#help-49
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This is one of those questions where you consider the edge case
what is the range of each side
0,pi
That’s the range of the inverse cosine function yes
mhm
lhs
as m is > o then that arc cos x will give vales from 0 to mpi
and arccos 1-x will give values from
x lies from -1 to 1
but 1-x must also lie from -1 to 1
1-x lies from [2,0]
and its outta the range for cox
so x must be 0?
Are you trying to think about the domain? Because the left had side is defined for 1/2 too.
yea
lhs is defined for 1/2?
oh ye from all values of
mb gng lemme fix a bit
so arc cox 1-x gives [1,0] and marc cos x will give again [m,0]
x lies between [0,1] only
but here given than m is always positive
and n must be either 0 or -ve
I think you have at least some of the idea, but what I’m reading is kinda all over the place rn
so to solve this
we js need to find where the values are giving us the desired -ve value
or 0 in this case
mhm you want both sides to be zero
yup
sure
I’m out shopping right now, so someone else will probably look at it
ye i got it
so here i was unable to grasp what the series is and how i can write it in the form of arc tan x - arc tan y
@vague wigeon Has your question been resolved?
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✅ Original question: #help-49 message
$n^2 \pm n$
Civil Service Pigeon
thanks
wait what
how gng
ts not following for n=1 rite
The form they gave you is a red herring
how do i catch that
it dosent follow for n=1 tho right
cuz we get 2.0
i cant find it online
Yeah that’s why I mentioned what I did above
Albeit a bit tersely since I was just waiting for my turn in the checkout line lol
Start it at n=2 
😮
but gng how do i think of smth like that
so in this form how will the eq be represented
a = n(1+n) and b = n(1-n)
wow
idk if it telescopes but it does something, at least...
how did u get ts can u tell a lil
i looked at this and tried to match it to the arctan formula
no
you have to factor it differently
n(n-1) one
yeah
^
ye mb
elite knowledge req for ts
so this ones done
theres another one tricky one
nvm ill do it
gng help with ts one pls 😭
how do u finish it though?
Do you need to show the work?
then we see that the -ve and +ve terms cancel each other out
Or you can just take the double coinflip odds
then we can see that only the 1st term and last term remain
Can you just make an educated guess?
on what
On these exercises
So you can just guess
but -ve marking
What?
the ans is scuffed between very similar options so we ususally needa so it 100%
if u get it wrong theres -ve marking in the test for every wrong answer
Is this practice for competition math?
ye
oh you use the fact that arctan is an odd function, right?
u mean -f(x) = f(-x)
yeah
ye we js needa put it in a way everything gets slimed
Isn't it just comparing n^n + n and (n+1)^2 - (n+1)
wait
i got pi/2 - arctan(2)
yes not we use arctanx + arccotx = pi/2
so arc cotx = pi/2 - arctanx
so we get cot2
arc cot2
i see
angle difference formula + some cancellation gives (1 - cos alpha) / (1 + cos alpha)
i don't have all these formulas memorized
i guess i need half angle formulas next
It's pretty much the tan^2 half angle I think
yeah you're right
to cancel a trig function composed with an inverse trig function (or vice versa) you can draw a triangle and label it
can u show za working
how did u arrive
i triedts
i got stuck wih sinx = cosa -1/(cos^2 a +1)
you must have made a mistake
i think they meant that (1 - cos alpha) / (1 + cos alpha) is the square of tan(alpha / 2)
Ya. I didn't work out the rest. The fact that it was so nicely the half angle leads me to believe it is correct
I was wondering if you could "solve" this question just by picking a nice value of alpha as well
If there's a singular value of alpha that works doing that could be quicker on the real thing...
oh sorry i used x when i should have used a
that would be nice
arccot x + arctan x = pi/2 for x>0 
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Test
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I don't understand this solution, can someone explain it to me?
time to break it down
hold on
it's written somewhat unclearly, i'll tell you that.
the meat of it seems to be about (I)
(I) says: [for all n ∈ Z, f(n) is an integer] <=> [f(-1), f(0), f(1) all integers]
in this biconditional, the => implication is quite obvious, so the <= direction is of interest.
that make sense so far? @hoary hamlet
yeah i got it
you got it in that you dont need any more help?
ok
so then they do some algebra
f(-1) = a-b+c
f(1) = a+b+c
f(0) = c
so $c$ is an integer and thus so are $a\pm b$
Ann
therefore, they say, 2a and 2b are also integers.
follows directly from it yes
so if a +- b are integers, then f(-1) + f(1) is also an integer
then they find that 2a and 2b are also integers from that
yes
so then they say that a and b are either integers or half-integers, but that they must be of the same type
(i.e. we can't have a half integer and b integer, or vice versa -- this would make a+b also a half-integer, which we can't have)
okay that makes sense too
if a and b are integers then everything is obviously good to go since an^2 + bn + c will always be an integer
thus they examine the other case: a and b both half-integers
and they prove that in fact f(n) will still be an integer even under that condition, with some algebra
starting with a = a'/2 and b = b'/2
okay..
further case breakdown based on the parity of n
ah okay so they factor out the half and consider even and odd cases
that makes sense
the proof of statement 2 and 3 are still not making sense to me though
and furthermore
i dont see how i couldve ever derived this in the actual exam
statement 2 piggybacks on the stuff derived in 1
namely that it is very much possible to have f(n) integer for all n but without the coeffs being integer themselves
as a concrete example: f(n) = (n^2+n)/2 is the function giving the n'th triangular number
thus statement 2, which says [for all n ∈ Z, f(n) is an integer] <=> [a, b, c all integers], is false
oh and we disproved this through the a/2 and b/2 cases?
...yes
ominous how
its like uncertain
the solution for 3 says that 3 is actually just a dressed-up version of 1
translated back to 1 via g(x) := f(y+x)
y being a fixed real
oh that makes sense
alrighty thanks for the explanation
what would be the thought process behind this question?
for example i wouldnt even know where to start other than visualising a graph
and since this is an algebraic approach, what would give it away to think algebraically rather than visually (graphically)
@hoary hamlet Has your question been resolved?
the whole thing with worrying about integers
that doesnt usually lend itself to geometry that well IME
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I tried to write each in the formula form and got an infinite sum that didn’t diverge
What is your question exactly
didn't diverge?
so, your infinite sum converged?
@maiden burrow can you show your work
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someone can help me with this?
How to answer this
Learn how to add 2-digit numbers by writing the numbers in expanded form. Peck shows a visual example with base 10 blocks. Adding with expanded form allows kids to understand addition conceptually and improves mental math skills.
Visit us at https://www.khankids.org to learn more about Khan Academy Kids, a free educational app for preschool thr...
thanks friend
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in the forward direction would it suffice to show if x is in only one subspace, and y is only in another, the only way x+y is in the union is if it is in the third, so x and y must be in the third and so the third subspace must contain the other two
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.hi
do you still need help
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okay
to be clear i am bad at linear algebra so
i was just checking in
i probably cant help you very much
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mb
ah
this makes sense
you can only reopen your own channel
only helpfuls and up can reopen other ppls channels
👍
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In the first two lines they are saying subset...but third line they said subgroup why?
it's just saying only when H is a subgroup do we call it a coset
when H is subset, we define aH to be {this thing} and we do not call this anything special
when H is subgroup, we define aH to be {same thing} but we now also call it a left coset
what is the question
When elements are coming from the subgroup
still unclear on your question
I wanted to know when we are taking elements from subgroup what effects it make
a subgroup is a special kind of subset
where the subset itself is also a group
consider, say
G = Z
And what does this mean?
2Z is a subset of Z
it is also a subgroup of Z because 2Z is a group under addition
meanwhile {1, 2} is a subset of Z
it is not a subgroup of Z because {1, 2} is not closed under addition, nor does it have an identity, etc.
It's not a group
yes
.
exactly as they define it there
${aha^{-1} \mid h \in H}$
c9
the definition is the same for subsets H and subgroups H
are you asking why this isn't just H
this is not H sometimes when G and H are nonabelian
i would bet your book will probably go into what you'll use aHa^{-1} for later
considering it seems they just defined it
but like just know that aHa^{-1} is not H in certain instances
this construction leads to certain nice properties and is interesting to consider
What does this operation even mean?
.
specificially when talking about normal subgroups
so i would just recommend to continue reading
because they're probably not going to define it and not come back to it
happy learning!
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A 23 x 23 square is to be completely tiled by 1 x 1, 2 x 2, and 3 x 3 tiles. What is the minimum number of 1 x 1 tiles needed?
I have shown that u cant cover the square using 3x3 and 2x2 tiles alone
so for now u need atleast one 1x1 tile
ive been drawing and placing tiles here and there to find an example
is there a better way to do this than just trial and error?
i can't imagine needing more than one tbh
i have not done the problem but i would start with something "trial and error"-like
like just try to do the best you can to start
you would at minimum like to use 2x2s and 3x3s to tile end-to-end 23
so you want like
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2
or 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2
or 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
or 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
i think the way i would approach it assuming you dont want to do trial and error
you definitely won't need more than a few. can you do it with 1? in that case you're done. can you do it with 2? in that case can you prove you can't do it with 1?
is start with the area of the 23x23 square and color code it into 2 colors like a chess/checker board
you have 1x1, 2x2, 3x3, of which only the 2x2 covers an equal number of both colors
yep thats the gameplan
that would be mine too
you can do it with 2
it was a headache to prove u need atleast 1
oh wait is this a mod problem?
it is pretty easy to do it with 2
this should be checkable using mod
i think
the approach is to stack 3x3s onto one row
this has a remainder of 2 tiles
which you can fill using a 2x2 and 2 1x1
i checked with mod and i got just 1 1x1
hm
if you set up a checkerboard on your 23x23 grid
you'll got 1 extra white or black depending on how you order it
im imagining a construction where the center is a 1x1 and it's surrounded by 4 2x2s?
a 1x1 and 3x3 square cover exactly 1 more square of a color compared to the other
while a 2x2 covers an equal amount
so you should get an expression of a+b=1 (mod 2)
where a and b are # of 3x3 and 1x1 tiles respectively
meaning you have an odd number of 3x3 + 1x1 tiles
wait i think OP already proved that you need >= 1 1x1
i think they're asking if 1 is sufficient
then you can do 23 mod (3)
i.e. if there exists a construction
oh wait mb theyre asking abt constructability 😭
all good
hmm let me draw this and see if i can make it make sense
ok well i managed to construct one with only one 1x1
but i have no idea how you do this in a real way
that does not involve drawing boxes for 7 minutes
well i realized the 7x7 of 3x3 does not work
im decently certain that to prove sufficiency you have to provide a construction so
idk
i think if you know you have to use 1 you have to start with 529-1=528
you have to have an even number of 3x3 grids
my idiot construction
(the other side can be mirrored over)
(180 degree rotational symmetry)
i feel like the way im solving this is kind just mashing logic with trial and error tbh
yh i found one too
actually wait theres 90 degree rotational symmetry
(this is the top right corner of the 23x23)
you can just rotate this 4 times
about the center 1x1
hmmm
induction maybe?
no weve solved the problem its 1
actually nvm if you need atleast 1 then induction shouldnt* work
oh wait fuck why did i think it was generalizing it for nxn squares lmao
hmmm maybe the best move is to memorize for 17x17 and try to get it to 17x17 💯
gimmick course
.close
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I'm trying to prove this converges. Want to know if this reasoning is solid
Define $a_n = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{2^n}& \text{ n is odd } \ 0 & \text{ otherwise} \end{cases}; b_{n}= \begin{cases} 0 & \text { n is odd} \ \frac{1}{3^n} & \text { n is even } \end{cases}$.
Then as each individual series converges, and the sum is exactly this series, the original series converges too.
some missed backslashes in the tex
anyway formally speaking you didnt define a_n and b_n correctly
though once that's fixed, yes, you can say that the sum of convergent series is convergent.
wai
oops
right
if i remember correctly, $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^i}$ converges and so does $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{3^i}$, so the sum converges
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
im not 100% sure that interleaving any two convergent series is gonna give you sth convergent.
It has to be absolutely converging
it works for sure when the series you're interleaving are each absolutely convergent (and these geometric ones are)
but i cant think of a CE with one or both of them conditionally convergent
(-1)^n/sqrt(n) or something like this should work as a CE
Use (1+/-(-1)^n)/2
why even defining an and bn ?
exactly
rearrangements don't work for infinite series always
$a_{2k-1} = \frac{1}{2^k}; a_{2k} = 0$ and $b_{2k-1} = 0; b_{2k} = \frac{1}{3^k}$.
Ann
this is how i would define these series
(-1)^n/sqrt(n) interleaved with what
Lot easier would be to just compare with sum 1/(1.5)^n
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doesnt wai's logic suffice for the general proof?
you can also compare to ∑ (5/6)^i
or are you looking at general cases of interleaving where its just not odd and even placement
Actually 1/2+1/3+1/2^2+1/3^2+1/2^3+1/3^3+… <=1/2+1/2+1/2^2+1/2^2+1/2^3+1/2^3… works to me
Just separate out the series
½+½^2+½^3....
+
⅓+⅓^2....
this is hard to justify
This is logically invalid
We're trying to find the value of this right?
i believe that if you say that this is a sum of positive terms series then it works
proving the convergence yes
So you're saying we can't just separate out the geometric progressions?
Well, we haven't proven convergence
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✅ Original question: #help-49 message
if y'all gonna keep yapping
Thanks
you cant always say that the sum of 2 convergent series is a convergent series
you can actually
i mean the series of the sum of principal terms
Damn this is news to me
sorry im french
Don't be sorry
like sum u_n + sum v_n converges is not equivalent to sum (u_n + v_n) converges
nobody said it is equivalent
but sum u_n convergent & sum v_n convergent does IMPLY sum (u_n + v_n) convergent
Its basically zeta(2) + zeta(3) so it converges
yaku its a suite géometrique...
Hi
oh yes sorry i got confused
But in the question we're solving I can see that:
sum u_n + sum v_n = sum (u_n + v_n)
I'm speaking for our particular question only
yes you can say that
in that case
So if I separate out both series and then find value of both series and then add the value then wouldn't that be considered as the original series is convergent
Because that addition of values of both series would be equal to thevalue of original series
yes, its just that you cant go the other way
What do you mean by the other way
you cant prove that Σ u_n + Σ v_n converges by saying that Σ u_n + v_n converges
Σ (a_n+b_n) -> L
Thus sum of previous 2k terms <L+1, sum of previous 2k+1 terms also < L+1 because a_n<1
Moronically increasing and having an upper bound L+1
this is just the fact that ∑ 1 + Σ -1 diverges but Σ 1 + (-1) = Σ 0 converges
This is because it's infinity - infinity
yes
But if it's nothing indeterminate then we should be safe
Safe to say Σ u_n + Σ v_n = Σ u_n + v_n
It should always be equal as long as the range of n is the same
As per my understanding
Same as this
#help-49 message
Any number lesser than or equal 2 greater than 1 will work for comparison
Yeah, any sequence of the form =r mod m terms sits a convergent sequence a_r_n: n works by the same logic
Upper bound L_1+…+L_m + mC for some constant C
I think we're done
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Prove that abscissa of a point P which is equidistant from points with coordinates A(7, 1) and B(3, 5) is 2 more than its ordinate.
Can you use midpoint formula here; if not, why? Every site online gets the ans by distance formula
there isn't only a single point that is equidistant from both the points
(5,3)?
hmm okai thx
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.you use the distance formula because it gives you an equation, and all the points satisfying that equation are equidistant from the two points you have
in this case you would get x-y=2 and you can see (5,3) works for this
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So munkres defines locaclly connectedness at a point x in the following way: for every open set U containing x, there exists a connected open set contained in U which also contains x. And weakly locally connectedness at x in the following way: for every open set U containing x, there exists a connected subspace contained in U which contains an open set containing x.
First question: is the open set in the weakly locally connected case supposed to be open w.r.t. to the whole space? (since it being open w.r.t. the subspace doesnt make it interesting (take the singleton x as subspace))
Second question: if this is the case, then what is the difference between these two concepts since one could just take the open set (w.r.t. the whole space) contained in the connected subspace (weakly locally connected at x) as the connected open set in the locally connected definition making the two definitions equivalent (not only in the whole space case, but also for every single point).
if I understood correctly from my own studies, yes to the first, and to the second, consider that the interior of a connected set need not be connected.
this question could be a good example.
(I am still learning and thus may be wrong though, so I'd advise you to wait for second opinions!)
What I mean is following: If X is weakly locally connected at x, then for every open set U containing x, there is a subspace which contains an open connected set containing x. But this open connected set containing x is by definition also in the open set U, not really making the need for this extra step (the subspace) obvious to me. (which is probably also the place where my misunderstanding lies)
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1311.5122 end of page 3 makes the difference more obvious (metric spaces here only)
ill think about it
You said in the definition, there is no open connected subset, just an open subset of a connected subspace
Any x in open U there exist x in open V in connected H in U. No mentioning V is connected
ah
oh
yeah this is the reason
thank you
my misconception relied on me for some reason thinking that an open set of a connected set is connected (?)
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help
What have you tried?
i don't know how to start
Do you know the number of positive integral solutions to x1+x2+..+xn=m?
can I tell him how to start
aka do you know stars and bars/balls and urns/cookies and candy canes/whatever you call this thing
yeah i do
Try using that here.
ok
it's not the exact same thing with stars and bars
sticks and stones 😂
Sure, but the ideas are similar.
i will say that there is a solution without using stars and bars
stars and bars is probably a long way of doing it
it just added a restriction
there's a short way to do it
yeah I know
i think i would recommend trying to do the short way
yeah ^
Beggars method :>
⁉️ wait ive never heard of this one
does it come from the version of the problem involving money
final form unlocked ahh
!?
Beggars and coins
we also call it the coin beggar method lmao

omg it's the wumpus man
Also gap method
can I ping 7
I want to know if he finished
bruh what
@mint ravine Did you finish the question
close to
ok nice
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56
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hello I'm stuck on the question at the bottom , I don't even know if it is true for any C^infty bounded function or that it is strongly linked to (E). I think the good way to solve this is to suppose these equalities and deduce the way a and b are written but i don't know how to do it
can't you just solve for a(x) and b(x) in terms of f(x) and f'(x)
yes this is the way I want to get the answer but I don't know how to do it
it's a two by two system of equations
A System of Equations is when we have two or more linear equations working together.
ok i'm blind , i missed this .................................
thank you mate
b(x)=f(x)sin(x)+f'(x)cos(x) / a(x) =f(x)cos(x)-f'(x)sin(x) ?
a,b are C^infty beacuse they are sum of C^infty functions and they are uniquely written
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claim
[
\textbf{Question:}\quad
\begin{vmatrix}
1 & 1 & 1 \[6pt]
(x-a)^2 & (x-b)^2 & (x-c)^2 \[10pt]
(x-b)(x-c) & (x-c)(x-a) & (x-a)(x-b)
\end{vmatrix}
= 0
]
[
\begin{array}{ll}
\text{(A)} & a + b + c = 0 \[6pt]
\text{(B)} & x = \dfrac{a + b + c}{3} \[6pt]
\text{(C)} & x = \dfrac{a + b + c}{2} \[6pt]
\text{(D)} & x = a + b + c
\end{array}
]
oppenheimer
it's not bad to expand the determinant
can we do without
idk actually
multiply (x-a), (x-b) and (x-c) onto each column and balance by multiplying $\frac{1}{(x-a)(x-b)(x-c)}$ outside
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holy shit
stay tuned for funny determinant tricks
fr
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,tex
hello. suppose we have two sequences, that are both strictly decreasing and convergent to some number each, not necessarily the same. is it true that the supremum and infimum of the set, A, containing the numbers given by the addition of those two sequences, say $ a_n + b_m $, are sup(A)= $$ \sup(a_n) + \sup(b_m) , \inf(A) = \inf(a_n) + \inf(b_m) $$ ? If so, how do we prove it? If the proof is long i can accept a source that shows it proven there
ok so first we can forget the word sequence
fijokazż
cause you are just treating them as sets anyway
alright
and given two sets X,Y, it does indeed hold that sup(X+Y)=sup(X)+sup(Y)
same for inf
what do you mean by X+Y?
you can google for "sup of sum of sets"
exactly what you are doing. all sums of two elements from X and Y
oke i see
so by showing that we can just sub a sequence?
i'll try it out it seems fair
anyway thanks i got it
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hi there. this is my proof of sup(A+B) = supA + supB. is it correct? at the end i arrived at a contradiction, and i only have left to say that supC = supA +supB. Also, ignore the thing in the box
just the last two lines need checking actually
wait i suddenly felt a wave of stupidity hit me
ill work on it some more
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hello just wondering chatgpt is telling me teta + alpha is 90 degrees here why ?
mhm
Is this related to biot savart?
yea
Ic
is it related to complemntary angles?
Sum of angles of a triangle
Idts complementary
Lemme see
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Aight, were they?
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$\int \frac{3-t^2}{(3+t^2)^2} dt$
answer doesnt look that bad but i have no clue how to reach
kinda looks like quotient rule
or you could go the normal way and split the fractions & integrate term by term
yep, it is a simple quotient rule
well yeah but how would i figure the numerator even if i figured it was quotient rule
well if we call v := 3+t^2 (NOT a substitution, just algebraic playing-around)
well, we would know g for sure
if i assume u = kt and pray
yyeah i think thats the best i can do
thanks
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<@&268886789983436800>
slightly more generally, you could assume that its a low degree polynom
that'd work more often
the low-degree comes from the fact that the RHS is 2nd degree
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<@&268886789983436800>
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any mistakes here?
there is a mistake in the 3rd line
no
given a complex number z=x+iy with x,y in R, the conjugate \bar{z} of z is given by \bar{z}=x-iy
here x=-1/2 and y=1
like this right?
uhh yea?
,w 1/(-1/2 + i)
,w ((-1/2)-i)/(5/4)
so the conjugate of -1/2+i is -1/2-i (which is the same as you wrote in the pic) and not 1/2+i which you suggested later
where did i suggest that?
ah i thought this was you suggesting that
mb lol
yea then this is correct
owh wtf wolfam can do that?
,w (-1/2+i)^6 * ( 1/2 + i+ 1/(-1/2+i))^6
something to note which may not be much helpful tho tbh, you couldve rewritten -1/2+i as 1/2-i and then you would be multiplying conjugates together
tho its the same thing at the end of the day
you can do this since you are working with an even power of -1/2+i
but yea its not a very important note, you can forget about it if you want 
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Let PQR be a triangle, and let S,V be points on side PR and RQ respectively. Let QS intersect PV at T. The segments RT and SV intersects at U. Suppose that the areas of the triangles RST, RTV, RSV are 55, 66 ,77 respectively. What is the area of PQU?
I only have ideas on cevas theorem on T relative to RSV but i dont really have anything that relates the areas T-T
@chilly cobalt Has your question been resolved?
^
so not really anything
cause cevas we get RQ/QV x VU/US x PS/RP = 1
This's not an olympiad like geo problem, is it?
its not
Yeah so you probably won't need Ceva's here
its entrance exam prep so i dont think the solution is too out of this world
Let TVQ=x and ST/SQ=m
Make a system of equation with these 2 terms
using ratios between 2 triangles
Like ||m(x+121)=55||
I mean you don't have to relate x to PVQ to find x and m
m = 44/(44+x) too right?
yeah that looks right
yeah thats what i was doing with cevas😭
x = 264
and m = 1/7
I haven't checked but tbh I trust an olympiad person than myself so I'll assume it's right
i suck at addition mb😭
Oh okay
on SVQ?
I mean you can see how we can find PS/PR using menelaus
hmm
we could use vector
i think i got the sol
greatt!
oh wiat
i looked at the wrong thing mb 😭
i have the areas for PST and PTQ though
yeah we can't get around this
We would have to find SU/SV eventually
my ceva idea works
I dunno lol I haven't done any calculation
subtract the big triangle by 2 smal ones
how would i find the area 😭
hi 
Okay so PRQ-RSV-UVQ-PSU
entrance exam of doom and despair
We can relate QUV to QSV using that ratio
RSV can be easily found
we can relate PSU to PSV to PRV to the big one

Yeah I would crash out if this appear on my exam
Actually
It does
But not this tedious
There might be a better way
But I'm certain that you would have to find SU/UV anyway
and some other ratios
Nah it's okay, what's the exam date
It's more than 2 months from now it's alright
This month?
yeah

top 600 -> 240 to qualify for the school
anyways i think i have the solution now, thanks!
How many % is that
Okee
like half half approx
but like 30k people applied this year
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cldnt quite get this
Do you have thte answer key?
the way it's laid out in this particular freeze-frame of the video is kinda confusing @vagrant warren
but let's say this: if a was replaced with a number, say -10, would you know how to begin solving the equation?
I'm guessing they're trying to make x²-x+a have exactly one zero so while completing the square they choose a=0.25 to make the root 0
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✅ Original question: #help-49 message
yes i do
Whats the ans so i can confirm before helping😭
yes
ok right
c
so you know that the left bracket always gives you x=a as a solution
thats true no matter the value of a
Yes
the right bracket can give you:
a) 0 solutions if D < 0
b) 1 solution if D = 0
c) 2 solutions if D > 0
before accounting for a possible collision with x=a
do you follow thus far? i have more to say immediately after this.
yes
ok so let's work out the collisions first
in other words, when (for what value/values of a) is x=a a solution of x^2 - x + a = 0?
its 1/4
what's "it"
a=1/4
the answer to my question, which i asked just now, is not a = 1/4
when det = 0
that's not what i asked
yes
which simplifies to a^2 = 0, meaning a = 0 is the only value of a that would give us a collision.
and i find the values of a which are, a=0 and a=1
keep that in mind for later.
can you like not jump ahead of me
thats incorrect
ok
this. stop for 10 seconds and read this. do you understand this. yes or no.
Only one soln for the given
what i'm calling a collision here is a value of x arising from both factors at once
it still counts as only one solution, and since we're interested in the solution count, that matters for us
ok i see
ok, right.
so now let me bring back the case breakdown from before.
the right bracket can give you:
a) 0 solutions if D < 0
b) 1 solution if D = 0
c) 2 solutions if D > 0
a collision will happen if a = 0. if it does, the solution count will be reduced by 1.
case (a) gives us 1 solution in total, which is less than the 2 we want. so we don't want case (a), ever.
What is the question?
see pinned msg
case (b) gives us 2 solutions in total. let's work out the value of a that makes case b happen.
D = 1 - 4a = 0 gives a = 1/4. no collision.
yes
(also, discriminant not determinant. similar words, completely different meanings.)
ok
my fault fp3 stuck in my head
case (c) gives us 3 solutions in total, which is too many unless a collision knocks us down to 2.
yes
yes
is that it?
not trynna be rude or anything
so thats how we get
C
so we find out if we ever get repeated solutions and that can be seen when (x-a) is a fator of x^2 -x +a
and that occours when a=0
so a solution occours when x=a
and we see when right hand bracket discriminant =0
the final answer is a ∈ {0, 1/4}
so we get 2 solutions from
and then we see
when disciminant is greather than 0
but since left hand bracket is always a solution
we need right hand bracket to collide
hence a repeated root
so
a=0
in that case
i see
thats gna be kinda hard to workout
i was thinking abt that
but i wasnt able to do it
i never got the a=0
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hi there. I just happened upon this statement in a help channel, and while it makes sense, idk how we can justify it rigorously. is there a rigorous proof of the "equality"?
diamond$ds sqrt{2n+1} sim sqrt{2n} \q text{means} \q lim_{n to oo} fr{sqrt{2n+1}}{sqrt{2n}} = 1$
Oléagineux Distilliànus VIVII
the rigorous version is usually phrased as an asymptotic equivalence
oh i see now
okay thats good enough, ill also go look up that asymptotic thingy
thanks cooly
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Hi guys
Was wondering if maths for me or not
Really love doing it but it doesn't love me back
Till high school i was very good in it. Scored 100/100 in exams while completing 2.5h paper in 1.3 hours. But faced miserable downfall after then. Want to restart, idk from where
I've realised that I can't achieve success in life while hating maths
u can bring your blues to the discussion channels bud
Sorry I'm new, do we have a general chat here
ill ping ya
didn't you become green a few weeks ago
Also #study-discussion
When am I supposed to use this channel
Nahh
If you have a specific math problem you need help w
You're not supposed to use this one, it's occupied
Okayy
-# still hvnt read ur soln btw fionna :>
My bad
Available one is like what cherry said
I must have been mistaken then
why did blud @vale zephyr 👍 this like blud did something
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.
.
<@&268886789983436800> scam
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what is the inscribed angle theorem
inscribed angle is 1/2 the central angle


why do I feel like Menelaus' theorem is gonna pop up here