#help-49
1 messages · Page 281 of 1
yes
Yeah so that still just makes r = (-b plus or minus sqrt(b^2 - 4ac))/2a no?
yes
So was my answer right from the start?
getting this is not sufficient to talk about the nature of roots
your screenshot has a constraint b^2-4ac>0
we need to use it
I thought all the discriminate being positive means is that our equation will have two real roots
Am I forgetting something from algebra?
yes this is what we need to state
you just gave the general formula but okay
do you have any idea of how to do the next part?
hm
Well
We would always get a0nr^n + ... + a(n-1)2r^2 + a(n)r = 0
After subbing in e^rt
yes
Okay
the bounding number is n
but there can be repeated roots
which reduces the number of distinct r
How might you go about finding those solutions though
there isnt a general formula for an nth degree polynomial
you find solutions numerically often
if u r lucky, u can factor it
okay
Okay
So I kind of understand this one
For (i), if we do n = 0, it becomes y prime + p(x)y = q(x) and can be solved using the integrating factor, giving us y = (integral from a sub zero to x of u(s)g(s)ds + c)/u(x). If we do n = 1, we get y prime + p(x)y = q(x)y.
I was thinking that I could maybe divide by y to get (y prime)/y = q(x) - p(x), and do something from there
maybe get like y = y'/(q(x)-p(x))?
btw you can and should write an apostrophe for prime
like y'
and also _ for subscripts like a_0
I forgot the apostrphe existed lol
holy
I live in Japan now so I kind of have been forgetting English honestly
Do you have any ideas
For the problem
unfortunately no, i forgor too much about DEs
been long enough ig
<@&286206848099549185>
Oh wait, if n = 1, we can obtain y' + (p(x)-q(x))y = 0
And solve regularly from there
yes
Wait so for the integrating factor what would that simplify to?
Actually I guess you just cant
It doesn't matter I guess
I will just call it u(x)
you can just do separation of variables
nah like how would you integrate $e^{(p(x) - q(x))}$
డ్ర్యాగ్లొక్స్
it's better to just have a u(x) sub as op said
what are u even saying
Again, variable separation would be the best bet
the goal here is to express in terms of P(x) and q(x)
integration factor
No the integration factor is that, but you dont integrate the whole thing just the exponent
yes of course the two methods are equivalent
Which cant be simplified really so I will just leave it as u(x)
omg wait that is right
sry it's 3 am my mind is gone
After I finish writing down my thoughts I will start ii, which I think I will actually need help with
Okay
By substitute does it mean replace y^n with y^1-n? or does it mean something else
It means something else
What does it mean
First of all, you need a y^1-n to appear somewhere
I dont get why he assigned all this before even the first lecture bruh
What class is this for?
Thats what would happen if you replace y^n with y^1-n bruh
DiffQ, I am taking it through Stanford Online High School though so its kind of fast paced I think
As in not replacing y^n, but dividing it
Or maybe its slow and I am tweaking
substitute means rewrite the ODE for y as an ODE for v
And how would I do that...
First, divide by y^n so that y^1-n appears
The first step is to always make sure that the substitution can be seen in the ODE
Oh, giving us y'*y^-n + p(x)y^1-n = q(x)?
Oh, dv/dx = (1-n)y^-ndy/dx
With respect to x
The y also has to be differentiated with respect to x
Chain rule
Ok, now substitute everything into the ODE
better?
Everything good so far?
YEah
Sub both into the ODE
I think this would make a lot more sense if a lecture had happened yet lol
I think I understand though
Is it dv/dx * 1/(1-n) + p(x)v = q(x)?
Yeah
Because if you do integration factor, the coefficient of dv/dx should be 1
Could you write that out and send the picture if possible?
Wait, I didnt even have to do that though
Doesn't it just say to prove its a linear equation?
Yeah
So I could just say v'/(1-n) + p(x)v = q(x), follows the form a_nv^n + ... + a_0v = 0, and is therefore linear
Just leaving it in the form v'/(1-n)+p(x)v=q(x) already shows that it is linear
Man
That was a waste of time
Okay now time for iii
I also dont have an eraser so I am hoping he is okay with me just putting it in a box and saying dont mind this
I got a question
For the integrating factor for iii, how do I choose what a_0 is
So you did the substitution right?
I got my substituted equation as v' + 2(wierd e)v = -2(omega)
So your integrating factor is e^(integral of coefficient of v)
Yes, but what are the bounds
There are no bounds
Oh
Its just indefinite integral
Whoops
Also you dont need the arbitrary constant
Epsilon
Just the coefficient of v
Not the entire term
And you're integrating with respect to x
Just cross it out
Yes but I have to send this in
I hope he is fine with it I guess lol
Okay
So I got e^2(epsilon)x * y = integral of -2e^2(epsilon)x * omega
Yup
Okay, I got v = - omega over epsilon + c
Is that right?
Which mean y = plus or minus sqrt( 1 / (-omega/epsilon + c))
Should be
Check your right hand side here
I dont think theres supposed to be a minus sign
Why
You did multiply everything by -2, right
I got it from the negative two in the integral
Did you multiply by -2 after you sub everything in?
The original question there was a minus sign on the right hand side
Also your arbitrary constant should have an e^-2(epsilon)x
Okay yeah it’s positive
Holy shit bro
I am going to tweak out
Okay I am buying an eraser
Okay but after that it’s right right?
Yeah
Isn’t it kind of crazy that this is all before even one lecture?
How long does it take to get to this point usually? Is it really only like one day?
Yeah I think now that I understand the method I could do it in under 10 minutes
I honestly did the first substituted equation part in like 2 min
I just didn’t understand the full process
But after that pain I do now
Just keep practising, you'll get the feeling of it in no time
Oh you're in Japan?
Nah getting mugged is so rare in Japan
I hope that the food for dinner tonight is good
No, I dont mean getting mugged as getting robbed
I swear my host family hates good things
Mugging in my culture means studying
So like you go to a cafe or a library and you mug means you study a lot
The food is always like really bad, and I am not saying that because it’s Japanese as that’s all I eat, but it’s like only the super traditional parts of Japanese cooking
Which you would think is good but it really is not
Really? Interesting
I keep forgetting that mugging is local slang and that internationally it means robbing
Yes the mountain potato tastes like something I can’t even describe with the worst texture ever, and my host dad legit knows, he said “challenge” and handed me it
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Can someone point me in the right direction. We have 1/2f(c) < f(x) < 3/2f(c) for x_0 - delta < x < x_0 + delta. But I am not sure what to do after
f(x) > f(c)/2 in an interval of length 2delta
isn't the whole thing of length 2 delta but one part of it just delta?
it does not matter what its length is that much
the idea is, your function f is bounded below by the function that takes value f(c)/2 on that interval and 0 elsewhere
and the integral of this bounding function is obv positive
so your saying that if the integral of the function is bounded below by a positive value it could never be equal to 0
if it's bounded below by a positive constant on a non null set
in your case, the open interval (c-δ, c+δ)
so am I understanding everything correctly. We assume that int from a to b f(x)dx = 0 and say assume that there is a point f(c)>0. Then we say we have 1/2f(c)< f(x) < 3/2f(c) for c- delta < x < c + delta. we have int from c - delta to c > 1\2f(c) *delta
What can you say about the integral of f from c-δ to c+δ?
between 1\2f(c) detla and 3/2f(c) delta
one of these matters way more than the other
the 1/2f(c) but I dont' see how we can compare it to the whole interval since it is only defined on c-delta.
Also for the proof itself is the idea just to show that if f(x) has a point greator than 0 and the int f(x) = 0 then we get a contradiction. But can't you just use the fact that we can represent area with integrals and if we have the function positive somewhere the area must be positive
Maybe a picture will help. The only main idea is that the integral of f over [a,b] is at least the area of the shaded rectangle, which is positive
This is essentially the argument but made rigourous
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Find the sum of the expression (2n-1)!!/(2n + 2)!! from n = 1 to n = infinity.
$\frac{1}{2\cdot4}+\frac{1\cdot3}{2\cdot4\cdot6}+\frac{1\cdot3\cdot5}{2\cdot4\cdot6\cdot8}...$
so this sum?
MathIsAlwaysRight
Yes.
maybe factoring out the 2s from the denominator would help
hmm, not that much. Maybe converting it all to normal factorials then
Yeah.
(2n)!! = (2^n * n!)
(2n-1)!! = (2n)!/(2n)!! = (2n)!/(2^n * n!)
So the expression equals:
1/2 * 1/4^n * (2n)!/(n! * (n+1)!)
idk if this helps
but first fraction can be written into
$\frac{1}{2^2 \cdot 1 \cdot 2}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
second fraction can be written into
$\frac{1 \cdot 3}{2^3 \cdot 1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
third fraction can be written into $\frac{1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5}{2^4 \cdot 1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
$\frac{\operatorname{nCr}\left(2,1\right)}{2\cdot2^{3}}+\frac{\operatorname{nCr}\left(4,2\right)}{3\cdot2^{5}}+\frac{\operatorname{nCr}\left(6,3\right)}{4\cdot2^{7}}+\frac{\operatorname{nCr}\left(8,4\right)}{5\cdot2^{9}}$
MathIsAlwaysRight
with a bit more algebra, it can be brought to this
that emerges a clearer pattern
some generatingfunctionology is nearly certain to be lurking nearby
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\binom{2n}{n}}{(n + 1) \cdot 2^{2n + 1}}$
\binom{n}{k} exists btw
2n+1, not n+2
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
hope this can help some helpers out here
only missing $x^{2n + 1}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
we could plug in 1 if that was the issue
value at x=1
the issue is 2n+1 instead of n+1, but thats prolly fixable
oh, technically this is 2n+2
how about the $\frac{1}{4^n}$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
i don't think so
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\binom{2n}{n}}{\left(2n+2\right)4^{n}}$
MathIsAlwaysRight
my bad
write the first one 4-3
the next one 6 -5
n they cancel out
rewrite 1?
i think that's what i said
ye
this is almost $\arcsin(1)$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
oh thats smart
forget it
we could prolly integrate and that'd get the 2n+2, but thats overcomplicated
the telescope is much simpler
hm
@delicate meadow this is the simplest solution probably
$\frac{4-3}{2\cdot4}+\frac{\left(6-5\right)\cdot3}{2\cdot4\cdot6}+\frac{\left(8-7\right)\cdot3\cdot5}{2\cdot4\cdot6\cdot8}+\dots$
MathIsAlwaysRight
now split the terms and it goes 🔭
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\prod_{m=1}^{n} (2m - 1) \cdot ((n + 3) - (n + 2))}{\prod_{m=1}^{n+1} (2m)}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
@delicate meadow Has your question been resolved?
Thanks/
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Is there a way to improve my method of solving equations?
aka. if I am to convert 3 minutes 5 seconds to a fraction of an hour,
I would do 1/20 + 5/3600, and then end up with 740/14400 which i'd then try using long division and spend the next 5 minutes making errors
if the answer is just doing more problems i'll accept it
I'd do the same probably
a few factors you can quickly see
cancel one of the zeros
divide by 2
and then you are already done in this case
oh I didnt check your fractions
to compute 1/20+5/3600 you really dont need to get a common denominator of 14400
not sure where that is from
its just 180/3600+5/3600
equivalently, convert the 3 minutes into 180 seconds first
Actually 720 can serve as a common denominator if you do the 5s on the second frac
or that
oh
@dark cloud Has your question been resolved?
if theres only minutes and seconds, i might convert minutes into seconds first
then seconds to hour
3 min = 180s
180 + 5 = 185s
185 / 3600
at least your base is always 3600
oh shoot
right
yeah i'll prolly do this
thank yall
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For number 8 how can I justify the usage of the weighted mean value theorem if it says this is valid if g is strictly positive or negative. Question 8 says that g is just continuous. Also how can I deal with endpoints. We have m≤ f(x) ≤ M and I found m≤0≤M if I can use the weighted mean value theorem. I was thinking of doing mg(x)≤ f(x)g(x). m int g(x) ≤ int f(x)g(x). Letting m = f(x) we have f(x) ≤0. But I feel like the way I set the min is iffy.
@sand flume Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Wdym?
Isn't the only way to proceed for this proof with that theorem
But even with it I can show that the endpoints are 0 just everything in between
if f is nonzero at some point c, say f(c) > 0, then you can do a similar trick as what we did earlier with a suitably constructed bump function g
to get int fg > 0
But g can be anything
if youve already done problem 7 then you can use it to very quickly do problem 8
there is an obvious choice of g here which is helpful
So we can use a positive g
Are you saying that it is like this but we are scaling the vertical axis by g https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/1018703621841494076/1459162613282897943/Screenshot_20260109_203041_CamScanner.jpg?ex=69624694&is=6960f514&hm=2b8ceddb016cd8748645dbf8406b0bd203437c52e016cd61a22f87cc0399db35&
something like that in some sense, sure
but think easier
how can you reduce it to problem 7
If g(x) was 1
But aren't we then just proving it for a specific case of g not g in general
no, P7 assumes nonnegative integrand
we are allowed to choose any g
whenever we are allowed to do that, then we probably only need one specific choice
What if we said g(x) = 0. f wouldn't play a role anymore.
setting g=0 gives 0=0… no new info
Aren't we alerting the problem statement then?
what
I'm confused on why g needs to depend on f. All the problem says is that g is continuous on a,b
we are supposed to show something about f
so probably our proof should depend on f
our proof probably proceeds by choosing a smart g
so our g should probably depend on f
those are general proof strategies
at this point the specific problem doesnt even matter yet
So by smart g we are choosing either a strictly positive g or strictly negative g right? Since then it is similar to problem 7
how can we make f*g nonnegative
Well I can again draw what I had in mind, I'll spoiler it
This is the general idea anyway, it's quite similar to the last question as you said
If we had an f(c)>0 and g negative
G would be positive
positive*negative=negative
so that would be bad
when is g positive and when is it negative
your answer should depend on f
cause f*g depends on f
I'm not following why g being negative is bad? Wouldn't our inqualtiy just be int a to b fg < int from c- delta to c + delta fg < 2 delta 1/2 f(c) < 0 and then we get a contradiction since it is negative
I want to reduce it to problem 7
I do not want to do any epsilonics
problem 7 already did epsilonics
Ok so your saying if we want it to be strictly like 7 g is positive
no, g is sometimes positive and sometimes negative
I want f*g>=0
f can sometimes be positive or negative
I need to cancel that out
how can I choose g
G should be negative everywhere f is negative and positive everywhere f is positive
now think of a VERY easy choice of g to ensure that
and can you find a continuous function g which does that
Just f
yes!
g=f
apply problem 7
done
one line
the choice g=f appears over and over again
in all kinds of problems
Wait can you explain again why this still keeps the result general
by choosing g=f we get that int f^2 =0
but f^2>=0
so f^2=0 by problem 7
so f=0
we were allowed to choose any g we wanted
and we chose a g we liked
I don't see how that aligns with every function g
P8 gives us a property that is true for all g. logic allows us to pick a specific g and conclude the property holds for it too
Oh Im misreading. I thought it was saying show that for every function g f(x) must be 0 if the integral is 0
Ok thx guys for the help
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is my reasoning correct here?
I found that angle ACB is congruent to angle DCE because of vertical angles
I also know that angle B is congruent to angle D because of alternate interior angles.
So I concluded that both triangles are similar, and I found the measure of CE by dividing the side that has a green and red angle with the smaller triangle and making it equal to the side with the green and unknown.
I made CE = x by the way.
Or x = CE
Line BD is a transversal that passes through line AB and DE, and AB and DE are parallel as given from the original diagram.
is 5/3=4/CE or 5/3= CE/4 🤔
ratio you are looking for is ||5 : 3 :: 4 : x||
Yea!
What does :: mean?
your reasoning apart from that is right
"5 is to 3 as 4 is to x"
Basically =
Here's my new result.
Thanks! 
👍
Oh cool
Tysm for helping me everyone! 🩷
This was on Khan Academy he didn't say to try and solve it yourself but I wanted to see what the answer could be before he just gave me all the steps!
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You are interviewing 10 job candidates. They appear in a random order. After each interview, you must immediately decide: “hire” or “reject” (you cannot go back to someone you have already rejected). Your goal is to hire only the best candidate from the entire group. What is the best strategy? Support your answer with calculations.
any thoughts?
suppose you interview someone and they're worse than some previous candidate, should you hire or reject them?
(it's not stated, but i assume you're able to determine if someone is better or worse than ones you've already seen)
But you don’t know if the next person will be better
that's true, but you know for sure this one isn't the best, if you already saw a better one
so the probability that this one is best = 0
seems to me you should definitely reject in that case
The point is to hire the best person. So if they're worse than someone you already saw, they can't be the best
now as for what you should do if it's the final person and they're not the best, i don't know, it doesn't say whether or not you're forced to hire someone
In any case you lose if you didn't hire the best person imo
yea i agree, so probably doesn't matter
There is some idea to this strategy
To never hire the first person, to serve as a base case for the others
But imagine if the 2nd person is better than the first, do you hire them?
Or do you wait again to see the 3rd person?
And if you do wait, do you hire the 3rd person if they're better?
Etc
The question to establish the strategy is: how many people do you automatically reject at the beginning?
intuitively it seems likely that it's not optimal to hire the first guy, nor to wait until the last, but you need to back this up with a solid conditional probability calculation
This is so difficult
It seems difficult, but the calculations aren't the worst
Suppose your strategy is to reject the first k persons
And the best is in i-th position
If you’re on the 3rd person you still have higher probability of getting the best than the first two that were
You never know until you compute it
So here are the variables, k and i
Depending on those, what is the probability you hire the best?
1/10
It actually isn't
how is the goodness of a strategy evaluated btw
yea i would be a bit careful with this reasoning, you might think that a strategy of skipping the first five should give you 50% success, but it will be less than that because even if the best guy is in the second half, you're not guaranteed to choose him
is it simply the chance that it picks the best candidate
It should be, right @river robin
also once we hire someone we stop, or do we?
It would be too easy if we didn't stop wouldn't it
hire everyone!
Hire the first person, and hire someone else if the newest person is better than the one currently hired
so first guy gets rejected nmw as hiring him only gives us 10%
ooga booga strategy is to hire as soon as you see someone better than the first guy
Which raises this series of questions
So let's try one of those strategies : reject the first k persons, and the first one you see that is better than the first k, you hire
So it includes the ooga-booga strategy (k=1)
But also includes others
So fix some value of k, and suppose the best is in position i (of course the one applying the strategy doesn't know that)
What's the probability of hiring them if, for example, k >= i?
Why exactly if the person is better than the first ones
If they're worse than the first ones, that means they're not the best
So since you only want the best, the only way you'll be willing to hire them is if they're better than the previous ones
If you still choose to not hire them, then that's a different strategy with a different value of k
That's what we're doing
We're applying the principle of total events
the best must be at some position i between 1 and 10
i think mamusia might have me on ignore btw
no
ok
Idk where to start can’t you just do the thing @visual tiger
"do the thing"
I won't give you a full solution just like that, but I can guide you to it
Try answering this first warmup question
Your strategy is "skip the first k people, and then hire the first one better than them"
And the best is in position "i"
What happens if k >= i?
You fail?
Yeah, you automatically fail
Because you skipped the best
Now, let's suppose k < i
So, let's imagine what must happen for you to hire the person in position i
If you didn't hire anyone up to the person in position i-1 included
Then once you reach position i, you're gonna hire them
Because they are better than the first k persons
(Since they're the best)
So you need to not hire anyone between positions k+1 and i-1
The 10 people you're interviewing come in a certain order
So 'position k+1' means the k+1-th person you interview today
If k = 2 for example
And i = 5 let's say
That means you skip the first 2 people you interview today
And the best person happens to be the 5th person today (even though you don't know that)
So, after interviewing and passing the first two people
You still have to interview the 3rd and 4th person before you interview the best
And you mustn't hire them
Ok
so k+1 is the first person you interview after automatically skipping
And i-1 is the last person you interview before seeing the best
Ok
None of those people between k+1 and i-1 should be hired if you wanna hire the best
So according to your strategy, they can't be better than the first k
Otherwise you would hire them, and so failing because you didn't hire the best
Mhm
Are there some questions about what I said up until now?
Or do we continue
If everything's fine, then I think I should show you the hint that will help you find the probability to hire the best in that scenario
I'll spoiler it if you want to think about it on your own
Here's the hint: ||Think about the best person out of the bunch you interview before the best, including the people you skipped at the beginning. So that's the best out of the first i-1 people||
||In which position(s) can he be if you want to hire the best of the best in position i?||
k - k+8?
Are you saying he can be in any position between k and k+8?
Yes
That doesn't make a lot of sense
First of all, the best out of the first i-1 people can only be one of those i-1 people
So he can only be between 1 and i-1
-# I know the answer, but I don't understand why the best strategy is in the "Reject until we get a better person" strategies
Let's imagine the specific case where k = 2 and i= 5 again
We can talk about it more in another channel maybe
So, the best of the best is in position 5
And we want to know when do we interview the best out of the first 4 people
Mhm
So
Can we give them a name so I don't have to repeat "the best out of the first 4 people" all the time?
Let's call them Charlie
Now, what happens if Charlie is the very first person interviewed?
Does person n°3 get hired? Does person n°4 get hired?
N3
?
The first one
The first one as in my first question "n°3 gets hired" or the very first person gets hired?
The first one
Ok aren’t you tired of this? @visual tiger
I'm not
If you're not interested in trying even a little bit you can just look up the Secretary Problem
But I doubt you'll learn as much as trying while being guided like we're doing
So you think n°3 gets hired?
I genuinely don’t understand you
Alright, tell me what part you didn't understand?
Is it just "n°X" that confuses you? (It means "person number X")
So I was asking, in the case "Charlie" (the best person out of the first 4 interviewed) is interviewed first, does the third person get hired? Does the fourth person get hired?
And Charlie was first?
Yeah right now we're supposing Charlie was the first interviewed
Well neither…
yeah, neither get hired
because both of them are worse than Charlie, who is in the sample of people rejected
so the 5th person, being the best, is the next being interviewed
and he's gonna get hired
meaning we win!
Same question when Charlie now is the 2nd person interviewed. Do we manage to hire the best?
Yes
Exactly, it's the same thing, Charlie is still in the sample of people being rejected
and so 3rd and 4th people, being worse than charlie, don't get hired
and best coming 5th is hired
Same question when Charlie now is the 3rd person being interviewed
Well then we hire 4th person?
let's look at it in order
First we skip the first two
and then 3rd person is Charlie
Remember we hire the first person that is better than the rejected sample
Does Charlie get hired or not?
Yes
Right, so Charlie being better than the rejected sample (being the best out of the first 4), is hired
so 4th person doesn't get hired
and more importantly the best in 5th, doesn't get hired
so we fail
Now finally, last possibility
Charlie now is the 4th person being interviewed
Do we manage to hire the best?
This answer is correct, we don't manage to hire the best unfortunately
We skip the first 2 people
and now incomes 3rd person
Do they get hired or not? It doesn't matter
because even if they don't get hired, Charlie comes next
and charlie will get hired
meaning the best doesn't get hired and we fail
So in conclusion
The best only gets hired when charlie is in the rejection sample
So the probability the best gets hired
is exactly the probability Charlie is in the rejection sample
= k/(i-1)
(there are k rejection spots out of the total i-1 people before the best)
So, with our strategy "reject the first k people, then hire the first one you see that is better"
$P(\text{hiring the best one, given best = i}) = \begin{cases}0&\text{if }k \geq i\\frac{k}{i-1}& \text{if }k < i\end{cases}$
Rafilouyear2026
So law of total probabilities should help you finish this
\begin{align*} P(\text{hiring the best one}&) =\ &\sum_{i=1}^{10}P(\text{best} = i)P(\text{hiring the best one, given best}=i)\end{align*}
-# Double backslash for new line
I know that, it's not gonna help, unless
Oh I misread it
Rafilouyear2026
well it works
@river robin Has your question been resolved?
Well uh
alr anyone need help
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can anyone explain this
consider what happens to the x^4 term of (2+x)^7 when you multiply it by (3 + 1/x^3)
280x^4
ok, and when you multiply that by (3 + 1/x^3)?
yea so you have a 280x contribution from the x^4 term of (2+x)^7
oh so the answer is 280
and as you showed earlier, you also have a 1344x contribution from the x^1 term
ye 1344
so both of those added together will give you the full x term
what does that mean?
one from the x^0 term of (2+x)^7, and one from the x^3 term
(because x^3 multiplied by 1/x^3 gives you a constant term)
did i do this correctly
there might be some calculation issues idk tho
cuz i didnt use calc for the choose bit
yep, add that to the 560 and you're good
oh wait
sorry that already includes the 560
i added560+384
i lost track haha
yea lol
yep you're good, that's correct
no problem thanks so much for helping me
yw
i was getting help before and i swr they were yapping for minutes
appreciate u so much
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<@&268886789983436800> spammed across channels
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a better question is: what was the original question you were doing?
what makes it specifically malaysian
idk from the few times I've interacted with them that's my hunch
op seems to be gone but I'm assuming it's this
so setup was fine
anyway I'm out
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Open
,rccw
well then go reread your notes on the binomial thm
the highest degree term in this is going to be 3^n x^(2n)
that lets you find n almost immediately
Ok
Is this algebra 2?
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Can someone help me solve just the first one, and then after I will do the second one myself? I am just kind of confused as we still havent had a lecture for the class yet so I am still confused.
Like am I supposed to be taking the partial derivative first and then solving by seperation of variables or something?
<@&286206848099549185>
Bruh
No one likes me
js wait bro
; (
Its been twenty minutes man
I have been waiting
Okay nvm I guess
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For (e) part , I have an alternate method :-
if n ∈N , then 0<(1/n)≤1
And 0<(1/n)^i ≤(1/n) ≤1 ------(1)
where i is a natural number .
If ε> 0 , there exist a natural number k, such that (1/ ε)< k
Or (1/k )< ε
If n≥k , then (1/n)≤ (1/k) -------(2)
Combining (1) and (2) , we get
(1/n)^i < ε or
|(1/n)^i - 0| < ε ,
So 0 is the limit of this sequence
Kindle check my method
Why does your method not even mention b?
seems like you assume b = 1/n
but not every number between 0 and 1 can be expressed as 1/n
for example 0.75 cant be expressed like that
and interestingly, your method proves (1/1)^n -> 0 as n -> inf
which is false
well, any method you use has to be able to find N such that for n > N, b^n < epsilon
when we have n in the exponent, using log is the most obvious way to extract it
but you could probably cook up some inequality which would avoid logs
but the books method is certainly the most straightforward one
Can I make changes in my method , to make it correct?
i dont think so
Can u give some idea
bernoullis inequality maybe
okay nvm that wont work
we need an upper bound on it, not lower bound
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maybe if we use b = 1/(1+x) for x > 0
then apply bernoullis on that
yeah, that should work
this is valid, because for any 0 < b < 1, you can explicitly solve for x
meanwhile when you took b = 1/n, it wasnt valid because you cant always find such n
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how tonsolve this
one sentence at a time
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I don't get how this is solved
i've only ever used Event/Set and it's worked out fine, but i have no clue how this works
Which grade r u in @dark cloud
finished 12th last year
they multiplied the probabilities
why'd they do so?
when you want two probability two events occur together you mltiply their individual probabilities
unless stated the events are non independent
okay I don't really get it
hmm..
these formulas were there prior asw, but I don't get it
huh? what's the answer then
0.81+0.01=0.82
why'd we add 0.01
0.81 is the probability the bike will find a parking space but the car doesn't
0.01 is the probability the car will find a parking space but the bike doesn't
we can also find using this
$P(A \cup B) - P(A \cap B)$
oppenheimer
is there a video I can watch for this
that is subtracting both find parking from either (one of them + both) finds parking
i'm not sure how i can rephrase this
Because the question asks for the probability that one of them find a space, but there's two different ways this can happen:
- The bike finds a space but the car doesn't (0.81)
- The car finds a space but the bike doesn't (0.01)
I GET IT
right
nice
I take it this is like really basic probability right?
could I understand how it works from like the first youtube video I get
The cases:
- The bike finds a space but the car doesn't (0.9*0.9=0.81)
- The car finds a space but the bike doesn't (0.1*0.1=0.01)
- They both find a space (0.1*0.9=0.09)
- Neither finds a space (0.9*0.1=0.09)
So you could also do 1-0.09-0.09=0.82
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can anyone help with the steps? garde 10
recall the total angle of a circle and what percent of it the tiger's occupy
I'm guessing major arc
so the angle that the arc AB makes
major because you generally assume minor arc without anything present
might be it's length where you take some radius r
i could be very off
I dont know what major means...
the bigger arc AB
oh i see
we cant find r, can we?
or perhaps its just the angle the bigger arc makes
doesn't seem like it, maybe there's more to the q
we'll have to wait for op
@buoyant bolt
m AB means measure of arc AB
(لو بتعرف تتكلم عربي, اعرف اساعدك(
oh 😭
and does that mean---> the angle 😭
اعرف عربي
They did not specify major/minor
طب ماشي
Length
انت حاولت ايه؟
مدري
Length of arc i assume
تقدر تشرحلي السوال عايز ايه؟
iam.
-# i didn't know you speak arabic
-# neither did i
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The area of the region closed by |x+2| + |y-a| = b is 20 units^2. The product ab is 30. What is the value of a? Express your answer in simplest radical form.
I think set x=-2 and maybe do something idk
That could help with finding "endpoints" for the graph
this is a standard graph to know the shape of
You may also find it helpful to ||rewrite the absolute values as piecewise functions||
oh k
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z^2z' is not differentiable anywhere
Can i apply d/dz here?
how can you apply the derivative to a non-differentiable function?
you're asking how to prove that this function is not differentiable?
do you know the cauchy-riemann equations?
Yeah
(x+iy)^2(x-iy)
(x^2-y^2+2ixy)(x-iy)
if I apply derivative with respect to z'
i got z^2=0
So z^2z' is differentiable at z=0 only am I wrong?@sharp coral
cauchy riemann equations aren't sufficient for differentiability at an isolated point
you use the limit definition directly
@near geyser Has your question been resolved?
How do I it?
have you done limits in R^2 before?
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Markscheme says use 200k x 120 x 10
But why the question ask energy lost in 1 second
What
1 second moved 14m
Shouldn’t it be 200k x 14 x 10
???
ryt
dude
?
but it leaves with diff speed
yeah
yes, the speed of turbine leaving is for the next ques
what paper was this
?
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hey
youre giving boards?
yea
jee
u hv a ques?
yup
yea
ok
dont google it

