#help-49
1 messages · Page 283 of 1
what ?
robins
the derivative at point x is just the limit as $y$ tends to $x$
robins
yes that's the result of the slope
so that is the relation between limits and derivatives
\begin{document}
Let $a \in \mathbb{R}$, $f , g$ continuous on $\left[0 , a\right]$ and differentiable on $\left(0 , a\right]$ such that $f\left( 0\right) = g\left( 0\right) = 0$, with $g\left( x\right)$ and $g\left( x\right) \neq 0 , \forall x \in \left(0 , a\right)$.
Let $x \in \left(0 , a\right]$ and $h\left( t\right) = f\left( x\right) g\left( t\right) - f\left( t\right) g\left( x\right)$
First, lets compute $h'\left( t\right)$ :
[
h'\left( t\right) = f\left( x\right) g'\left( t\right) - f'\left( t\right) g\left( x\right)
]
Lets assume that : [
\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{(f'\left( x\right))}{(g'\left( x\right))} = l
]
According to Rolles theorem :
Since $h\left( x\right) = 0$ and $h\left( 0\right) = 0$, there exists $c_x \in \left(0 , x\right)$ s.t. $h'\left( c_x\right) = 0$
So $h'\left( c_x\right) = f\left( x\right) g'\left( c_x\right) - f'\left( c_x\right) g\left( x\right) = 0 \Longleftrightarrow f\left( x\right) g'\left( c_x\right) = f'\left( c_x\right)g\left( x\right)$.
Since $g$ doesnt cancel on $\left(0 , a\right]$, we can divide by $g\left( x\right)$. Now we have that :
[
\frac{f\left( x\right)}{g\left( x\right)} g'\left( c_x\right) = f'\left( c_x\right)
]
Similarely, lets divide by $g'\left( c_x\right)$ :
[
\frac{f\left( x\right)}{g\left( x\right)} = \frac{(f'\left( c_x\right))}{(g'\left( c_x\right))}
]
as $x$ tends to $0$, we have that $c_x$ also tends to $0$, so: [
\lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \frac{f\left( x\right)}{g\left( x\right)} = \lim_{c_x\rightarrow 0} \frac{(f'\left( c_x\right))}{(g'\left( c_x\right))} = \lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \frac{(f'\left( x\right))}{(g'\left( x\right))}
]
\end{document}
uhhh my translator made some mistakes.. wait a minute
robins
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thank you very much!
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i dont know how to start
- try solving for lambda first. how much of the given info do you need to do that?
- think about the properties of the adjoint (the adjoint is used in what formula?)
ye |A|=-1
i got lambda = 3
forgot to tell sorry
and could u say adjoint instead of adjugate would make it easier for me
sure :D
now mess around with this formula a bit, see if you can find something that is contained in adj(A adj(A^2))
-# thanks mods i love you mods
uhh we need A^2 inside adjoint
so ig A-->A^2
that would help, yes
you are nearly there, but remember we are multiplying matrices
you have to multiply on the left for both sides, or on the right for both sides
we can take |A^2| to other side
and take adj again?
so we get adj(|A|^2 A (A^2)^-1)
hmm, i don't see how taking adj would help in simplifying
we would hopefully like to get a simpler expression for B, so we can calculate it easily
then how to simplify 😔
like you wrote, |A^2| = |A|^2, and you know what |A| is, so we can ignore that
we are left with A, which we cannot do much about, and (A^2)^(-1). any properties spring to mind for this one?
(A^-1)^2?
yes :)
to convince yourself this is true, the inverse of A is adj(A)/|A|, and we can "pull powers" out of both of these things
mainly because adj(AB)=adj(A) adj(B), and |AB|= |A| |B|
so where can we go from there?
A A^-1 A^-1 = A^-1
so we have just B^-1 = adj(A^-1)
so B=adj(A)
now i have to calculate adj(A)?
yes, so you have two options
- use the formula and hope to god you remember it on the exam
- use the fact that A^(-1) = adj(A)/|A|, solve for adj(A) here. then use whatever technique to find A^(-1)
but i mean if you remember the formula easily then you can use that, no problem
which formula
wait why i have to calculate A^-1
$A_{ij} = (-1)^{j+i}M_{ji}$ where $M_{ji}$ is the $(j,i)$-th minor of $A$
ηασιβ ♥
but if you haven't seen this then there's no point using it
Wtf am I looking at
Holy
My brain is frying rn
ye i have..ive just never used it in a question
it is related to adj(A) via the formula above, so we can use it to solve for A^(-1)
Can u explain what the fuck u just out
Put
bruh but why do we need A^-1?
My friend
Stop ignoring me
it seemed easier to me, and i remember how to do it more often than i remember how to do adj(A)
but again, you can use the formula and get the same answer
bro open ur own help channel
Brother I don’t even understand ur question
then y r u even here
Idk I just look
this is math... in the math server
this is a help channel which is claimed by yoda, but feel free to discuss whatever in #discussion
if you are interested in what's going on, this is linear algebra, which you will likely come across in late secondary/early university
oh ok fine then
ty
im not in university :(
i have a very bad grasp on when people learn stuff, if im honest >.>
nah nwnw..ty again
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Could anyone point me to a good source of learning vectors from the ground up, video or book. Im not really great at math but i enjoy and need math. I really want to learn vectors especially since its really usefull and i dont want just to google for solutions or ask here i want to understand what im doing.
Not sure if thats a valid reason for help thread 😄
try 3 blue 1 brown videos
they are great videos
will i be able to learn from the growned up? does it give any definitions of things
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A = -8 j
I have positive, but the answer key says negative
Why did I get positive if it's supposed to be negative 
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Help me with understanding why you cant find the surface area of a sphere by integrating the circunferece of the disks
what did you integrate
i mean, like, why can't you find the surface area of a sphere as the inetgral of the circunference of the disks
you can 
u know, u devide the sphere in a bunch of disk. Why cant u find the surfacea rea if u integrate the circunference of each?
according to gpt u can not thought 😭
and according to some other forums
when you want to integrate the size of the boundary of a region (which is arc length surrounding a 2D region and surface area surrounding a 3D region), it's important that the approximations you use for that boundary are tangent to the true boundary. Otherwise there is not necessarily any relationship between the approximations and the true value. This restriction doesn't apply to the interior (area of a 2D region, volume of a 3D region)
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
example of what goes wrong when your approximations are not tangent:
loll i am aware, but i also found forums that stated the same
show it
i lowkey just don't undertsand what the responeses are talking about lol
yeah yeah ig, but i dnt undertsand why the aproximation would be wrong though
mmmmm but as it becomes smaller and smaller, wouldnt it aproximate lol?
to dx
"it becomes smaller and smaller" is too handwavy
you need to be more precise in calculus
calculus is hard lol
but yeah, its true, im going to have to change some stuff 😭
thanksss
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it's not sufficient for the approximating shapes to be getting smaller, you need the error to shrink as you do so.
huh, thats a nice way to put it lol
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blisapeared
beared
okay so i want to understand this proof
<@&286206848099549185>
three lines in mod
and last two lines in absolute
i don't get it
a series corresponds to a sequence because you can take u_1, u_1 + u_2, u_1 + u_2 + u_3 etc.
so the idea is to apply cauchy's principle for sequences to this sequence
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Can someone explain in detail how the first answer in the following mathoverflow link was derived: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/69700/are-there-any-solutions-to-frac3n-2n2k-3n-n?rq=1? The question is basically finding pairs (m,n) such that (3^n-2^n)/(2^m-3^n) is a natural number.
@nova pike Has your question been resolved?
write d := 2^k - 3^n, then d | 3^n - 2^n = (3^n - 2^k) + (2^k - 2^n) = -d + 2^n(2^{k-n} - 1).. so d | 2^n(2^{k-n} - 1). we know that d is odd (so gcd(d,2^n) = 1), so d | 2^{k-n} - 1. A useful consequence is the size bound d <= 2^{k-n}-1 < 2^{k-n}..
Because N in mathbb N, we have
d <= 3^n - 2^n < 3^n. So 2^k - 3^n < 3^n ==> 2^k < 2 • 3^n and so 2^k < 3^{n+1}. That gives k < [(n+1)log 3]/(log 2).
Therefore, d < 2^{k-n} and k - n < [(n+1)log 3]/(log 2) - n.. so
|2^k - 3^n| = d < 2^{k-n} < 2^{[(n+1)log 3]/(log 2) - n}
That's it for the upper bound.. Now for the lower bound from
linear forms in logarithms..
Write the difference in a way that exposes a linear form in logs:
2^k - 3^n = 3^n(exp(klog 2 - nlog 3)-1).
Let
Λ := klog 2 - nlog 3.
If 2^k ≠ 3^n, then Λ ≠ 0. Baker's theory (more precisely, explicit lower bounds for linear forms in two logarithms) gives an explicit inequality of the shape
|Lambda| >= exp(-Clog B) with B ≈ max{k,n}
for some effective constant C.. this implies that 2^k/3^n cannot be too close to 1, hence |2^k-3^n| cannot be too small relative to min{2^k,3^n}.. so Bennet summarises the end product as
|2^k - 3^n| >= min{2^k, 3^n}^{0.9}
except for finitely many explicitly known exceptional (k,n) pair..
(background on what lower bounds for linear forms in logarithms are and why they exist is standard Baker theory: you can see this for more info https://pub.math.leidenuniv.nl/~evertsejh/dio19-5.pdf)
combining these bounds kills all large solutions..
damn
missing a ` somewhere i guess
i'm on mobile
still a pain to do on phone 
@nova pike Has your question been resolved?
I understand the first half but don’t really understand the second half (finding the lower bound by using Baker’s theory)…
Thank you so much for the explanation though! I hope to learn more about Baker theory and what lower bounds for linear forms in logarithms are in the future
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wtf is this kind of rounding
i think they are not distinguishable
if so then this is kinda a bad way to plot statistics
122 would be 1 and 2
oops yeah
remember that each one of these comes with a key
can one leaf in a stem have multiple digits?
@rain wasp Has your question been resolved?
Not really, because the whole point is that each digit-leaf is... a leaf
And thus a single data point
mmm i see
That being said
Not that it's common to do so in data handling - and in fairness it's a really niche case to be using these in the first place, but still - you can on occasion use more than one digit per leaf, as long as each individual leaf is markedly clear
For a real-world example, here's a timetable of train departures in Japan:
Functionally, you still should provide a key in any case, and in a sense this is one
It's a very crude and fast way of showing the distribution of data
So for instance, with the above plot, I can tell that the trains are most frequent at around 17:00-19:00
alright thanks
so it's a quick way to intuitively the distribution of the dataset
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I'm trying to prove that n^7-n is divisible by 7 if n is an integer
Currently i have factorized to n(n-1)(n+1)(n^2-n+1)(n^2+n+1)
I don't really know what to do from here like what I know is that i probably have to show one of these factors can be divisible by 7 therefore the whole expression can, just dont know where to start
im not supposed to use that just like i want to know why
like i was told to use casework for this and dont know where to start from what
are you allowed to use modular arithmetic
idk i was just told i can put it into like different cases based on a remainder or something and i just dont understand that
you can trudge through working things out when n=7k, 7k+1, 7k+2, ..., 7k+6 if you want to / are forced to go through that route
rather unpleasant though
should i understand that modular arithmetic is also off the table?
why would n equal those like 7k, 7k+1, etc tho
oh wait are those like if you divide n by something that results in remainders
i havent learned modular arithmetic yet
those are the cases for the remainder of n when dividing by 7
Euclidian division says you must have n = 7k+r
a.k.a. modular arithmetic but shittier and uglier and 600 times more difficult
blehhh
Where r is the remainder, between 0 and 6
so like if i say n=7k+1 then n-1 is divisible by 7
and just have to rewrite the rest of the cases up to 7k+6
i dont even know what euclidian division is
😭
how would i prove it by induction
subtract the n+1 case from the n case, show it's divisible by 7
wouldnt that be annoying cuz i would have to expand something to the power of 7
man i got so much to learn this is my first week here 😭 i dont know anything
all these theorems and stuff
Do casework and consider each remainder from 0 to 6
its either that or learn some modular arithmetic
Most ooga way to do this
what does that mean 😭
Any integer divided by 7 will leave a remainder from 0 to 6
yea i was planning on doing that lol
You can prove it by induction
You need to show that for every possible remainder, at least one of your factors becomes a multiple of 7
base case n = 0
i was just gonna say if n=7k+1 then n-1=7k divisible by 7 and work the rest of the cases
up to 7k+6
Ok well 0, 1 and 6 are all trivial
The rest are the ones you need to do some work with
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Hello, could someone check if this proof looks good please?
\begin{Definition}[Subset of a set]
Suppose $A$ and $B$ are sets. If every element in $A$ is also an element $B$, then $A$ is a \emph{subset} of $B$, which is denoted $A \subseteq B$.
\end{Definition}
\begin{Definition}[Union of sets]
The \emph{union} of sets $A$ and $B$ is the set $A \cup B = { x : x \in A \text{or} x \in B}$.
\end{Definition}
\newcommand{\powerset}[1]{ \mathcal{P} (#1) }
\begin{Definition}[Power set]
The \emph{power set} of a set $A$ is $\powerset{A} = { X : X \subseteq A}$.
\end{Definition}
% --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\begin{Theorem}
It's the case that $\powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B} \subseteq \powerset{A \cup B}$.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
Let $X$ be a set, $x \in X$ an element of $X$, and $X \in \powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B}$.
By definition of union, $$X \in \powerset{A} \text{ or } X \in \powerset{B}.$$
Then, by definition of the power set, $$X \subseteq A \text{ or } X \subseteq B.$$
So, by definition of subset, $$x \in A \text{ or } x \in B.$$
This means that, by definition of union, $$x \in A \cup B.$$
Then, by definition of subset, $$X \subseteq A \cup B.$$
Hence, by definition of the powerset, we have that $$X \in \powerset{A \cup B}.$$
Since $X \in \powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B}$ implies that $X \in \powerset{A \cup B}$, it follows that $$\powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B} \subseteq \powerset{A \cup B}.$$
\end{proof}
Mor Bras
\newcommand{\powerset}[1]{ \mathcal{P} (#1) }
Let $X$ be a set, $x \in X$ an element of $X$, and $X \in \powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B}$.\\
erm what?
artemetra
this is a bit backwards
maybe better to write\
Let $A, B$ be sets, and let $X \in \mathcal{P}(A)\cup\mathcal{P}(B)$, and let $x \in X$ be an element of $X$
artemetra
here it would be great to clarify that "since x was chosen arbitrarily, this holds for any x. Thus, by definition of subset, ..."
other than that it's all good
well done
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,tex
Hi there. Is this proof of equal cardinality between Z×N and N×N correct? I have problems proving surjectivity sometimes and i wanna make sure
\vspace{1cm}
$\exists f: \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{N} $ , bijective. Then:
\vspace{1cm}
$\exists g: \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N} $ thats also bijective
\vspace{0.5cm}
Proof:
\vspace{0.4cm}
$g(x,y) = \left( f(x),y\right)
\
g(x_1,y_1) = g(x_2,y_2) \implies (f(x_1),y_1) = (f(x_2),y_2) \implies
\
(x_1 = x_2) \land (y_1 = y_2) \implies $ g is injective
\vspace{0.2cm}
Let $(f(a),b) \in\mathbb{N} \times\mathbb{N} $. We wanna show that: $$ \exists (a_0 ,b_0)\in\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{N} \ | (g(a_0,b_0) = (f(a),b)) $$
\vspace{0.2cm}
Indeed, for $a_0 = a\in\mathbb{Z} , \ b_0 = b\in\mathbb{N} : \ g(a,b) = (f(a),b) \square $
MEOW
fijokazż
not enough words
g(x,y) = (f(x), y) -- you meant this to be the definition of g, yes or no?
Apart from that it is correct though
ish?
where did i go wrong?
"let (f(a), b) in N × N" is sus
you are trying to invoke surjectivity without saying you invoke surjectivity
Yeah the surjection part could be better formulated
i mean if i just write "proving surjectivity" on top would it be fine?
That’s not the pb
we know f(a) and b are naturals. they are two random elements of the codomain of g
mrrgh
Yes, but if you want that to prove that g is surjective, you need to have every natural to be in the form f(a)
it is bad to introduce an arbitrary element of (in this case) N as f(a) directly
Which is true here but should be reminded
we know that f is bijective so we do have that
is bijectivity of f not enough then?
better is to say: let (a,b) in N × N. we wish to show there exists (a0, b0) in Z × N such that g(a0, b0) = (a,b).
since f is surjective there exists a0 in Z such that f(a0) = a...
Say (a,b) in n, then assert that a is f(a_0) for some a_0
im taking issue with how you phrased this more so than with your logic
i see, yeah that makes more sense
okeoke ill have that in mind
thank you both
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,tex
Hi there. This proof of convergence for $a_n $ makes sense right? We just solve for n and choose any natural greater than that for our "base"
\vspace{0.2cm}
$a_n = \frac{n}{2n-1} $. proof that $a_n \to \frac{1}{2} $:
\vspace{0.3cm}
Let $\epsilon >0 $ fixed. We want $ \lvert a_n -\frac{1}{2} \rvert <\epsilon \implies \lvert \frac{2n-2n+1}{2(2n-1)} \rvert <\epsilon \implies $
\vspace{0.2cm}
$ \lvert \frac{1}{2(2n-1)} \rvert < \epsilon \implies 2n-1>\frac{1}{2\epsilon} \implies n> \frac{\frac{1}{2\epsilon} +1}{2} $
\vspace{0.2cm}
So, if we choose $n_0 = \ceil{\frac{\frac{1}{2\epsilon} +1}{2}} $ : $$ \forall n\geq n_0 : \lvert a_n -0.5 \rvert <\epsilon $$
fijokazż
havent checked whether the steps are correct but the general structure is correct
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.reopen
Hello, I fixed the proof with the recommendations above.
\begin{Definition}[Subset of a set]
Suppose $A$ and $B$ are sets. If every element in $A$ is also an element $B$, then $A$ is a \emph{subset} of $B$, which is denoted $A \subseteq B$.
\end{Definition}
\begin{Definition}[Union of sets]
The \emph{union} of sets $A$ and $B$ is the set $A \cup B = { x : x \in A \text{ or } x \in B}$.
\end{Definition}
\newcommand{\powerset}[1]{ \mathcal{P} (#1) }
\begin{Definition}[Power set]
The \emph{power set} of a set $A$ is $\powerset{A} = { X : X \subseteq A}$.
\end{Definition}
% --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\begin{Theorem}
It's the case that $\powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B} \subseteq \powerset{A \cup B}$.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
Let $A$ and $B$ be sets, $X \in \powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B}$, and $x \in X$ an element of $X$.
By definition of union, $$X \in \powerset{A} \text{ or } X \in \powerset{B}.$$
Then, by definition of the power set, $$X \subseteq A \text{ or } X \subseteq B.$$
Since $x$ is choosen arbitrarily, this holds for any $x$.
Thus, by definition of subset, $$x \in A \text{ or } x \in B.$$
This means that, by definition of union, $$x \in A \cup B.$$
Then, by definition of subset, $$X \subseteq A \cup B.$$
Hence, by definition of the powerset, we have that $$X \in \powerset{A \cup B}.$$
Since $X \in \powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B}$ implies that $X \in \powerset{A \cup B}$, it follows that $$\powerset{A} \cup \powerset{B} \subseteq \powerset{A \cup B}.$$
\end{proof}
Mor Bras
looks fine to me ^-^ for clarity, i might rewrite this sentence:
Then, by definition of subset
would become
Since this is true for all x in X, by definition of subset
but the proof makes sense to me without this
divergence theorem you can do no wrong in my eyes
Tbh i was thinking about a sort of transitive idea for the same proof
Since The set A is always included in P(A) too.
ooh i do like how clean that is! but you may need to prove that A is the largest element in P(A) and contains all elements of P(A), which may break down in the infinite case (?)
would be very curious to see that tho 
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Without dealing with the obvious complications of infinite sets, the general idea.
P(A U B) contains A U B and all its subsets
A U B contains A and B as "subsequences"
If you individually find P(A) and P(B), this now becomes the set of all sub-subsequences, which obviously has to be contained by A and B
Following back this logic backwards implies that P(A) and P(B) as set of sub-subsequences have to be also contained the original set of A U B, and also in P(A U B)
It might be flawed tho
nothing formal anyways
P(A U B) contains A U B as an element or contains the elements of the union?
A U B as an element.
the power set contains all the subsets, so its a set of sets.
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Hello, could someone check if this proof looks good please?
\begin{Definition}[Subset of a set]
Suppose $A$ and $B$ are sets. If every element in $A$ is also an element $B$, then $A$ is a \emph{subset} of $B$, which is denoted $A \subseteq B$.
\end{Definition}
\newcommand{\powerset}[1]{ \mathcal{P} (#1) }
\begin{Definition}[Power set]
The \emph{power set} of a set $A$ is $\powerset{A} = { X : X \subseteq A}$.
\end{Definition}
% --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\begin{Theorem}
Assume $A$ and $B$ are sets. If $A \subseteq B$, then $\powerset{A} \subseteq \powerset{B}$.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
Let $A$ and $B$ be sets, $A \subseteq B$, and $X \in \powerset{A}$.
Then, by definition of the power set, $$X \subseteq A.$$
Since $A \subset B$, this means that $$X \subseteq B.$$
Thus, by definition of the power set, $$X \in \powerset{B}.$$
Since $X$ is chosen arbitrarily, this holds for any $X \in \powerset{A}$.
Since $X \in \powerset{A}$ implies that $X \in \powerset{B}$,
it follows, by the definition of subset, that
$$\powerset{A} \subseteq \powerset{B}.$$
\end{proof}
you only showed that one element of P(A) is in P(B)
you need to do show every element of P(A) is in P(B)
@fickle sierra
also, you probably shouldn't assume that A contains an element
Mor Bras
this is better, but still not enough, as not every element of P(B), P(A) is a singleton
I would suggest that you let X in P(A) and show that X is in P(B)
Just let X be an arbitrary subset. It's not useful to define X={x}, you're only accounting for singleton sets like that
@fickle sierra Has your question been resolved?
I'll repost the proof
\begin{Definition}[Subset of a set]
Suppose $A$ and $B$ are sets. If every element in $A$ is also an element $B$, then $A$ is a \emph{subset} of $B$, which is denoted $A \subseteq B$.
\end{Definition}
\newcommand{\powerset}[1]{ \mathcal{P} (#1) }
\begin{Definition}[Power set]
The \emph{power set} of a set $A$ is $\powerset{A} = { X : X \subseteq A}$.
\end{Definition}
% --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\begin{Theorem}
Assume $A$ and $B$ are sets. If $A \subseteq B$, then $\powerset{A} \subseteq \powerset{B}$.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
Let $A$ and $B$ be sets, $A \subseteq B$, and $X \in \powerset{A}$.
Then, by definition of the power set, $$X \subseteq A.$$
Since $A \subseteq B$, this means that $$X \subseteq B.$$
Thus, by definition of the power set, $$X \in \powerset{B}.$$
Since $X$ is chosen arbitrarily, this holds for any $X \in \powerset{A}$.
Since $X \in \powerset{A}$ implies that $X \in \powerset{B}$,
it follows, by the definition of subset, that
$$\powerset{A} \subseteq \powerset{B}.$$
\end{proof}
Mor Bras
good 👍
<@&286206848099549185> Hello, could someone else check if this proof looks good?

@fickle sierra Has your question been resolved?
Its good yes
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Hiiii I'd love to get help on this if possible! 🩷
This is a challenging problem in similarity found in Khan Academy, from the picture I can see that we essentially have 4 different triangles and that I have to find out the length of segment CF.
can you see something that relates CF the unknown with AB and DE, the knowns?
<@&268886789983436800>
I can prove similarity between triangles CBF and DBF by angle angle correspondence.
this is good
what does that tell you?
Also, now that I look at it, I can do the same for the other 2 triangles
mhm
That both big triangles are similar to their smaller counterparts.
yes, thats true
but you want something concrete that connects the results of the two similarities
Do you mean as in a two column proof or something?
can you spot the common elements of the two triangles?
no not really
Right angle and a shared angle at the end.
there is one more thing
Yes?
the side BE
Ah!!!!!!!
The big triangles share that side, and also an angle
except Side-angle isn't enough to tell if they're similar
@small warren You first prove triangle ABE is similar to triangle CEF
Then prove triangle BDE similar triangle BCF
You will get two simultaneous equations of CF, solve it.
the two triangles share the same side, and their smaller similar triangles take up the two parts (which add up to BE)
!nosols pls
I was just giving a hint...
Oh
its hardly called a hint when you outline the entire solution and detail the steps
True
Both smaller triangles share that side.
they share the parts of the side, and the important thing is that these parts add up back to BE, which is the more helpful part
I meant CF is the opposite to both smaller right triangles.
Yep, segments BF+FE=BE
ah yes, ofc
and BE is the opposite to both big right angled triangles
opposite?
eww, thats not good, its opposite to the angle
nope
How so? As far as I'm aware this is widely used.
its opposite to the angle A, we dont care about any other angle in this problem other than the right angle
ok then!
we can't prove similarity without using other angles though, can we?
why we beating around the bushes bro, the key is to translate the ratios of AB CF DE all onto BE
not even close, its only used when you are talking specifically about some angle. Opposite side means its actually opposite to something. the word loses its context when you dont have anything like an angle in consideration
we already did establish similarity tho...
Interesting, thank you.

DE/CF=AB/CF, is this ok? I haven't established similarity between all 4 triangles, however segment CF is related to both big and small triangles.
No
nope
how come?
nope
That would mean DE = AB
I haven't established similarity between all 4 triangles
yea, coz you cant, since its simply not true
Can you show me how it would mean that, please? I'm curious
Why?
thats why you have to take help of the common side
DE/CF=AB/CF
Multiply CF on both sides, you will get DE=AB.
Was that not what I was trying here?
no not really
Ohhh, and that's a false statement, 9 doesn't equal 12
maybe you were trying, but there was no actual evidence to support that equal sign there
@modern sapphire do you know why?
wdym? there is nothing there that supports any claim of similarity
Also, reposting image to make it easier to see the original question:
I see, ty.
now we onto burden of proof hhhhhhhhh
you need to see if the angles are equal, or that all the sides have the same ratio, and we dont have ny info about that
actually if all four are similar you would arrive again at 9=12
If you don't want to help then I'm just going to ignore you buddy.
only way the triangles can be similar is if BE were to be sqrt(108) long, but even then the similarity is flipped
No you are just diving in too much...
You first prove triangle ABE is similar to triangle CEF
Then prove triangle BDE similar triangle BCF
You will get two simultaneous equations of CF, solve it.
feel free. i find how the way this relates the mathematical proof very fun
DE/CF=EB/FB, AB/CF=BE/FE
Does this help me?
if your still confused let BF:FE to a:1-a
it does
Do you mean FE instead of FD?
Try to divide one equation with the other one maybe...you will get something if your proportionality statement is correct.
sry wrong alphabet
NP i was a bit confused, i thought maybe I could construct another triangle and see how it related to the others or something
use the 9 and 12 to get a
then youll be easy to get CF
BF = BE-FE
How do you do that?
What does : mean here?
the ratio between the length
How does this look like with :? @quick creek
yea, use this
DE:BE=CF:BF
AB:BE=CF:FE
I can definitely see how this becomes easy if we know what BE is and how to relate the proportions of the given numbers to these sides to figure out the proportion or K scaling factor from segment DE to segment CF, but I'm not sure how to go about that.
Might I add?
well, quite simply, BF/BE + FE/BE = 1
I don't see how to do that, I haven't used : before
9 fe/be = 12 bf/be
9 fe = 12 bf
3/4 = bf/fe
Yea sure
So theres a constant between the two lengths
And as so, the line CF lies always at the same proportion between the two
That makes sense.
That makes sense! Tysm
And wont bore you, but the if the base of the triangle doubles, then its slope halves.
Which implies that the AC isnt affected by BE
So AC is just a constant based on the two side lengths
unfortunately i don't understand, i don't get why segment AC is important
Ah
This is the geometry counterpart to a main theorem for vector algebra applied to statics & stability, lmao.

Cool!!!
Well the legs of a right angled triangle can give the missing hypotenuse using pythagorean theorem
And you have a known ratio for CF placement
Interesting, that never occurred to me.
Yeah
You could have also applied calculus principles
Maybe so!
If BE=1, then BF/BE=BF, and FE/BE=FE?
thats what i was saying
Ooohhhhhhh
Thank you, but I haven't learned that property yet, if it's a property or method or something
so i was pretty confused
the sum of the ratio(equals BE) is 1
Sorry don't you mean FE/BF=3/4?
bf is shorter
Yes but FE is similar to BE in ABE, and that triangle- wait if ABE isn't similar to DEB (the two big triangles aren't similar to each other), then how can we relate the proportions of 9 to 12?
Lemme draw a sec
Okay
This is not the algebraic proof yet, but just to show the fact that the height of CF is a constant
i see
Theres this fact about triangles
If you divide the base in half, the height halves
Supposing same slope
There's a dilation here after changing the lengths of the hypotenuses? I thought that it was mirrored
Which is basically the idea that if you go down the line, its the same as a linear function
Not even dilation, i constructed two different cases just sharing the sides 12 and 9
But yeah. geometrically it behaves like a dilation
Ty
Yeah because opposite over adjacent = tan which is the longest side in a right triangle which is diagonal to both legs right?
If i go down BF / BE of the way (as if we had a certain % of the way down)
Then the height is equal to CF
which gives us the following equation
Are you saying BF = CF?
i'm not sure i follow
12 * (BF/BE) = CF
Oooo, how do I find this out?
similar triangles
lol
the red marks are at 1/2 and 1/3 of the base
idk what to do to get 12 * (BF/BE) = CF though
the height at 1/2 is 6/2 = 3
the height at 1/3 is 6/3 = 2
doesnt matter how long the base is
This is given? in this image?
yep.
Makes sense
Yea!
. this equation applies the same concept
instead of 1/2 or 1/3 of the way
we have bf/be
We have 12 over CF?
not yet
12/CF:9/CF?
CF is our tool to have both be equal
Okay
Yep
So we can substitute then
so we have 9 (FE/BE) = 12 (BF/BE)
We are dividing in both sides by BE, and this is what tells us that BE doesnt affect the ratio
9/12=(BF/BE)/(FE/BE)
that gives the ratio at the bottom
3/4=(BF/BE)/(FE/BE)
BE cancels out
YES
A good choice for BE is 7
BF = 3 and FE =4?
because then BF is 3 and FE is 4.
That's what I was thinking
I wasn't thinking of like this strategy but I thought what if BE is 7
from there, just apply the same concept, choose any two sides, and move its corresponding ratio.
now get CF

lol
If BE=7, then BD = sqrt193?
A and D are just fluff here.
no the ratio
Hmmmm
knowing the ratios, just apply this same idea
BE=7 is just for easy ratio
CF=9 because 9=12*3/4?
Hmmm
You can do it one of two ways
Yea
CF is 3/4ths the length of BE?
nope
look
3/4 is the ratio of the short and long lengths
i see
uhhh
12×3=36
CF = 36/7?
ahhhh
Thank you all so much, I don't feel like I could do this on another problem or on this same problem on my own, I'm very stupid 
You got all the process correct?
Yea!
Ty for the help!! @knotty coral @quick creek @cerulean oyster and others
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Im blanking on how to do these can somebody check it
the method and diagrams are correct, but you forgot the negative on the second fraction
@pearl wind Has your question been resolved?
Kk ty
Could somebody check and answer the questions I wrote down on these
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Ok my other channel got closed because I lost track of time. So my question is how to draw the triangle because it ends to be against the x axis for the one in the bottom left corner. They said drawing it like this means the same thing but I am confused. Wouldent that now but more than 300 degrees. And if now the angle does not include the measurements inside the turned wouldent it make every other one of my answers wrong
So I mainly don’t understand how to know if the angle is inside or outside the tingle and why it changes
the triangle foot is always on x axis
Yea I’m trying to fix it but I don’t know how to fix it without changing the angle
Because other people said they would still be the same and right but I don’t understand how it doesn’t change the angle
Like I don’t understand which one of these is correct and how do I know if to include the angle with the triangle or not
the first one
so I’m just confused because I know all my other answers are right
Or are they not anymore
Because I’ve looked at my teachers answer keys not for this one specially but she includes the triangle angle
That one you are going clockwise instead of anti clockwise tho
But how can 300 degrees be the same thing as 340 or -30
not 340
Isn’t that where it ends up instead
Because you are going 3 full quarters so 90•3 =270 then you are going two pi/6 aka two 30 degrees so 330 not 340
yes
yes but it is same as rotating 90 in clockwise right
Well that makes sense because I know how I would draw that one
so anti=+ clockwise=-
Yes
270=-90
- mean in clockwise -
Wouldn’t it be anti clockwise
it is just a line no triangle will come
But in our tests we have to draw it with a triangle
no u always rotate in anti so +
u just think what happens if 300 was inside the triangle
I just don’t know how I am supposed to know on a test when I’m allowed to go inside the tangle or not. Because it feels like I am just guessing
and I don’t understand how both can be true at once and this not make all my other right answers wrong
To me now the triangle I would write for this not including this is now judt 360 but that does not make sense because that’s a full rotation aka zero
And I don’t understand how they can be the same answer if one is at pi/11 and the other is at pi/10 or 9
Wait
Could I draw it like this
Nvm
That doesn’t work
Like ona test I’m sure I’ll be able to figure it out but it won’t be because I think it’s true or I understand and it
@pearl wind Has your question been resolved?
what do you mean by this?
it doesn't matter how you draw the angle. if the point on the unit circle is below the x-axis, then the height of the right triangle is negative. if it's to the left of the y-axis, then the foot of the right triangle is negative
you can subtract or add 2π to the angle and all the trigonometric functions (sine, csc, cot, etc.) won't notice a difference
to check that the ray you drew is correct, you start in the positive x- direction and rotate ccw according to what angle amount the question asked for. cw if it's negative.
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not sure how to do this
i constructed a diagram
so we have
oh and DC = x
forgot to label
oh well
,,\sin C = \frac hb \ \implies h = b \sin C
calvin
then
calvin
calvin
and [h^2 + x^2 + 2ax + a^2 = c^2]
calvin
so then
calvin
the area of ABC is just h*a/2
yeah im not sure
<@&268886789983436800>
<@&268886789983436800>
@modulators
🔥
lance react me
yeah but im not sure how to continue from here
what about it
Ohhhhh i get it
abc = ha/2
h = bsinC
abc = absinC /2
br
bRUhh
gg
im cook
thank you alexis
.clsoe
.close
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not sure how to do g, h and i
^{\circ}
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\sin
kk
Annie Maqionde
Cool idea for a bot
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What is the difference?
(Zc → Gc) ⊕ (Gc → Zc)
(Zc → Gc) ∨ (Gc → Zc)
Glossary:
- Gx: x is good
- Zx: Zeus says it's good
- c: cake
It seems subtle I don't yet understand it.
in general, A v B is also satisfied when both A and B are true, whereas its symmetric difference (or XOR) requires that exactly one of A or B is true
A v B means or, not and
yah i'm saying that A v B is also satisfied when both are true
ahh ok
the subtlety between XOR and OR is that OR is weaker in the sense that at least one proposition needs to hold, whereas XOR requires that exactly one needs to hold
and with these conditionals it matters?
Thank you for your help!
well, what you have is a set of propositions
@shut canyon Has your question been resolved?
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can someone explain using the log rules (which rule) has been used in the bit in red
log_c (a) - log_c (b) = log(a/b)
nlog(a) = log (a^n)
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If my chain costs 200k and watch half a million and her smile 100k. What’s my networth?
Wtf is this
👀
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Wow… abuser
You should remain in Star Wars only.
damn
nah, you need an actual, legit math question to use a help channel
My question is good.
ayo maybe don't dilute the meaning of that word
not for help channel but pretty decent for #chill
:)
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Hi there. Does anyone know a good place to learn abt sequences with outputs in Q, and how theyre connected to functions in the reals? I have some parts in my notes but i wanna see practice questions abt using them to determine continuity of a function and stuff
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I already tried like just solving f(x)=x^2+3^2
But I dont think that’s what I’m supposed to do
the thing i can tell u is that the zero here is -3
let (x+3)^2=0
Ohhh
Ohhhhh okay so that’s all it is
What about the equation of the line of symmetry
well think about what the graph looks like
How am I supposed to know what the graph looks like
<@&268886789983436800> spazzing creep
Wtf was that 😭
hes typing again
i meant the constant just lifts the graph
we all know you didnt mean that
it just slipped my mind
You are aware that we can see messages you've deleted, right?
sorry
That was really strange, don't do that again 
i just dont know whats happening to me these days
its just that my pills are stuck in customs
@ruby geyser youre not helping go someplace else for this
If you want to talk about that, do so in #chill or something, though I would strongly suggest against trolling 
anyway what do you have with the graph of x^2
X=-3 is the line of symmetry equation sorry
I know I just don’t know how
sure man
the function is exactly the same as x^2 except x is shifted by the 3 right
like for each x value you take the function of whatever is 3 ahead of x
Oooh
Sorry I took a call mb
i hope this helps
Ohhh
I used the wrong technique
Anyway thank u @ruby geyser @mystic condor
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can someone help me get an idea of what a Z-module homomorphism $\phi:\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}$ would be like
JamR_71111
To show that $\textrm{Hom}_{\mathbb{Z}}(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z})\cong\mathbb{Z}/(m,n)\mathbb{Z}$ would we need any more info/intuition about the things in that hom set other than exactly what the definition of an R-module homomorphism would tell us ?
JamR_71111
rn, I can only see that it would be the case that $\phi(\overline{x}+\overline{y})=\phi(\overline{x+y})=\phi(\overline{x})+\phi(\overline{y})$
JamR_71111
of course with the other multiplication part but aside from those two things I don't know what else (if anything) i need
@flat geyser Has your question been resolved?
That's one rule, you can also find the rule $\phi(k\overline x) = k\phi(\overline x)$ interesting
Rafilouyear2026
ye thats what i mean by this. if you mean that there's a key to it in there, i don't see it very clearly yet
And so you don't have a lot of freedom for what a homomorphism can be
If you pick some strategic value of x for example
Ever heard the term "generator"?
yes
Ok
1 generates both z/nz and z/mz
Both those "1"s are different
But the 1 from Z/nZ generates it
And same thing for the other
ok
Hmm so phi(1) has to generate z/mz?
No not necessarily
rip
right
So...
O
Ok so the elements of the hom set depend entirely on what you send 1 to?
Nice okay
only things that preserve the multiplication rule $\phi(r\cdot\overline{1})=r\cdot\phi(\overline{1})$ ?
JamR_71111
Yeah, it's a bit vague for now but sure
Maybe you can find useful values of r to plug in
n ?
Yeah let's try
ok let me see
$\phi(n\cdot\overline{1})=\phi(\overline{0})=n\cdot\phi(\overline{1})$
JamR_71111
Phi(0) being?
So what can you say about the order of phi(1)
a divisor of n maybe
Exactly
Nice
sorry im slow with these things, is this enough to make a map for the isomorphism
and im thinking the map is just sending the homomorphism with $\phi(\overline{1})=y$ to $y\in\mathbb{Z}/(m,n)\mathbb{Z}$
JamR_71111
right right
Maybe it sends that homomorphism to the remainder of y when divided by gcd(m, n)
Let's let $\overline k = \phi(1)$, we'll find a way to express the condition for k
Forget about the order thing for now
ok
Rafilouyear2026
So $m\mid nk$
Rafilouyear2026
Mod m but yes
JamR_71111
ya
Rafilouyear2026
Rafilouyear2026
And now, we can use [???]
Yes
Meaning $m'\vert k$
JamR_71111
Exactly
So k is a multiple of m/(m,n)
How many k like that are there in {0,...,m-1}
(m,n) solutions
Hah awesome
So we send each map that sends 1 to some l-multiple of m/(m,n) to l in Z/(m,n)Z ?
Wait
uh oh
You're saying l = phi(1)?
That looks better
is that a valid map for it
I mean we just did half of the stuff, that if phi is a homomorphism, then phi(1) is a multiple of m/(m,n)
Now, you need backwards implication
If k is a multiple of m/(m,n)
But if we have an element of $\textrm{Hom}_{\mathbb{Z}}(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}),$ doesn't that element have to be a homomorphism
JamR_71111
Is the app defined by phi(x) = kx a homomorphism
using the thing that sends each map to whatever multiple of m/d it sends 1 to turns out to suffice for an isomorphism between that hom set and Z/dZ
thank you so much for your help in basically all of the set-up, i REALLY need to get used to this kind of stuff
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Hi ik this isn't a math question but i'm struggling to understand what this question is asking for bc what does it mean by between terminals a and b
Here you have a parallel and series connection, do it step by step (simplifying the circuit each time) and you will get the result
yeah
so is it the same as just finding the Rt total resistance?
i think so
this is the resistance that the meter (or source) sees if I connect it exactly between these two points
In this case there is no a big difference between those two, but generally there is
e.g. two resistors connected in series, if you take a meter and measure at points A and B (at the terminals of the first resistor), the resistance will be different than the resistance of the entire circuit between points A and C (i.e. equivalent)
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no clue how to do part A
i know (b) follows from (a) by rank nullity
you have to construct functions T such that ST=0
so in particular im(T) is in null(S)
and as usual for these problems: pick a good basis
I’m not sure either but maybe try thinking about what it means for A(T) = ST to be zero
\begin{itemize}
\item First, remind yourself what \textbf{null space} means here. in other words:
``For which linear maps $T$ does $ST = 0$?''
This question defines the null space of $\mathcal A$.
\item Next, translate $ST = 0$ into plain language:
this means \emph{every vector in $V$} gets sent by $T$ into something that $S$ kills.
\item Ask yourself: ``Where must the outputs of $T$ live for this to happen?''
(Hint: think about the null space of $S$, not of $\mathcal A$.)
\item Now switch perspective: instead of thinking about operators, think about
\textbf{choosing images of a basis} of $V$.
For each basis vector of $V$, where is $T$ allowed to send it?
\item Once you see that, count degrees of freedom:
\begin{itemize}
\item How many independent choices do you have for each basis vector?
\item How many basis vectors are there?
\end{itemize}
\item Finally, remember that linear maps are completely determined by what they do to a basis.
\end{itemize}
Anon
don't need to overcomplicate it
null A is precisely those in T in Hom(V, V) where im T ⊂ null S
oh yeah that makes sense
ok I don't mean it that way your exposition is helpful
I was saying that in reference to some deleted messgage
oh okay
@wanton spade Has your question been resolved?
Tv_i for a basis vector v_i will be a combination of dim null S vectors, and V has dim V vectors
wait so that should give me dimV dim null S choices?
yes
hold on would it suffice to show null A = L(V, null S)?
yes that's just a basis-free way of thinking about the same thing
ohh
(the fact that dim Hom(V, U) = (dim V)(dim U) for finite-dimensional spaces is why they specified V is finite-dimensional)
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so i want to construct a karnaugh map of this


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