
If p is a prime ideal of a ring A, then primes of A/p correspond to primes of A containing p; primes of A_p correspond to primes of A contained in p
In this sense quotient and localization of primes are kind of complementary notions
complements?
aah
only with regards to primes
I like it when we make things easier to prove
yes :3
wait localizations aren't always flat right
I know that S^{-1}A is flat whenever A is a ring
If $M$ isn’t flat then $S^{-1}M$ cant be flat, since $S^{-1}M \cong S^{-1}A \otimes_A M$
anamono
you can cook up examples of this by looking at modules with torsion over integral domains
This is false
e.g. Z/2 (+) Z is not flat over Z but is after tensoring up to Q or inverting 2
Or more dramatically dont even add the Z lol
I shouldve said S^-1M isnt always flat
You can also just invert the multiplicative set {1}
Yeah I had some feeling the “can’t” part of my original message was off
What is R^m here given a presentation (X|Y)? In general, the submodule generated by the relations is not going to be free.
So the sub module generated by the relations is the image of the map R^m -> R^n, not R^m itself
the m here is the number of relations (the cardinality of Y), and you build the map by sending the basis vectors of R^m to relations
Ah, okay. That makes sense, thanks!
When you do a tensor product of chain complexes, what happens to the differential maps?
Its fine ill just google a defn lol
You use the induced differential on the total complex of a bicomplex
im in a situation where C is a fg free Z-module. k is a field, and we can consider HomZ(C,k) as a k-vector space right? Would it be the same rank as C?
Can we like write HomZ(C,k) = HomZ(Z (+) Z, k) = HomZ(Z,k) (+) HomZ(Z,k) like does that help (just in example where rank C = 2)
I guess so, since HomZ(Z,k) = k probably as k-modules
I havent studied dual vector spaces before but this must be relevant right?
You don't really need duals, if you mix abstraction levels and say:
Let A be the set of generators of C. By abstract nonsense (free-forgetful adjunction in Zmod), HomZ(C,k) is in bijection with Set(A, k).
By the concrete construction of the free k-module with A generators, its elements are exactly all the functions in Set(A, k) that are nonzero at finitely many inputs. But since A is finite, that is everything in Set(A,k).
Iirc there’s a simple example for the tensor product of Koszul complex worked out in Serre’s Local Algebra book
Where he writes out the explicit differential
Hmm maybe I remember wrong
Anyway I think rotman also does it
I suppose Hom_ℤ(C, k) = Hom_k(C (⨯)_ℤ k, k) (isomorphic as k-vector spaces) is the dual of the k-vector space C (⨯)_ℤ k,
exactly this yeah, and note this is more canonical (i.e. does not require a choice of basis for C)
Works for finite rank.
But countable rank turns into uncountable dimension and similarly for bigger cardinalities
If I have A,C two abelian group, P* a projective résolution of C, how can I create a bijection from H^1(Hom(P*,A)) to Ext(C,A) ?
So you have
0 -> K -> P0 -> C -> 0
as the first part of P*
And H1(Hom(P*, A) is the cokernel of
Hom(P0, A) -> Hom(K, A)
The bijection is given by pushout of
0 -> K -> P0 -> C -> 0
along the map K -> A
It's an easy diagram chase to check that the pushouts splits iff K->A factors through P0, and you can show surjectivity using that P0 is projective
Suppose $E \to X$ is a complex vector bundle of rank $r$, and we have an $\mathbb C^$ action on $E$ fibrewise. In particular, we get representations $\mathbb C^ \to \mathrm{GL}(E_x)$ for all $x \in X$. Any such representation decomposes into weight spaces, so we have $\lambda_1(x), \dots, \lambda_r(x) \in \mathbb Z$ being the weights (not necessarily distinct). Is there anything we can say about how the weights vary as $x$ varies?
shingtaklam1324
I strongly suspect the weights (with multiplicity) are locally constant, right?
That's what I would hope, and I feel like something like Peter-Weyl would imply that?
which would involve a non-trivial bit of analysis but that's fine with me
Hm maybe, my suspicion is that it should be possible to generalise weight space decompositions to this setting
But idk a reference 😭
Very general question, but are there techniques to show that local properties are satisfied? (For example showing that a localization is zero)
Or is it usually much easier to show that the localization is zero for all prime ideals rather than showing the entire ring is zero
If S is a multiplicative set, A a ring, and M is an A-module, then S^{-1}M = 0 iff there exists s in S st sM=0
I would say this is like too general to answer nicely
Okay what about local properties like injectivity lol
Like local rings are ig nicer than just a random ring but it won't let you magically do what yoy want
Why are they nicer though, is it like you're cutting out information like you said earlier
Atiyah-Macdonald is littered with local property statements, if you’re curious
Yeah I'm going over local properties right now
I'm spoiled and am wondering if there's any way to make things easier 😂
i.e. anyway to reduce further
For example some things like Nakayama become way easier to apply
And structurally much clearer
In general there’s a lot of nice statements for local rings that you get to apply after localizing at a prime ideal
I’m pretty sure almost every exercise in chapter 3 of atiyah-macdonald is those kind of local property things
Or at least over half
have you gone through atiyah macdonald before
Mostly yeah
actually probably not going to happen within this year but whatever
But dont rush it. It’s very important stuff
I am a local property.
yeah for sure I'm averaging like 2-3 hours per exercise lol
Enjoy
It’s a good book
I should order a hard copy and throw away bruns herzog
That book so god damn boring I didnt even read it
I just use it as reference
Atiyah–Macdonald had a farm
Eieio
I remember I bought a copy of bruns herzog and showed my prof
He said “as far as math books go, that’s one of the most boring ones ever. and we’re talking about math textbooks here”
(I forgot if i told that story before but i giggle every time i think abt it)
For a infinite-dimension vector space $V$, we have that End($V) \not\cong V\otimes V^*$
NotABot
Is there any way to express End(V) as the tensor product of two or more spaces?
NotABot
There is a natural isomorphism V \otimes V* ~ End(V)
Only for finite dimensional V right
(Or at least, the canonical map one wants to write down is only an isomorphism in that case)
(so why this message?)
Sorry lol, I was going to type a question myself and thought of answering the line above before but I didn't scroll enough apparently ahah
I epxect it to be hard to formalise what you want -- you may want this to be a "natural" construction, but the assignment V |-> End(V) does not really lift to a functor
I guess one question would be whether there are spaces $A(V), B(V)$ (where $A$ is cotravariant and $B$ is covariant) such that $\mathrm{Hom}(V, W) \simeq A(V) \otimes B(W)$
Prismatic Potato
Mm, that's an interesting question
Anyway, my problem instead was:
(I was cosidering linear algebra for a moment, but then opted for this channel)
Are real diagonizable matrices dense in M_n(R) ?
If n=2, observing the sign of the polynomial discriminant (under a perturbation) for the companion matrix of x^2+1 leads to a negative answer
Then, maybe I am missing something easy, but if n>2 I couldn't quite generalize the proof
So they are instead dense when n>=3?
Oh wait R instead of C lol hm
Then this should be false for similar reasons: the characteristic polynomial depends continuously on the matrix coefficients, and the roots of a polynomial vary continuously with the coefficients
I asked ChatGPT and it gave me what looks like a correct answer lmao
What did it say lol
I mean I also gave you what I think is a correct answer, just without proof
The weights are log of eigenvalues, which depend continuously on the base, but are also integers
That was my possible approach, but what we would like to happen is that, under any sufficiently small perturbation, a polynomial which doesn't split over R (it has an irreducible factor of degree 2) it still doesn't split
Yeah but that will follow by what i said right
For degree 2 polynomials the sign of the discriminant is a functional way to check this fact. But if the degree raise what ways do we have?
One of the roots (over C) has non-zero imaginary part and this remains true under small perturbations of the coefficients
But I think this can also be done more explicitly by considering a block-diagonal matrix made up of, say, a 2x2 rotation matrix and the identity matrix
Mm I see, that explaination seems nice. Although I am still a bit alarmed by this, so perturbating a polynomial doesn't mess at all with its factorization? I would have thought some wild behaviours could emerge, just instinctively
How do we make presice that roots depend continuously by the coefficients? Wouldn't this require the existence of a solving formula to express the roots for any degree?
That idea about the block matrix stopped me with this thought: perturbating a matrix doesn't leave invariant spaces still invariant right? So it should compromise it
Well I'm not necessarily looking for something natural (although that'd be neat) I'm just wondering if it's possible at all
Yeah that's more or less what I'm thinking
I think the thing is that there are just gonna be somewhat trivial answers to this because vector spaces have so little structure
like End(V) is just a vector space of some infinite dimension and you can always write those "non-trivially" as tensor products in tons of different random ways
Hmm that kinda makes sense
Also for infinite dimensional stuff you might want more structure? eg asking for V to be Banach, asking for continuous dual, using the tensor product of Banach spaces etc
The answer to this should be no, like i believe you can just deduce that B(W) = W naturally and then you are trying to write Hom(V,W) = A(V) (x) W, but then also the assignment W |-> A(W) is meant to preserve limits and so it just takes duals
And then you will just wind up with Hom(V,W) = Hom(V, k) (x) W as the only option, via the usual map
And then ig you just check this is not always an iso
Imagine working over R or C smh
Hmm okay I think I get it
@fierce steeple do you have any followup ? 
Hm well there are formulae for roots of polys i believe which are continuous, but you can also do ti more directly by like inverse function theorem i think
But also like e.g. if you consider the block diagonal matrix which is a rotation by 90 degrees in top 2x2 and 0 elsewhere, then the min poly is (x^2 + 1)x^n for some n. Thi scannot be very close to a polynomial which splits over R
Indeed note that $(x^2 + 1)x^n$ and $\prod_i (x-\lambda_i), \lambda_i \in \mathbf R$, must be far apart at $i$ because $|\prod_k (i-\lambda_k)| \ge 1$
Prismatic Potato
Thank you! : ) It makes total sense.
I had given up too early on that path.
Very nice argument there
thank, and np
i have a feeling these previous two exercises are supposed to help me prove that Q is not a free Z-module, but I don't see how exactly because Z is not a field?
maybe try to prove that there are supposed to be uncountably many elements to make a basis
yeah I don't see how. I did solve 1.13 and 1.14
Arguing based on the size of the basis is a good path
Think about linear dependence
The other exercises are not necessary
The second claim in Exercise 15 seems to be false... for instance, if $\mu_2(x_2) = 0$, then $x_2 \coloneqq (0, x_2, 0, \dots) = n_1x_1 - n_1 \mu_{1, 7}(x_1) + n_{10} x_{10} - n_{10} \mu_{10, 18}(x_10)$, say. Writing $\mu_{1, 7}(x_1) = (0, 0, \dots, 0, x_1', 0, \dots)$ in the 7th coordinate and $\mu_{10, 18}(x_{10}) = (0, \dots, 0, x_{10}', 0, \dots)$ in the 18th coordinate gives $(0, x_2, 0, \dots) = (n_1 x_1, 0, \dots) - (0, \dots, 0, n_1 x_1', 0, \dots) + (0, \dots, 0, n_{10} x_{10}, 0, \dots) - (0, \dots, 0, n_{10} x_{10}', 0, \dots)$. Such an expression is impossible, since there are no elements of $\iota_2(M_2)$ on the right hand side. Or maybe this is the point?
okeyokay
Considering Q is coumtable this should not be the case
I'm not sure how to make a solution that encorporates the two other exercises, but it's not hard to show that any pair of elements in Q is linearly dependent. So if it was free it would need to be isomorphic to Z (which it is not)
then you must have n₁ = n₁₀ = 0 so that j := i shows existence
hint: ||think about elements in D as "if you bring M_i to M_j then x_i - μ_ij(x_i) dies". then use the fact that you can represent x_i as a finite sum of elements of the form x_j - μ_jk(x_j)||
Thanks! Great!
writing $H^n$ where H is quaternions space , as $C^{2n}$ then we can define determinant of matrix $A\in M_n(H)$ by defining 2n x 2n matrix as below but C can take 3 embeddings but why determinant is independent of embedding ?
Curvature
that this is independent of the choice of embedding reduces to the case n=1 and it's a quick little computation with 2x2 complex matrices
how it reduces to n=1 case
you're writing a 2nx2n matrix in terms of nxn blocks and the determinant respects this block decomposition
e.g. for n=2 if A,B,C,D are 2x2 blocks then you have the following
$\mathrm{det}\begin{pmatrix} A & B\ C & D \end{pmatrix}=\mathrm{det}(AD-CB)$
nGroupoid
ohk so this reduces it
if you like you can check a similar thing involving nxn complex matrices written as 2nx2n real matrices
essentially the same argument
we have to show for n=1 only by this
yeah and then the n=1 computation is straightforward
this works for any embedding of C into H not just these three
do u have proof of this
does this formula always holds?
When I want to prove that is surjective, I use P0 is projective to obtain a morphism P0 —> E (E is my extension), then I take the pullback to complete my diagram an obtain a morphism f : ? —> A. How do I know f define a morphism from P1 to A ? (I’m really not familiar with pullback, pushout, sorry if it’s trivial)
In fact, I want f to be in H1(Hom(P*,A))
@lone jacinth can u help me
P0 -> E -> C has kernel K, so restricting P0-> E to K the image lands in A.
I.e. it restricts to a map K -> A, and K is a quotient of P1
don't just ping random people
Help with what anyway?
it's just a lin alg fact you can probably find it on the wikipedia of block matrices somewhere
he is helpful not random for me
dont u think i tried it, he wrote the formula for AC=CA case
see above
Aren't these embeddings just conjugates of each other.
Seems like it to me without verifying anyway
i am concerned about the aanswer given by groupoid above , the determinant formula only works for AC=CA
Yeah it’s true, look for Schur determinant formula
Well you'll have to ask groupoid about that
Sorry I don’t get it. If you restrict a map from P0 to E, the image lands in E ? An why K is a quotient of P1 ?
You have a short exact sequence
0 -> A -> E -> C -> 0
then A is the kernel of E->C.
So since K -> P0 -> E -> C is 0, the image of K -> P0 -> E must be contained in A
Okk I agree, and why K will be a quotient of P1?
That's how projective resolutions work. P0 is mapped to by P1, mapped to be P2 etc
So whenever you have a map P0->>C, you already know the kernel is a quotient of P1 ?
Well it's not "whenever you have a map".
A projective resolution is an exact sequence
... -> P1 -> P0 -> C -> 0
So then the kernel of one map is the image of another
I agree with that, but here we’re taking the kernel of P0 -> E -> C -> 0, wich is not a morphism of our exact sequence (or I missing something)
It is
That is how we chose P0 -> E
Thanks, I finally got it
Could someone explain why the eigenvalues must be integral linear combinations of L_i?
What is 12.2?
It is the eigenspace decomposition of an irreducible representation of sl3C
V = bigoplus V_alpha
That equation is 12.2
Don't you get integrality from the Cartan matrix?
For some Galois extensions K/R (it should equal C but we dont know that yet), write G = Gal(K/R). In some exercise, we are told "let H be a 2-Sylow subgroup of G [...]". Erm this might be dumb but how do we know it exists? (im really bad at group theory...)
Every group G has Sylow p-subgroups for all p. They will be of order the p-adic valuation of |G|
(In particular they might be trivial!)
Yes good point. The wikipedia article says n>0 but this is silly since the trivial thing satisfies all the properties of a Sylow p-subgroup
I guess maybe this is a convention thing but it seems cleanest this way
ohhh i frgot to consider this subgroup
ty you two
how do i get the algebraic closure of K((z)) ?
In particular if K is characteristic 0, then the algebraic closure would be the Puiseux series over the closure of K
thanks !
for a chain complex C, what does the complex C[-1] mean again ? C_i in C[-1] is C_i+1 in C?
I think it should be the other way around. The ith chain in C[n] should be the (i+n)th chain in C
This indexing always makes my eyes go crossed though so it's worth having someone else back it up
what happens to the maps (or "differentials")?
...they also get shifted
The ith chain (resp. differential) in C[n] should be the (i+n)th chain (resp. differential) in C
Yeah indeed the stacks project agrees with me
wait hold OOOOOOON
🙏 there is an extra thing happening to the maps
They get sent to (-1)^n times the (i+n)th chain map
that's a bit rogue
it seems weird that C[-1] increases the index by 1 and doesnt decrease it
The nth homology of C[-1] should be the (n-1)th homology of C. I find that pretty intuitive.
It's less clear to me whether this should be interpreted as increasing or decreasing the index.
But since you're writing C[-1] instead of C[1], maybe you're reading Weibel...?
Which I recently found out has the opposite convention, for some reason I cannot comprehend at all.
im looking at something thats using simplicial homology, in a theorem they had to shift C to some C[-j-1] so i was needing to understand what that meant
So I guess your saying that if C is concentrated in degree 0, then C[-(j+1)] is concentrated in degree j+1, which you would intuitively assume it was -(j+1)?
The short answer is it depends on conventions lol
😭
Was talking to jagr about this all
But usually you can just infer the convention quickly from context
Worst case just change notation to
$\Sigma C$ and $\Omega C$
Not jagr2808
Bruns-Herzog (if that's what you're still reading, kiand) uses the notation C[i]_n = C_{i + n}
I just checked lol, it's on page 32
Real
Example of transitive group action that is not faithful?
Action of $\bR$ on the unit circle $S^1$, namely $r\cdot e^{i\theta}=e^{i\theta r}$
harmacist
Thankyou, what about the trivial group action , i.e gx=x for all g in G and x in X.
I don’t think this action is transitive unless |X|=1. If there are two distinct points, there isn’t any group element which would get you from one to the other since the action is trivial.
I get the kernel to be 1. Why is it not faithful?
The kernel should be the whole group G
Since every element in the group is mapped to the identity map
The kernel is actually $2\pi\bZ$
harmacist
Oops I didn’t see they were replying to your example… lol
Understood, thanks 👍
Let any non-trivial group act on a singleton 😄
But also like you can completely classify them: if G acts transitively on X then you can identify the action with the action of G on G/H
(Harmacist's example can then be understood as the fact "S^1 = R/2pi i Z")
Take any transitive group action of a group G on a set X. Choose any group H. Then GxH acts on X via (g, h).x = g.x. The kernel of this action is {1}xH.
Isn’t the kernel not necessarily trivial (in particular ker (G->sym(X))? Like in Harmacists example? I think it should be ker(G-> sym(X)))xH.
But it does give a nice way to make an unfaithful action from a faithful action.
You're right, I mistakenly at the end assumed that the action of G was already faithful. But yes, my point is we can easily make new unfaithful actions, in fact "as unfaithful" as we like
For I and J radical, is it true that rad(I+J)=rad(I)+rad(J)?
no
the sum of two radical ideals isn't always radical
but rad(I+J) = rad(rad I + rad J)
see Atiyah-Macdonald chapter 1
<@&268886789983436800>
lol that was strange
Is this a good book on ring theory ?
Is there a notion of a diagram of chain complexes commuting up to homotopy?
yes
Thanks for the rec
i'm not sure i understand what you're asking too well, maybe someone else does, but it sounds like you're talking about chain homotopy?
Well, a chain homotopy is an equivalence relation between two chain maps.
But I guess I'm asking if there exists a notion of a "map" between chain complexes that's weaker than a chain map, more specifically where the resulting diagram commutes up to homotopy?
Just a commutative diagram in the homotopy category? Sure
The question doesn't seem to quite make sense.
Homotopy is a relation between chain maps, the squares of a chain map can't commute up to homotopy
Ah sure.
On a related note, suppose I have a series of vertical maps connecting each degree of two chain complexes but that don't necessarily make the resulting diagram commute. Are there situations where this can be "deformed" into a proper chain map?
And are there any statements at all that can be made about what map in homology this series of maps induces (if that even makes sense)?
I don't know about "deformed", but something that comes up is the Hom-complex whose degree i component is families of maps
An -> Bn+i
and where the differential takes
(fn) to
d_B o fn - fn+1 o d_A
The i-cycles of this complex are maps Hom(A, B[i]) and the homology are those maps up to homotopy
You wouldn't really expect them to induce a map in homology
Ahh yes, I forgot about this example. This might be related to what I need in my practical application
Thanks!
I guess I want to reformulate my original question as follows: Can this idea be used to come up with a weaker notion of a chain map that still induces a well defined map in homology?
So if you just look at what is needed to induce a map in homology:
Say you have f_i : Ai -> Bi
and you want f2 to induce a map in 2nd homology.
Then for every x in A2 with d(x) = 0 you would need d(f2(x)) = 0
and whenever x = d(y) there would need to be a z in B1 with f2(x) = d(z).
It's a little hard to imagine this as a condition on the fs in a natural way without just having z = f1(y). But I suppose they could anti-commute or commute up to some arbitrary automorphism
Sorry, which things are you saying anticommute?
Ok cool, this should be sufficient for my purposes. Thanks a lot!
If I have a complex whose modules are G-graded, to have a complex comprised of the a-th graded pieces, we need the original maps in the complex to be homogenous right?
Then in the a-th graded complex the maps there are just the restriction of d to that subgroup
Sure, in other words you want it to be a complex of G-graded modules
is there a concrete example of an autonomous category having an object with a left dual which is not isomorphic to the right
Could someone explain the computation carried out here line by line? I am not able to follow anything past the first line :(
What are E_3,2 and E_2,1?
Matsumura is another good communist algebra book
Upon the Witnessing 
i was looking for some thoughts on my publishment
https://divisionbyzeroaxiom.github.io/dbz-algebra-site, it's an algbera system.
fix the latex 🙏
wym?
fix the latex, currently your latex has every special symbol written out
you probably need to add the amsmath and amssymb packages
also, the fact that there is a parameter t here out of nowhere shouldnt be possible, any element in a commutative ring has at most one inverse
i dont get the premise either, a nilpotent element suggests an element that is "very small", in the sense that it multiplies to 0. So i dont know where the idea of x ⋅ κ = x/0 comes from because one should not expect 1/0 to behave like a nilpotent, because 1/0 should be treated like very big, more like an idempotent.
yea there shouldnt be a T parameter it’s cuz I did /tfrac and it dropped it so it jus looked like T, mb
setup:
work in the dual-number ring F[k]/(k^2). Let y = a + b*k with a ≠ 0.
find y^{-1} = α + βk so that (a + bk)(α + β*k) = 1.
multiply (using k^2 = 0):
aα + (aβ + bα)k = 1.
match coefficients:
aα = 1 -> α = 1/a
aβ + bα = 0 -> β = -b/a^2
so: (a + b*k)^{-1} = (1/a) + (-b/a^2)*k.
uniqueness: in any monoid, if u and v are both inverses of y, then
u = u*(yv) = (uy)v = 1v = v. So there’s no extra parameter.
the reason i’m using nilpotent is cuz im not making 0 invertible.
I define a total operator:
x / 0 := x * k
where k is central and nilpotent (k^2 = 0). It’s a bookkeeping tag that
carries the “remnant” (like a residue) through algebra.
reasons:
• keeps ring laws: associativity, commutativity, distributivity, and x0 = 0.
• linear: (x+y)/0 = x/0 + y/0.
• plays well with products: Res(xy) = Re(x)Res(y) + Re(y)Res(x).
this is different from frameworks that treat 1/0 as “very big” or idempotent;
those are wheels/transreals, a different semantics. I’m choosing a stable,
nilpotent totalization specifically to preserve ordinary algebra.
discord keeps fuckin up my syntax man
still, a nilpotent element does not act like 1/0
nilpotents are more like infinitessimals
text fraction
huh, cool
dfrac is display fraction
FRACTION IS FRACTION
i agree: a nilpotent does NOT “act like 1/0”. i’m not making 0 invertible.
what I’m doing is define a total operator:
x / 0 := x * k
inside the dual-number ring F[k]/(k^2) (k central, k^2=0). here “1/0” is just
shorthand for δ(1)=k, not an actual reciprocal of 0.
So this is bookkeeping,
not infinity.
but why make it nilpotent then is my question
why nilpotent? because it preserves ordinary algebra:
• (x+y)/0 = x/0 + y/0 (linearity)
• (xy)/0 = x*(y/0) + y*(x/0) (product rule for the k–coefficient)
• 0/0 = 0, and still x0 = 0
• multiplication: (a + bk)(c + d*k) = ac + (ad + bc)k
call Re(a+bk)=a and Res(a+bk)=b. Then Res(xy)=Re(x)Res(y)+Re(y)Res(x).
this lets me carry the “principal-part coefficient” (residue) through algebra
without breaking associativity/distributivity.
otherwise it breaks
Example in F[k]/(k^2):
5/0 = 5k = 0_5
(5/0) + (5/0) = 10k = 0_10
(5_3)*2 = (5+3k)*2 = 10 + 6k = 10_6
(5_3)*0 = 0 (and Res(5_3)=3; you read it with Res, not by *0)
having it not be nilpotent preserves ordinary algebra too
or, if you want an algebra of dimension 2, any other quadratic polynomial besides x^2 would work just as well
yep lots of tags would “preserve algebra”.
the reason I picked a nilpotent is that I want 3 extra properties at once:
1. keep the 2-slot form x = a + b*s (no higher powers),
2. Re(xy) = Re(x)Re(y), and
3. Res(xy) = Re(x)Res(y) + Re(y)Res(x) (the leibniz-style rule that matches simple pole calculus).
If we assume those, nilpotent drops out as a consequence:
work with a central symbol s and force closure in 2 slots:
(a + b s)(c + d s) = (ac) + (ad + bc) s + bd s^2.
since we only allow 1 and s, write s^2 = U + V s for some scalars U, V.
then
(a + b s)(c + d s) = (ac + U bd) + (ad + bc + V bd) s.
now impose the two desiderata:
(1) Re(xy) = Re(x)Re(y) for all x,y => U must be 0
(otherwise you'd get the extra term U bd in the real part).
(2) Res(xy) = Re(x)Res(y) + Re(y)Res(x) for all x,y => V must be 0
(otherwise you'd pick up + V bd).
Hence U = V = 0, i.e. s^2 = 0. that is exactly “nilpotent of order 2”.
damn you type awfully fast
TLDR
nilpotent isn’t about “acting like 1/0”. it’s the unique choice that (i) keeps the 2 slot numbers closed, (ii) makes Re a ring hom, and (iii) gives the clean product rule for Res that mirrors simple pole residue calculus.
TLDR
lots of 2-D algebras “preserve algebra”, but if you also want
Re to be a hom and Res to satisfy the Leibniz-style product rule,
you are forced to the nilpotent case.
162 monkeytype
thats why i stopped writing, too many sweats
huh, then maybe make that your introduction
your axioms are also a mix between definitions and immediate properties
thsts a good suggestion thank you, ill be sure to add better clarifcation
i’m new to writing axiom, feedback would be appreciated
This definition is the same as saying it's a monoidal natural isomorphism plus 2.2.4 right?
Yes
anyone?
like i can't find any reason for why i should care about left and right duals
Why is it called "division by 0", it doesn't appear to have anything to do with division by 0, it's just the dual numbers
After looking it up I believe example 1 in section XIV.2 in Kassel is an example (page 347)
Take the category A-mod_f with A a Hopf algebra and he endows the left dual and the right dual with actions given by the antipode and it's inverse respectively
i was looking at this decomposition result in wikipedia called pierce decomposition but when is this true? When can i write the identity as a sum of central orthogonal primitive idempotents?
Should be for any Noetherian ring
I'm a probabilist reading a course/paper on random walks on Lie groups (a theorem in it is necessary to prove smtg). Anyone here can explain what exactly is a "unitary representation" ? (I'm really unfamiliar with representation theory and have just basic knowledge on group theory and group action from my bachelor's)
Thanks in advance
it is an action of your group G on C^n, where G acts by unitary matrices (so distance-preserving)
also can/should be thought of as a group homomorphism G --> U(C^n), the group of n x n unitary complex matrices
thanks
Basic question but im trying to make sense of the natural map like Rx1->Rx1x2
Where something like Rx1 is localization of R at the mult closed set generated by x1.
I guess im a little unsure because the denominators in Rx1x2 are of the form (x1x2)^n but sending r/x1 into Rx1x2 doesnt have a denominator of that form
well the idea is that, if you can divide by x1x2 you can divide by x1
just take x2/x1x2
Ok so, I think of localization as making inverses for the elements in S, but this is a case where we’re not only inverting elements of S but we’re also inverting others too
so by the universal property of localisations (if there is a ring map f : R → R' where f(S') is a set of units in R', then we have a unique map from the localisation R_S to R'), there must exist a natural map R_x1 → R_x1x2, which looks like
a/x1^n ↦(a x2^n)/(x1x2)^n
yes, that can happen
in particular, whenever fg ∈ S, then both f and g also get inverses in the localisation
so we can have different multiplicative sets giving the same localisation (up to canonical isomorphism)
Does anybody know if there's a subring of R analogous to Z_p in Q_p? I've just noticed that it's very easy to justify the p-adic integers via the algebraic construction (as an inverse limit), but rather difficult via the analytic construction (completion of Q).
i think the right way to view this is that, yes you invert elements in S, but that can have consequences being more invertible elements. just like how only asking for x to be 0 in the polynomial ring has as consequence that all polynomials collapse to their constant coefficient
R->R’ in that case is R->Rx1x2 and that factors through a map Rx1->Rx1x2 by universal property? Are you using this to justify why there is a map from Rx1->Rx1x2 and that uni property also tells us what the map is?
yis, basically
doesnt really help if you havent learned to think universal properties though
mull over it for a bit id suggest, commutative algebra can be hard
see atiyah-macdonald chapter 3 for universal property of localization
the explicit construction of the map is there
and i think they use it in some of the proofs of that section idr
Yeah it factors through g(a)g(s)^-1 if g: R->R’ and g(S) are units in R’
yis
Yea sometimes just the little details can be weirdly confusing
consider maybe Z_2 and Z_6.
if you have n/6, then surely 2 * 3/6 = = 1, which means that there must be an inverse of 2 in Z_6. As Z_2 is "the most general" ring with an inverse of 2, there must be a map from Z_2 to Z_6
Yea that example is nice
Please dont write Z_2 for this dawg 😭
That is different too
Dafoq
Lol
What is it
Z[2^-1] = {a/2^i}
Z_(2) = { a/n where n is odd}
Z_2 = 2-adics
i remember in my commutative algebra course my prof said "i'm gonna write Z_n as Z/nZ" and a phd student shook his head and uttered "what?"
O
Though ofc some ||heathens|| use Z_2 = Z/2Z too
Good
you just called my prof a heathen
Early algebra stuff likes using Z_2 for Z/2Z
But yeah the thing is like
better to not use bad notation from the get-go
Often you write A_f for like inverting f and A_p for inverting away from a prime p
Yea right
For Z this gets really bad
Lmao
Like Z_(p) is standard and comes up for loclaising at the prime as mentioned but ye
yeS i forgot the p-adics existed i may be stupid
or well, im just not a number theorist
god bless
is using Z_2 really that bad? It's shorter than any other alternative
<2>^-1 Z
where <2> denotes the submonoid of the multiplicative monoid of Z generated by 2
of course
I think people tend to overdramatize this
Idk I geuss this is just me doing a field where i use the p-adics like very regularly lol
but perhaps yeah it is just number theorists + similra who care about this lol
it's a fair point sometimes but there's just always that one person who goes wah wah that's the p-adics when a prof uses Z_p for Z/pZ in a course where the p-adics won't come up a single time
here when talking about stuff with not that much context i agree that you should reserve Z_p for them
The um akshually ppl in math are v annoying
it's not even a gotcha i can call the polynomial ring Z_p if i want to
p for polynomial
horrid
Its my
Polynomial i can call it Z_p if i want to 🎶
Loc(R, S) for localisation of R by S
Lol
Z_n=Z/nZ. Z_p or Z_ell, p-adics or ell-adics.
and for nontrivial prime powers Z_q means the localisation by q
do this and get the paper in annals and i'll personally give you one million usd
i personally denote prime numbers with n for non divisible
i use S for algebraic Structure
i use F for sheaF
R for gRoup
big things happening today
we are revolutionising notation
K for fieKld
normalise Z/n
this is awesome haha
and of course Loc(R, 𝔭) means the localisation at 𝔭
I still need to figure out a notation system where you can disinguish between localisation and homogenous localisation and p-adics and stuff but I cant figure out the right way to write it down
for some reason i really prefer M_f over M[1/f] and I can live with that conflicting with Z_p but now I cant figure out what to do with localisation of graded modules haha
homogenous localisation? graded rings?
yea like M is a graded module over a graded ring R and f is a homogenous element then M_f is m/f^e with m,f homogenous of the same degree
mm i see
interesting
i wonder if graded structures form a universal algebra in some way
is the quotient of a graded module by a graded submodule (respecting the grading) also a graded module?
yes
oo
arbitrary products might pose a problem though
although..
wait no yeah they do
the category of graded R-modules forms an abelian category
The direct sum when considering graded objects is like an “internal” direct sum right
aint no variety though, only finite products 😔
doesn't internal direct sum mean you have an object and you take the direct sum of subobjects?
the direct sum of graded modules is just the typical direct sum
coproduct in the category
Yea but arent the graded parts all like subgroups
if you consider a graded ring as only its set of homogeneous components and multiplication • : R_n × R_m → R_n+m then this has been already UA-ized
by Birkhoff I think?
Analogous in what way?
Z_p is the closure of Z inside Q_p, so for R I guess it would just be Z.
It's possible to cook up rings with field of fractions R, but they won't be very canonical (besides R itself).
yeah
ugh cant find it but it was used to prove something related to Mal'cev conditions in a paper i read somewhere
I guess something that might make sense would be to take the closure of the integral closure of Z inside R. I would guess this just equals R, but idk
hmm i guess you can look at the direct sum of graded R-modules as some form of internal direct sum
there we go
like if I have two graded R-modules M and N, then you can look at the i-th graded piece M_i (+) N_i as a subobject of M (+) N as just modules (forgetting the grading)?
idk that's not really a fully formed thought
Ye
If I have M, N and L graded, is M (+) N (+) L graded with the decomposition of an element (m,n,l) into homogenous components as (m,0,0)+(0,n,0)+(0,0,l)?
The usual geometric intuition is that Z_p should be like the closed ball in Q_p
yes
That was assuming m n and l were homogenous already i guess
How so?
if $M(i)$, for $i \in I$ some index set, is a collection of graded $R$-modules, then the direct sum $N = \oplus_I M(i)$ is given by the grading $N_j = \oplus_I M(i)_j$
anamono
"the degree j part of the sum is the sum of the degree j parts"
You mean because it's not equal to the product of the underlying modules?
Sometimes its confusing in direct sums when the sum + you can actually combine or just leave it as an expression with + if yanno what i mean
that should work though
right
I guess you can get sqrt(N) arbitrarily close to an integer, so the Z-linear span of square roots is dense
the homogenous components would be M_j = ∏i M{j, i}
Yeah, that's the product of graded modules
oh i see how the underlying module would be different yeah
Probably an easy way to do this is that like a Z-graded thing (except rings...) is a functor from discrete Z to the category of things
So basically everything nice is inherited
this is about as general as you could have it
I guess one would need to check that that is actually compatible with the module structure, but it is so....
(without invoking category theory)
Yeah i mean this is kinda clear from how everything is defined pointwise
Well it's not exactly pointwise
You have maps R_i x M_j -> M_j+i going between the points
Oh over a graded ring
Yeah that makes it different lol
(The categorical description is then that R is an algebra object in Fun(Z,Ab) and M is an R-module in that category)
Lol
this might be a definition less general but closer to graded rings or modules:
Let F and F' be signatures, and G an F'-algebra. Then an F-algebra graded by G is a collection of F-algebras (A_g)_g∈G with n-homomorphisms of F-algebras or just functions idk either can work
f : A_g1 × ... × A_gn → A_f(g1, ..., gn)
for all gi ∈ G and f ∈ F'_n
But still means it is very formally similar, replacing Ab by Fun(Z, Ab)
what if m and n have the same degree, then (m,n,l) = (m,n,0) + (0,0,l) is another decomposition into homogenous components?
yes
because then (m, 0, 0) and (0, n ,0) are in the same homogenous component, so their sum is too
ok so the uniqueness of the decomposition is still satisfied
yeh i guess modules and me got something in common
we both just kinda nice like that
B)
youre ong just a chill guy
yea but i dont wanna go that far because im super humble and stuff
i aspire to be a chill guy
i should probably be continuing doing my math but ong i am too lazy
i spent the last 8 hours or so doing stupid gre prep
im done for now
maybe after dinner i'll do some ag
gre prep?
so like Rx1x2 does not have the element 1/x1 but like it actually does cause its x1/x1x2
like why does that make me feel weird
idk like i get it (i think) but something about it i feel like i dont understand and i also dont know how to describe what i dont understand about it
it has x2/x1x2
just like 3/6 is the same as 1/2
right
this simplification can be done explicitly in a "larger" ring, that being Rx1x2 localised by x1 / 1
though that notation gets a little messy
and just like 6/8 is the same as 3/4, the natural map Z_4 → Z_8 sends 3/4 to 6/8
it can be seen as a sort "unsimplification"
rather than simplifying the fraction, you make it more complicated so that the denominator matches
Besides chris eigen's series on youtube for tensor algebra is there a good book for tensor algebra and calculus? Like I am not looking to derive everything from the first principle like pure math students do just get enough understanding for tensor decomposition and get comfortable with tensor calculus
What is tensor algebra and tensor decomposition? Sometimes you can factor a tensor into a symmetric and alternating part….
It sounds like you want to read lee’s smooth manifolds book. Although, if you want to learn about multilinear algebra I’d recommend multilinear algebra by greub yet it has nothing to do with calculus as far as I can tell
Might be better to ask in #diff-geo-diff-top or perhaps a place with physicist. It's more of a differential geometry thing.
Thanks
I did a course on galois theory (we covered until kummer's theorem of abelian extensions), what's the next step if I wanna keep learning abt it?
I'm not sure there's necessarily one natural next step, but there are also some classification theorems for inseperable extensions which might be interesting.
And there's infinite Galois theory and profinite groups.
Then I guess there are fields where Galois theory appears, like Galois cohomology, algebraic number theory, geometric invariant theory.
Thanks. We talked about galois cohomology and used it to prove Kummer but I'm confused cause we introduced a new notion and barely used it, so I thought it would have been developed further
Courses often do that, the very last thing in my noncom rings class was a definition
What were they defining?
But more commonly, in my experience, courses will pull together a few different ideas and maybe half explain a new tool to prove one final interesting result which brings together everything you’ve learned, not worrying too much if you don’t really get all of the tools, because it’s a satisfying place to end (generally)
Holonomic modules, we did a bunch of stuff on Bernsteins inequality just before it
Lol
Thanks. I've looked something up and it still looks too advanced for now.
The final peice of content lol
Very analysisy for a ring theory class
Yeah thats often the case, I remember my intro to diff geo course doing something similar. That could be a good direction to aim your studying now though!
Yeah im not really sure why, that prof constantly joked about hating analysis but thats kinda where we ended. I think the main motivations were just that we studied the Weyl algebra quite a lot in the course, because its a "nice" noncom ring, and it lends its self naturally to talking about dimension, even if that means dipping your toes nto D-modules
The proof of Bernstein's even made us do like a week of comalg, the last 2 chapters of the course were just a bit odd, because this came after the noncom localisation week 
It's amazing all the math out there people be doing
real
That lecturer does NCAG and enveloping algebra stuff, so I guess it does make an amount of sense, I think these things vaugley show up in all of that
But despite all the things I proved about universal enveloping algebras in that course, I still dont have the slightest clue what they actually are so I could be wrong, but I think its got something to do with differential algebra
Universal enveloping algebra is usually an algebra with the same representation theory as something (often a lie algebra).
Not sure if that was what it meant to you
It is, we proved some random results about universal enveloping algebras of Lie algebras but were never given more information than that these things were called that
Makes sense, I think they usually have some interesting ring theoretic properties
I still really want to learn representation theory of some kind, I did the tiniest amount in my analytic number theory class and that was it. I breifly looked at path algebras as part of that class and all that stuff seems fun, but I honestly have no understanding of what any of the very disperate fields of representation theory look like, or how it works
One of us, one of us, one of us!
Isnt that what you study? I just looked at them a little because one of the proposed topics for the final project in that class was "When are path algebras Noetherian" (iirc), which seemed like an interesting, but given the time contraints, too hard problem
I study Artin algebras / finite dimensional algebras, and path algebras are a big part of that yeah.
Haven't really thought about when they're Noetherian, but I would guess when they have 1 or 0 oriented cycles.
Hmmm, no you can make it non-Noetherian with just one cycle can't you
Ill hopefully have a bit more scope to look at these things in my masters but I think theyre much more commutative pilled unfortunatly, there is a class on Lie algebras though so ill hopefully have some fun with that and learn a little rep theory.
Yeah it seems like an interesting question, but i was so busy at the time that it just seemed like too much background theory to learn before even starting the problem
Hmmm, so no cycles -> finite dimensional, done.
One cycle x and an arrow y not in the cycle then
(y, yx, yx^2, yx^3 ...)
should be an infinitely generated left ideal.
A single cycle no other arrows, probably Noetherian. True for k[x] at least.
I trust your wisdom, that sounds reasonable lol
Guys, you all know that isomorphisms, equivalences, etc of categories are defined via the identity right?
Well the problem is that for C* algebras, approximate identity are useful rather than identity
So do we have like an alternative definition of them using approximate identity?
This seems really useful in study fields like functorial algebraic quantum field theory where there are a lot of categorical stuffs and C* algebras
If f:A->B is "nice enough" and i is an approximate identity on A, will there always exist an approximate identity j on B such that fi=jf? (Or vice versa?) If so, you can define a category of nice maps modulo approximate identities and work with that.
Wdym by A,B
They're objects in your category. I guess probably C*-algebras.
I don't know?
I'm just curious about what I asked
We define categorical properties using identity but why not have them using approximate identity which comes even more handy
That was what you already asked, wasn't it?
I was trying to suggest an answer, but since I don't know what you mean by "approximate identity", the suggestion had be a bit conditional on the properties of your "approximate identity" concept.
Approximate identity are a well known concept in the study of C* algebras
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Bruh
I don't know very much about this, but it is my understanding that the types of things of interest in QFT and such are categories of C*-algebras, not categorifications of C*-algebras, so then approximate identities wouldn't really be relevant to categorify.
But I guess the definition lends itself somewhat naturally to approximate inverses, so you could use that to define approximate isomorphisms I guess...
I am looking into commutative FA and the author uses the terms anihilator algebra which is not standadrd so is an indecomposable algebra which has non zero radical (which is his def) same as a local algebra with a non zero radical?
so my question is local the same as indecomposable
So I'm assuming FA means finite dimensional algebras?
Anyway, indecomposable means not the product of two nontrivial things.
A commutative unital finite dimensional (or just artinian) algebra is indeed local, and any commutative unital artinian ring is a fintie product of local rings
So here anihhilator algebras would be local finite dimensional algebras that are not fields
Good books for Lie groups/algebras? even better if it has a bias towards AG
Let G be a finite group. Is there a condition on G that guarantees the 0th group homology and cohomology of G are isomorphic?
what is the homology and cohomology of G?
Sorry, I mean group cohomology here
don't you need a G-module?
Or was that a rhetorical question?
or do you mean for all G-modules?
Yes, I have a G module in my situation
Yes, I believe so
I've seen a claim that this is true for a finite group of odd order
aren't they always isomorphic?
Actually never mind, I need to think about my question some more. It doesn't make sense as stated
Isn't this this just asking when M^G and M/G are isomorphic, which should be two quite different things
Yes, I was wondering about when the invariants and coinvariants are the same, but my situation is specific. Let me see if I can make my original question clearer now
Let V and W be vector spaces over field F. Let F[G] be a group algebra of a finite group G.
I think in my situation, I'm comparing the following situations
-
Suppose I also endow V and W with right (left) F[G] module structures. I then consider V (x)_F[G] W
-
I consider V (x)_F W and then endow this with a left F[G]-module structure by defining g*(v (x) w) = vg (x) (g^-1)w
I've seen a claim that if G is finite and of odd order, the invariants of M = V (x) W as a G-module (so H^0(G, M)) is isomorphic to V (x)_F[G] W under an averaging map where you take an element v (x)_F[G] w and send it to \sum_(g in G) vg (x) g^-1 w
Chat gpt gives this example
in (2), is this action well defined? I mean, is it associative?
shouldn't the actions be in the opposite direction?
Ah, I don't think it's associative
h(g v (x) w) =/= hg(v (x) w)
you should define g*(v otimes w)=(gv) otimes (wg^(-1)), or act on the right
But I think what you are asking for is true. Essentially, let G be a finite group and A a G-module. Then you have a norm map A_G-->A^G and a conorm map A^G-->A_G. Their composition is the order of the group G, so if |G| is invertible in A you are good
edit: maybe you have to check the characteristic of F
Ah my bad, my vector spaces already have a F[G] module structure on them in both situations
In one situation, I'm taking the tensor product as F[G] modules and in the other situation, I'm taking the tensor product over F and then taking invariants
Fixed it, sorry
Ahh ok, my field is actually of characteristic 2 here so this makes sense
lol I kinda forgot R and F were next to each other on the keyboard, otherwise I wouldn't have asked 😆
You're good, I mean to be working over a field F and not a ring R anyway 😁
But this doesn't coincide with the module structure I've defined on V and W right?
this would make sense if W had a right action
and V a left action
This wouldn't make (V (x)_F W)^G isomorphic to (V (x)_F[G] W) right?
I guess one of these is invariants and the other coinvariants
so is M= V otimes_F W? If the characteristic of F is coprime with |G| then H^0(G, M)=H_0(G, M). But where does V otimes_F[G] W come from?
F[G] is non-commutative, tensor products of modules over a non-commutative ring kill a lot of stuff, no?
Isn't V (x)_F[G] W = V (x) W/(vg (x) w - v (x) gw), the space of coinvariants?
coinvariants meaning H_0?
Yes.
And yeah, so I suppose M = V (x) W here
Ok perfect, thanks!
And yes, I see that the composition of your co-norm and norm maps are basically |G| times the identity
So. V has right action. W has left action. You want to give a left action on V (x) W=V (x)_F W, right? You have to set g(v x w)=(vg^{-1}) x (gw). Then the question is whether we have an equality of submodules (vg x w-v x gw)=(vg^{-1} x gw - v x w). This can be seen by a change of variables
right?
Oh that wasn't my question. My question essentially boiled down to "under what conditions on G do we have H^0(G, V (x) W) = H_0(G, V (x) W))" (where V and W have compatible F[G] module structures here)
And you said when |G| is coprime with char F, which I see
Unless you're making a separate point
But yes, I do see I have to be careful about what F[G] module structure I'm giving V (x)_F W
right, I was commenting on this part. Yeah I think you are right, because there's no reason why (gv x gw-v x w)=(gv x w-v x gw)
(this is if V, W are left G-modules and define g (v x w)- (v x w), but your original set up is fine)
Ok cool!
It's strange, because the paper I'm reading defines g(v (x) w) = vg (x) g^-1 w, which doesn't seem associative
maybe they mean to give V x W a right action?
So let (v (x) w) g := vg (x) g^-1 w
-
(v (x) w) (gh) = vgh (x) h^-1 g^-1 w
-
((v (x) w) g)h = (v g (x) g^-1 w) h = vgh (x) h^-1 g^-1 w
Yeah, I think it's a typo in their paper
whats this functor?
A and S are just two arbitrary C-algebras
where C is the complex numbers
i think its a functor form k algebras to groups?
maybe its S maps to S tensor A
because gamma has an action on S, so the function underneath makes some sense
Since they first remark that A(x)S is an S-algebra, it would make sense if it was S-algebra automorphisms of A(x)S, but idk
Sorry I should have specified i meant frobenius algebras
ah i guess
I see, well they are in particular finite dimensional algebras
that would make more sense considering im trying to get that L is descended from this cocycle lol
thanks!
in the last sentence you mean a commutative finite dimensional indecomposable algebra is local right?
Yes
and a commutative finite dimensional local algebra is indecomposable algebra
Yes, though not necessarily Frobenius
Initially, I was interpreting the last theorem incorrectly. It's only stating that a Frobenius algebra decomposes into local algebras which are either fields or they are not
But the converse is not true?
Converse of what?
but do we have a characterization of when local algebras that are not fields are frobenius algebras?
like of this decomposition
I mean, it should be when they have simple socle for example
(having a unique simple ideal)
simple ideal?
One without any subideals
So a unique, simple submodule
How do we prove that a finite-dimensional algebra can be written as a product of local algebras, though?
I haven't taken any advanced algebra so if you can give me some reference that would be great too
The easiest way would be to mod out the radical, use Artin-Wedderburn, then lift idempotents
You might be able to do it more directly as well...
So I can say any finite dimensional algebra is a product of indecomposables , modding out the indecomposable by the radical gives me a semisimple commutative algebra and i know these are direct product of fields by artin wedderburn but what next?
Like an indecomposable algebra has only idempotents 0 and 1.
Consider any ideal J, then J^n get must eventually stabilize hence become idempotent. So unless J=A we must have J^n = 0.
So every nontrivial ideal is in the nilradical -> the nilradical is maximal -> you're local
So A/J = k^n, since J is nil you can lift idempotents, i.e. find n idempotents in A that map to the ones in k^n.
So then A is a product of n algebras.
For the case A/J = k the algebra is local, because the radical is maximal
So this directly proves that the indecomposable algebras in the decomposition of our fin dim algebra are local right?
But why is a local algebra with zero nilradical a field? i would have to prove that the nilradical consists of all the non units somehow?
Same argument as above.
For any element consider (x^n)
This is prop 8 in your picture as well
So I consider the ideal generated by x say J and it's a proper ideal unless x = 1, and thus J^n = 0. Hence, any non-unit is nilpotent?
Yeah either (x) = (1) or x^n = 0
yeah but i couldn't find the reference
So, this statement that every finite-dimensional commutative algebra decomposes into local algebras, which is either a field or not, is not very deep?
like from the direct proof you have shown me it doesn't seem like a non trivial thing to say
here you mean product of n local algebras?
Yes, well that remains to be shown I guess.
But product of n algebras with A/J = k
It's easy to prove. But I'd say it's still important. And the methods can be used to make similar (though weaker) statements in the noncommutative case.
Maybe idk what you mean by deep
Like, what can we say about the indecomposable factors of a noncommutative Frobenius algebra?
do they still have to be local?
No they don't need to be
I understand the direct proof you have shown me but i don't understand the other one in which we lift idempotents somehow
So it's a general fact that if I is a nil-ideal, and
e in A/I is an idempotent, then there is an idempotent in A that maps onto e.
This is called lifting idempotents
i guess the deep part that the author wanted to mention is the part about how the frobenius form on each factor determines the frobenius form on the whole
So in general you might still get something like A/J = k^n, and you can still lift idempotents.
But in the noncommutative case those idempotents might not be central, so don't correspond to factors of the algebra. Instead they give the data of the vertecies of the Gabriel quiver, which you can use to understand the algebra
and there is a one to one correspondence?
Can I find this in Dummit and Foote?
Not quite, there is in the commutative case, but you could set up some equivalence of idempotents to make it work.
I haven't read D&F, but it seems plausible
some other book then?
It's definitely on stacks
https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/00J9
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
The second proof is the same in the noncommutative case (though the uniqueness step doesn't work)
stacks project for non-commutative rings pls
So essentially two proofs
either fin dim comm algebra >> indecomposable factors are local >> local with no units is field >> fin dim comm algebra is sum of field and local non fields
or take fin comm algebra >> A/J semisimple=k^n >> lift idempotents which are in one to one correspondence >> decomposition into local algebras
What’s a proof of this that doesn’t use CFSG?
The proof the book gives uses CFSG to ensure that C has a group generated by 2 elements
C is an isomorphism-closed class of finite groups closed under quotients and subdirect products
Or is the use of a defn of “free pro-C group” where we have the universal property defined for groups G such that the image of X in it is topologically generating non-standard?
What if you take |X|=2 and C be the smallest group formation containing a finite non-abelian simple group S? Every group G in C has S as a quotient (except the trivial group, of course), if I'm not mistaken. If iota is injective then this means that F is non-trivial, and therefore has a quotient in C, i.e., has S as a quotient. But F is generated by two elements, hence S is
@last talon
Ok yeah if you do it the way they do it you basically need the classification then
This seems nicer to me
For the reason of “you don’t need to invoke CFSG for such a simple lemma as this”
What seem's nicer?
I tried to show that Lemma 3.3.1 (together with existence, which is the next result and elementary) implies that every finite simple group is generated by 2 elements
Defining the universal property as you would normally (ie for all groups, not just those t.g by X)
I mean the normal definition has an X which is discrete
For all profinite groups I meant
Their definition is standard tho. There are certain situations where you would like to consider procyclic, proabelian, prosolvable, pro-p, etc.
In the discrete case, free abelian groups are also considered
But you are right that in this cases you dont need CFSG. The point is simply that Lemma 3.3.1 is equivalent to the question of whether the class C contains a group generated by exactly 2 elements
Yeah
And shouldn’t that imply every finite simple group is 2-generated (by taking a simple quotient of such a group, for C being those groups whose composition series is just copies of S)?
yeah, that's where I was going
And then by the link you sent, there doesn’t seem to be a known proof of that without CFSG
So it’s not equivalent, but there’s no known proof without it
yeah, this is rather interesting imo
Which seems like
3.3.1 seems like it shouldn’t need CFSG
Mostly the idea of “it feels simple enough to have been proven before CFSG”
i reread all the notes up to here turns out its R algebras i think
since what i need is a map from Gamma to Aut_R((A x R) x S)
does anyone know a reference for this?
can you tell me how to prove it?
So say A is your local algebra and S is the simple socle. Pick v non-zero in S and extend to a basis for A.
Then the projection to kv defines a non-degenerate bilinear form.
It's non-degenerate because there's always a smallest n with J^n x in the socle, hence equal to S. So you can always find y with xy = v
Conversely, if A is Frobenius then A is isomorphic to DA, but if A is local it has simple top. And the top of DA is the dual of the socle, so A has simple socle
top?
The top of a module is what you get by modding out the radical
projection to kv means exactly?
Like say the basis was {v, w}, then you take
av + bw to a
ah ok
what is J here ?
"It's non-degenerate because there's always a smallest n with J^n x in the socle, hence equal to S. So you can always find y with xy = v"
The radical, sorry
why is that? "because there's always a smallest n with J^n x in the socle"
Why must it eventually go to zero?
i know nilradical consists of nilpotents
but it is itself nilpotent for fin dim?
how
Several ways to see it, but easiest is maybe just to think about
J > J^2 > J^3 > ...
since everything is finite dimensional this can't decreases forever
Alternativenely pick a basis for J. Then a basis for J^n consists of all possible products of n of these vectors.
If there are d of them, then one must appear at least n/d times.
So just pick n big enough so that x^(n/d) = 0 for all of them
"
It's non-degenerate because there's always a smallest n with J^n x in the socle, hence equal to S. So you can always find y with xy = v"
what definition are using in proving non degeneracy?
we should prove that xy=0 for all y in A implies x=0 right?
For every nonzero x, there exists a y such that f(yx) = 1
so surjectivity of A to DA then
It would correspond to injectivity actually, but for finite dimensional injective, surjective and bijective are all equivalent
no yeah you are right sorry
"there's always a smallest n with J^n x in the socle, hence equal to S." being in socle means equal to socle??
why can't it be less
The socle was simple by assumption
So nothing smaller
right nvm
This is the proof i was looking at and I couldn't understand it
how does nakayama lemma help here?
this is the form of nakyama lemma i am familiar with
your proof doesn't seem to need it right?
Well, you would need it to show that m is nilpotent
Nakyamas lemma is used where they reference it to establish that m(x) is a proper submodule of (x)
i can prove it directly without nakayama i think
if (xy)=(x) implies xry=rx implies x(1-yr)=0 but yr in m and A local implies 1-yr is a unit and thus x=0 right?
I mean 1-yr being a unit is basically the proof of Nakayamas lemma
But yeah you can just inline it like that
but they are writing xy not mx
y is in m
But this could be smaller no?
(xy)=x is same as xm=x?
Well (xy) <= m(x)
so i can't directly use nakayamma?
i am sure it must be trivial i am just bad at this
(xy) < m(x) < (x)
and we use that artinian implies noetherian to use nakyama here right?
like (x) is finitely generated so it applies
oh right by artinian mm^n=m^n and thus m^n=0
Is it obvious that the following examples are local algebras?
how does one quickly check that?
(x, y, z) is a maximal ideal, and it's nilpotent, so must be the unique one
if a maximal ideal is nilpotent it's unique?
so becasue (x,y) (x) (x,y) (x,y,z)are nilpotent these are unique maximal?
nvm this is easy
and how do quickly find the socle?
I mean, it's just the stuff that is annihilated by both x, y and z
like perhaps i could have thought that xz is the anihilator
how do i know when i am done
Like just look at what x annihilates, what y does and what z does, then take the intersection
x annihilates (x, y), y annihilates (x, y) and z annihilates (z)
Intersection is (xz, yz)
I get that the top of A is iso to the dual of the socle of A
how do we get that socle is simple?
Because the top is simple
Well say the socle had a submodule, then the dual would aswell, so not simple
If N < M is a submodule then the functions that vanish on N is a submodule of DM (equal to D(M/N))
now the only part i am unclear on is why the top of DA is dual of the socle
The basic idea is that quotient modules of A give submodules of DA and vica versa.
So a maximal submodule of DA will look like D(A/S) for a minimal submodule S.
Then the intersection of maximal submodules will correspond to the sum of minimal submodules i.e. the socle
so Top of DA=DA/ intersection of maximal submodules of DA= D(sum of minimals of A)?
and is the residue field of a k algebra always k?
Then, checking the socle is simple is same as being one dimensional but only when we are looking at it over the residue field right?
Yeah that's true
In general you can just check if it has the same dimension as the residue field I guess
this condition seems odd tho like when does an algebra not contain its residue field
also this means classifying commutative frobenius algebras is same as classifying local fin dim gorenstein algebras right?
do we have anything like that?
Z/4 is a local ring with residue field Z/2 for example
are fin dim local Gorenstein algebras frobenius as well? i think all our arguments generalize
The commutative ones are at least
yeah but the non commutative ones have anything to do with Gorenstein?
Well a finite dimensional algebra is Frobenius if
inj-dim A = 0
and Gorenstein if
(left)-inj-dim A = (right)-inj-dim A < infinity
So the notions are related
(if the left injective dimension is 0 then the right one is also 0, but it's an open problem if the left and right injective dimension are always equal)
Called the Gorenstein symmetry conjecture.
If they're both finite they're equal, and your algebra is Gorenstein. But somewhere out there, maybe there's an algebra with the left one finite and the right one infinite
Let me know if you find one
Checking Gorenstein seemed to be the only way to disprove that an algebra is not Frobenius-like in these examples
in general i only know of using the structure constants of the algebra
(to make the matrix of A iso to A star and then show no such matrix is possible)
but is there some other way to do that's not so computational? like i want to prove that upper triangular 2 by 2 don't have a frobenius structure
how do i do that
Guess it depends what tools you have in your belt.
Showing that A isn't injective by making a non-split injective map between the projectives is not too bad
any other way?
I'm sure there are loads of ways
Could also just try to think about what this bilinear form could be.
Like you have the matrices
E11, E12, E22
as a basis for A.
AE12 is just the span of E12 so f(E12) would need to be non-zero (might as well assume it's 1).
Similarly AE11 is also just the span of E11, so say f(E11) = x =/= 0.
Then f(E11 - xE12) = 0, and multiplying by anything in A just scales this, so the form can't be non-degenerate.
is this appraoch fast too? i have no idea what these terms are but i can look up the definitions
this makes me want to learn homological algebra
Pretty fast yeah.
You have two projectives, corresponding to the two columns. And you have an inclusion map from one to the other.
It is indeed some basic homological algebra
It is in some sense very analogous to what's written above, since the projectives are
AE11 and AE22 and the embedding takes E11 to E12
So you can sort of see a shadow of what happens in the other version
what's the inclusion map
The one taking E11 to E12
you are talking about E11 and E22 as the projectives
AE11 and AE22 are the indecomposable projective A-modules yeah.
And you have an embedding of AE11 into AE22
the embedding just takes the AE11 span E11 to AE22=span of E22
simply by mapping e11 to e22 you mean right
No that's not a homomorphism
e11 * e11 = e11, but e11 * e22 = 0
However e11 * e12 = e12
AE22 is the span of E12 and E22
Since E12 * E22 = E12
Thanks got it! This is slick!
Hello so this is probably going to be an uncommon question but let me explain the context. So I recently did a research internship in theorical computer science about the complexity of a particular case of the vertex enumeration problem (it doesn’t really matter for the question but it’s for context purpose, but it’s the computational problem of given the face representation of a polyhedra, outputing its extreme vectors). Now that it’s finished I still thought about it and had an idea of a generalization of it (I would like to talk about it with my supervisor but he is in holidays and I keep thinking about it so I must share it somewhere), so here it is. Let [ n \in \mathbb{N}, E_1,…,E_n] be any sets. Let F be a set of functions of the form [ f : E_1 x … x E_n \longrightarrow E_1 x … x E_n ], and [(x_1,…,x_n) \in E_1 x … x E_n ] the problem is finding the set S of every tuple of the form [ (f_1,…,f_k), k \in \mathbb{N} ] such that [ (f_1 \circ … \circ f_n)((x_1,…,x_n)) = (x_1,…,x_n) ]. So I know said like this it is too general to say anything about S, but the idea would be to find some properties on S with restrictions on F or the E_i’s. The only result that I could think of at the moment (which is not really impressive) is that if F is finite and its functions comute then there is a finite set of "generators" of S (i.e elements of S which are not concatenations/compositions of 2 or more elements of S). So I have several questions about this problem. First, do you know if anything like this already exists and has already been studied ? Secondly, do you have any idea of things that could be interesting to search for (like do you have any intuition of a result or which restrictions could be interesting or maybe what other problems are particular cases of this one) ? And finally, do you think this problem is actually interesting to study or is it too vague or just not useful or idk ?
Please tell me if you think this message is in the wrong channel so I can delete and repost in the right one, thanks for reading and don’t hesitate if you need more explanation on something !
I don't think splitting the (co)domain of the functions into a product like that actually does anything, the way you've stated the problem?
if we call the product X, then (the composition closure of) F is a subset of the transformation monoid T_X, so we're looking for words in this monoid semigroup equivalent to 1;
if X is finite, then all of the viable f_i must be permutations and this reduces to an easier combinatorics problem
for infinite X and F, it feels like this is an instance of the word problem, so some theory there might be helpful
Oh yes you are right about the splitting the domain thanks
And thank you for the two directions !!! I look them up
I don’t think the "we’re looking for words equivalent to 1" is true as I stated the problem, because we search to let one element invariant only not to get identity (but it’s still an interesting thing it’s just to clarify the problem)
oh, is the point fixed?
this might be relevant then? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_action#Fixed_points_and_stabilizer_subgroups
you're looking for the stabilizer subgroup of your given point under the action of the transformation semigroup/monoid generated by F
Yes but both problems are important/interesting I just tried to generalize as much as I could
Ok thanks
I think whether such a tuple exists is undecidable in general; I'll do a reduction from PCP (post correspondence):
Let $\Sigma$ be some finite alphabet with at least $2$ symbols, and let $\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_N$ and $\beta_1,\ldots,\beta_N$ be two given lists of words over $\Sigma$. Let $X=\Sigma^\ast\times\Sigma^\ast/\sim$, where $(a,a)\sim(b,b)$ for all words $a,b\in\Sigma^\ast$. Now, define $F$ to be the set of functions $f_i:X\rightarrow X$ defined by $f_i(x,y)=(x\alpha_i,y\beta_i)$. Finally, pick $x=(\varepsilon,\varepsilon)$.
So, applying a chain of $f_i$s to $(\varepsilon,\varepsilon)$ yields something like:
\begin{equation*}
f_{i_1}\circ\cdots\circ f_{i_K}(\varepsilon,\varepsilon)=(\alpha_{i_1}\cdots\alpha_{i_K},\beta_{i_1}\cdots\beta_{i_K})
\end{equation*}
Thus, there exists a sequence of functions $f_{i_1}\circ\cdots\circ f_{i_K}$ fixing $(\varepsilon,\varepsilon)$ if and only if this instance of PCP has a solution.
Desync
I haven't done reductions in a while, so do check this over, but it definitely feels like the general case is not going to be tractable at all
edit: I have also just spotted a problem with the above reduction in that we don't disallow empty compositions; easy fix though, replace $\Sigma$ by $\hat\Sigma:=\Sigma\cup{\bullet}$, where $\bullet\notin\Sigma$. Now, add an extra map $g:X\rightarrow X$ defined by
g(a,b)=\begin{cases}
(\varepsilon,\varepsilon) & a = b \text{ and }(a,b)\neq(\varepsilon,\varepsilon)\
(\bullet,\bullet) & a=b=\varepsilon\
(a,b) & \text{else}
\end{cases}
so $g$ moves every non-empty equal pair to $x$ (and moving $x$ itself to a dead state instead), forcing the composition to be non-empty. i.e., we move the earlier quotient into the map $g$ and force it to be used.
Wow thank you so much yes I imagine that we can’t say much about the general case but maybe about particular cases. The problem I am working on is "can we enumerate all the "generators" of S in polynomial total time (i.e polynomial time in the size of input + output) in the particular case where there are a finite number of f_i all of the form f_i : x —> x + k_i where k_i is in Z x Z x … x Z (or Q x … x Q) and (x_1,…,x_n) = (0,…,0) (so it is the same as searching to obtain 1 or identity)" just to give context and to help with the results it would be ideal to have but any idea is cool like your reduction thanks a lot it’s very late in the night where i live so I will look at it more closely tomorrow but thanks again
What does this symbol mean
coproduct
does anyone have any ideas on how to do the reverse direction "generally"? this is all fine when K is "nice" i.e. alg closed and char 0 because this collapses to understanding the central character/turns into character theory. but otherwise i have no idea how to proceed. to make things worse im reverse engineering the qual syllabus from the problem list so i dont even know what i'm supposed to know
product with arrows reversed
btw do you know how to prove that the generator of socle of a semisimple frobenius algebra must be a unit?
If it's semisimple then the socle is everything
Oh right sorry, what I meant was how to prove that the Socle is always a principal ideal
I mean if it's equal to (1) it's a principal ideal
but that's just one side though
I'm not sure I understand what you're asking
For commutative Frobenius algebras there's this result but i don't understand the proof
The distinguished element in this means the number specifying comultiplication, followed by multiplication
I said socle here because he also proves that this element generates the socle.
So you're asking why the socle of an annihilator algebra is principal?
This is because it is simple
That's what we talked about yesterday
but the author claims that this is true for any Frobenius algebra not just a local one
Where do they claim that?
Commutative*
The assumption here seems to be that A is an annihilator algebra, since they're talking about N and U
Or indecomposable at least
What is the preceding text where they presumably define S and A?
how do you deduce that?
They're using the fact that N consists of all non-units for example
i think i get it it's because when it's indecomposable then we it splits into units and non units
what does this mean
Woul dit just end up being like the morphism that completes the diagram
should just be the map
[ N \otimes R' \xrightarrow{\varphi'} N \otimes R' \xrightarrow{\varphi' \otimes \text{id}_{R''}} N \otimes R' \otimes R'' \cong N \otimes R'' ]
anamono
the isomorphism on the right comes from your homomorphism alpha
oh wait there's a typo in my tex lol just realized
lemme fix it
hmm yeah im not sure actually ignore what i said above lol
sorry
Regarding (iii) in 1.3.3, what does "isotropic" mean in this context?
Is it maybe like
NotABot
to match (16) in the proof of 1.3.4?
i think its in this sense https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/isotropic+subspace
specifically that ( , ) vanishes on frak p_+ timex frak p_+ and on p_- too
$W\subseteq W^\perp$
NotABot
Yeah that looks like what I was thinking, thanks!
Can anyone recommend a book that roughly(at least) covers the first half of Atiyah - Intro to commutative algebra. We are going to cover the first 5 chapters of this book "religiously" - Rings and Ideals, Modules, Localization, Primary decomposition, Integral extensions.
I am mostly self studying.
So far, I have covered all the relevant topics from Aluffi - Notes from the underground like Rings and Ideals, Modules. I really really liked his style of being more hand wavy , approachable and far from being terse.
So, I am looking for a book of similar style that covers rest of the topics in a gentle manner.
Is there a reason you can’t just use Atiyah MacDonald?
Tersity if i'm reading correctly
I don't find it very illuminating so I need to supplement it with a more elaborate text
Very helpful. Thanks.
Reid’s undergraduate commutative algebra may be of interest then
Looking at it, I think it is best suited for my requirements since it covers the exact same topics and seems more elaborate.
Thanks
Is 10 exercises per chapter of Atiyah Macdonald enough
Lowkey I'd like to do more but I've been on this chapter for like 1.5 months now
I would say move on
You can always come back and do more if you need to, but 1.5 months per chapter is likely more than enough time
I also think excercise choice and what you take away from them is more important than the raw number of them, I think as soon as you feel you have a pretty reasonable grasp on the content its more than fair to move on
Yeah basically half of chapter 2's questions are on direct limits, and I'm skipping those
And youre not banned from coming back to it, its a good thing to do in fact
Make some progress, check back in and do some more in a few months is my advice
Okay thanks
$a$ is a $\mathfrak{g}$-invariant element of $\mathfrak{g}\otimes\mathfrak{g}$
NotABot
This means that all elements of g act on a by scalar multiplication yeah?
for b and c
intuitively i feel its some sort of conjugacy class/orbit type argument but im stuck
"k-modules"
lol
The second isomorphism should only be true with some finiteness assumption though.
Maybe that's part of your definition of simplicial complex...
Just writing out the definition of cohomology goes a long way
Saying k-modules is based
First find like a natural map between the two
I mean maybe that is a dumb hint sorry lol
btw speaking of Cohomology are there any tips for how to study the basics of it?
But tbh i do not think this is 100% obvious without like other facts
I mean like with anything I guess pick up a book or take a class on it.
Rotmann has an intro to homalg book for example
Might be beneficial to know some algebraic topology or representation theory first though, to have something to apply it to
Is Class Field Theory good for applying it to?
