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https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/314087/why-is-normal-force-zero-at-the-top-of-a-circle . For this I see that we can decrease the value of f by decreasing the inputs. And then if we decrease the inputs x,y the gradient would get smaller. However, The gradient we start off with is $-\nabla f(x,y)$ since we want it to maintain our constraint and keep the object not going through the radius. Now if we wanted this gradient to be positive we would need to change the inputs such that the gradient itself is negative so that after applying the negative it becomes positive. So this can only happen if both inputs are in the 3rd quardrant. But the object could have falllen off the radius if both inputs are negative. And for the second part how does making the radius bigger affect if the gradient will be positive. We already showed it is possible with the current radius.
BigBen
@sand flume Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
ts physics
@sand flume Has your question been resolved?
@sand flume Has your question been resolved?
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my status is that I don't see how the object wont fall off when the gradient is positive and I don't see how radius plays a role
so the car has an initial velocity but no acceleration right, so the only force is gravity, and well the normal force of the track
@sand flume you here?
Yes
you said you dont know how radius plays a role
can you intuitively grasp how a large enough radius would mean the car never reaches the top?
It doesn't have enough velocity
velocity is a vector, but "doesnt have enough" only describes magnitudes, you mean speed (or specify its the initial velocity, the direction of which is predetermined)
Ok
also, youre not allowed to modify the initial velocity
youre only allowed to modify the radius
so you can "speed" the car up by shrinking the radius
you can "slow" the car down by growing the radius
does that make sense?
its a yes or no question, its just a step you have to answer before I can continue
No
Ill let you in on a secret, neither answer would have changed what I was going to say next
you need to be faster with your responses
lets say we have a scenario like this
now we would expect the car did not have enough velocity to start with,
but lets try and reframe this to "the radius is too large"
first is the shape of the path the car has taken
I drew the bounce for dramatic effect, but really we only need to focus on two parts of it:
Ok
the part where it's on the track
the part where it's off the track
on the track, the path is a circle
off the track, the path is a parabola
does this make sense
Yes
now consider the centripetal force when the car is on the track
we know the car has to slow down on the track
however, the track is frictionless, so what slows the car down?
R
...R?
radius
thats a strange way of thinking
remember, we are doing a physics problem
presumably a force or acceleration would slow the car down instead
Gravity sorry
pay closer attention to your causes and effects
you just said earlier you didnt fully crasp how r (which is lowercase, not uppercase) would do the same things as changing the initial velocity
dont attribute things to r for now then, we can prove that it will have similar effects
we can have r be fixed
then vary the initial velocity
we'll start with that
good to know, but lets try and get some numbers down
since gravity is the only force slowing the car down, we can consider potential energy
until the car hits the ground, we can assume the car and the track are a closed system, with PE being how much energy gets transferred to the car's height instead of the car's speed
Ok
now at point 1, what energy does the car have?
All kinetic
yep
now we know the car eventually leaves the track
at point 2, what is the centripetal force?
0
thats good
now centripetal force is mv^2/r
since the centripetal force of the car is 0, mv^2/r no longer applies
now lets look at a moment just before that
what do you think the velocity of the car would be?
Something very small
No
but it's still moving up in the picture!
remember that when the centripetal force no longer applies, neither does this law
there might still be some leftover KE
hold on
what am I on about
I gotta be sure about this
Wait how can that be? If there is no centripetal force no velocity
the velocity is definitely continuous, so thats gotta be the case
let me redraw the picture to be less crazy
good point 🤔
?
I dont think I can really model the car now
Im sure the parabola path is still correct, because the velocity still has to be continuous, and gravity cant affect the horizontal speed
none of these need to be considered if the car's point 2 happens to be at the top of the loop:
lets look there then instead
Ok
the key idea here is that, as before, we know the path eventually transitions to a parabola
theres no upward velocity this time to worry about, any possible acceleration that wouldve pushed it up would be counteracted by the normal force of the track
this means the velocity is purely horizontal
Wait how is there normal force? Because the whole reason I why trying to read that stack exchange post is to understand why normal force is 0 at the top of tracks in circular motion
you can see we are considering three different paths
one of them has a normal force
Ok
now before we get to that,
I want to make sure you can get the geometry here
when the ball reaches the top of the track, theres three possible kinds of parabolas the ball might take
ball?
now see here that the parabola either is always above the circle, or intersects with it
Ok
however, in the middle, the parabola also does not intersct the circle either
if I were to change how much the parabola slopes down any further, it would intersect
Ok
the topmost parabola is the second picture
anything below that would be the third picture
now the ball can take any of these three cases I showed
Ok
but notice that, in the second case, or 'boundary' where the ball would do this, the ball would still remain on the track
do you see why thats the case?
Yes because the two graphs are extremely close
these graphs are close too, you dont mean "close" here
Or they are the same for a bit of time
its more that the parabola path would rise above the circle
because of that, if the car takes that path,
it would go through the track
the track's normal force isnt going to allow that
since the car is going into the track, that would mean theres a force from the car to the track
the track in turn pushes back on the car, this normal force is called centripetal force
thats why it always faces inwards
but its not like centripetal force can do anything other than push straight down, just like gravity does
it doesnt stop the velocity of the car from pointing it into the track again, not enough that is
as a result, the car remains on the track
Wait didn't we see that on picture two it is on the track?
look at this part of it
the part where x < 0
the parabola is above the circle
all parabolas as drawn already intersect with the circle at (0, 1)
in the third case, it would mean it starts below the circle then intersects it
I don't understand this then
is the parabola ever below the circle in the second case?
No
when the car eventually loses grip with the track,
it should take the parabolic path instead of the circular one, right?
Yes
so the car has to go take the parabolic path and... go through the track and outside it?
How can the car go through the track if the parabola intersects it only at a point
you do know what going through means here right
here, the car remains in the inner hole
everywhere shaded is outside the track
even if you assume the car has a nonzero radius,
that parabola is still going to go right through the circle
any path that goes from the inside to the outside goes through the circle
so both parabolas here go through the track
I don't see that if the red circle is the track. The blue parabola is the path of the car
look at this
see the path of the car beforehand?
the right half of the red circle is part of the path of the car
following that, the left half of the parabola is the other part of the path of the car
of course it would look something like:
this would be an example of case 3 where the car ends up falling off early
but give more velocity to the car, and this is case 1, where the car would end up going through the track
it eventually intersects
now consider a case like this
do you think this is case 1 or case 2?
as a hint, Ive drawn a black circle on top of the red dashed path
Case 2
Yes
so in case 2,
the actual path of the car,
would following the path of the parabola mean the car goes through the track?
Yes
Blue
youre saying in a realistic case 2, the car would go through the track?
Look from what I see is that dotted circle makes the path the car needs to travel to be in the track. If it goes on the blue it exists it
It's the middle one here
:) no it isnt
thats case 3
you can see it falls down far more than it should
case 2 is really hard to draw, so I had to get the desmos graphing calculator to draw it
also, any one of those parabolas are blue paths, you know that
what happened to these three images earlier?
the moment the car switches to the blue path, what is the relationship between the car and the track?
The car won't be on the track?
youre mistaking velocity and acceleration now
the car is still very much on the track, so much its trying to going right through it
we would have to remove a lot of velocity for the hypothetical case 3 where the car falls right off
the blue path happens the moment the car loses grip with the track, as I said earlier
that happens if for example gravity has removed so much velocity from the car that there isnt enough centripetal acceleration to keep the car pushed up on the track
but as seen in the picture, a lack of a push still allows the car to remain on the track anyway
heres another example of a potential case 3
if this case is correct,
the car first begins on the red path
then at the blue path, it loses grip and begins to fall off the track
it then hits the wall and stays on the track again
maybe it wouldve bounced down the track, maybe it wouldve stayed on it after that
but we know for sure it isnt going to go through it
if the case 3 is close enough to a case 2, the car never slips out of the side of the loop
regardless, that case 3 would still be a car that begins and ends... on the track
we usually dont consider this because we're only focused on this point here
but its a undeniable possibility
if youve driven a car before and theres a dent in the road that makes you feel like falling, youd remember the moment you know the dent ends by the car forcibly being pushed up
case 3 here would be a similar example of that
case 2 and case 1 are examples where the car always remains on the track at all times
even if there isnt a force to keep it on the track
there still is enough velocity for it to head into more track that would then keep it on the track
So your saying that the car follows the blue position till it hits green then goes back to green?
if we have a case 3 where the blue parabola isnt sloping down that much, the car is still centered on the road, so itll just hit the loop again
this is opposed to the idea that it will never hit the loop again
it may be possible that the actual path may look instead like this
But this only happens because we say that it follows the blue path for a certain amount of time and then goes back to the green which is the path it needs to traverse the track
you dont seem to let me finish
Sorry
here, the car continuously falls down on the road
this is also a hypothetical possibility, as with anything about case 3
maybe it stays on the green path, maybe it doesnt
Isn't the green path the path of the track?
what, is the green path not on the track now?
Im not a perfect drawer you know
do you need the paths to be dashed?
I dont think you have enough material to even ask a question by this point
given all the recent questions you ask just chalk up to "I dont think these two connecting pieces connect, but I wont elaborate more on it"
what do you even mean by a question like this? a green path has always been the path of a car on the track, it must follow the path of the track
I was saying that it was the track
the car didnt have velocity to stay on the track, when it bounces off the road its not like its going to remain on it
itll have to stay on the track eventually
as communicated by the picture, with the 3 blue parabolas followed by the green arc
you sound very lost
we can vc and get this explained faster
you dont seem open to texting the questions
ok
well?
@sand flume Has your question been resolved?
.close we worked it out by making a model of the car's FBD in desmos among other clarifications
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I would like help with the first part please
Let $j+I \in J/I$ and $r+I \in R/I$. Then $(j+I)(r+I)= jr+I$.
wai
Does your result live in the set of J/I
no
R/I->R/J; x+I |-> x+J is surjective and calculate its kernel
Please don't just give me the answer 😭
I thought it was a hint
What do you conclude
I thought of this correctly just 5 minutes ago , and then when I started writing that ida left me 😭
J/I is a left ideal of R/I
Just a left ideal?
Simiilarly a right ideal too
But I had already made an attempt 😭
lemme think of an iso then
This kernel should be straightforward, obstacle where
You gotta show the map is a homomorphism as well
no, no. I'm trying to come up with an isomorphism b/w (R/I)/(J/I)and R/J
If you calculate the kernel you can just apply the first iso theorem
Yea, I realised that. But I was wondering if there's another iso here
That isomorphism is induced from the surjective homomorphism R/I --> R/J
That will teach me something too
I guess I'll think about this for a while
thanks!
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$\overrightarrow{r}= \Lambda \overrightarrow{a} + \mu \overrightarrow{b}$
Prathmesh
and then I did $(\overrightarrow{r}= \Lambda \overrightarrow{a} + \mu \overrightarrow{b}) \cdot \overrightarrow{a}$
Prathmesh
i got $2\Lambda + \mu = 0$
Prathmesh
how do I find another eqn in lambda and mu ?
Using the fact that c is unit vector a.k.a its magnitude is 1
ohh
but it will have terms like lambda^2 and mu^2 and lambda times mu
how will I solve it?
then what would you do?
μ=-2λ
1=(λa-2λb, λa-2λb)=((a,a)+4(b,b)-4(a,b))λ^2
Vector (axb)xa would be parallel to vector c
it would be in the plane of c vector. How is it parallel?
ohh I got it
He solved it by a^t (a b) (x,y)^t=((a,a), (a,b))(x,y)^t=0, which obtained him y=-2x
fun method: the new vector is perpendicular to both $\overrightarrow{a}$ and $\overrightarrow{a} \times \overrightarrow{b}$
wydm? it would be in the same plane as vector a,b and c
That's what I said
yea
so we dot with both the vectors ?
I love this method so much cuz in many calculators they can find cross product easily
?
nope
then?
we cross prod vector axb with a
and the the resultant vector would be parallel to c
I get it now
I am sorry I couldn't visualive it properly
I get it now
this method is more time efficient ig
thanks
took me 30s with a calculator, but you're not allowed to use one ig
noo 😭
but how do you calculate cross products in a calculator?
like is it a scientific calculator or sumthhing?
Many calculators, even from Casio, have a mode called vector in which you can type the vector out and it will do the cross prod for ya
yeah
ohh
which model?
This one and many more, you can even see the vector on the screen denote as mode 5
i see
are these calculators very useful for math students?
i always wanted one but feared if I'll get too dependent on calculations
I am to dependent on calculator
💀
Tbh, not really? but if the exam allows it and you don' have one you're basically cooked
In my country, we're allowed to use calculator and guess what
There're many books that write about How to use calculator effectively or solve extremely hard problem with calculator
Well hang on
@floral ruin Based on the formatting of the question you posted... Is this not the JEE?
it is
That's a non-calculator paper
yea
So you do need to be able to do these things by hand
I was just asking 😭
omg sure sure
go ahead
No, a "few choice words" means I have reservations, criticisms
I know cuz even I do
It doesn't actually imply I want to say anything right here
That said, basically it's far too much memorisation and not enough actual maths
It instills an incorrect mindset that "there is always a readily calculable answer"
like yeahhhhh finally it feels like I am not alone
It's why I'm glad I don't live in India, because I know I'd have to take that exam inevitably 
The latter years of your school stuff, though, sure, a calculator is useful
and they don't even go in depth. Like remember if you can and get the marks. Ykw? there is exact DE, clairauts equation in the syllabus but they have memorized us the formulaes like xdy + ydx = d(xy) and dozens of formulas under the name of exact DE
yea you are lucky
ohh i see. a good reason for me to buy it then.
Here that xdy one is a university-grade weapon of a DE tool
And that'd be part of a bigger question, typically in differential geometry, to my knowledge
...idk why diff geo specifically, but that's where I'd first seen it
I just want to say, mine is completely the opposite to the JEE, we don't have to remember anything 
But in the cost of many and many and many hard combinatorics problem
Nah as much as you trash on yours, that one is better imo
It actually requires mathematical thinking, not memorisation
ohh. I meant isn't the form of exact DE like dM/dx and dN/dy something which i can't type. But they don't teach it in that way. only formulaes
not really needing a calculator in this case
cross products arent that hard to find compared to some other demonic contraptions you have to simplify
agreed.
If you was talking about me, well it's not good for my grade 
time dilation
You can't try and expect to use techniques you've never seen before, so you need to work through examples, and also make sure you understand them
yeah, some weird ahh technique keep appear everytime I get a new kind of combinatorics problem
I wanna study abroad dawg
understanding is what i want. I hate chemistry and I always get cooked in the tests cuz of chemistry.
ref. the original problem, I'd imagine you want to check each given answer for c, such that
- it's some linear combo of a and b
- its dot product with a is 0
- it's a unit length (though with experience I can see that they're already all normalised)
I reckon the second one is easier to do first, and you might knock out some answers
my first method was this when I saw this question and each option goes well with the dot product
So then the first one is the main check
@floral ruin Has your question been resolved?
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Hint: riemann sums
hm..
For a decreasing function f, f(k+1)<=integration of f on [k, k+1] <=f(k). Now f(x)=x^-(1/2) is monotonically decreasing
k
The question asked for bound, no?
ty
Fuck
You kinda spoiled the whole thing there lol
You can approximate the sum by two integrals, though we usually leave this for the helpee to work out

I assumed he knows the anti derivative of x^-(1/2) already
coz it's from integration
Closed by @lilac finch
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The point was for the helpee to figure out that
1/sqrt(m)+1/sqrt(m+1)+...+1/sqrt(n)=1/sqrt(m)*(m+1-m)+1/sqrt(m+1) *(m+2-(m+1))+...
and figure out what function to integrate. They do most probably know the anti derivative
nvm guys
^
.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-49 message
new question
ik this would use some identity
nvm i figured
ts just 20Ck *1
.close
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
is that your work or somebody else's
yours isn't loading for me fsr
can you reupload this
keqae
the trouble with splitting as cos(2x)(1+tan(2x)) = 0 is that the points where cos(2x)=0 are precisely those where tan(2x) blows up to infty.
also 0 < x < pi not 0 < x < 2pi. if anything, 0 < 2x < 2pi is what you may have meant.
but anyway pi/4 and 3pi/4 are extraneous for the reason i outlined just now
that cleared a lot of things up
it would have been a lot easier if you had simply divided by cos(2x) to begin with
is it safe to rule out the cosx=0 case for any division for tanx?
yeah but i was scared i was going to miss sols
thats why i always opt for factorisation instead of dividing
before division by cos(2x), ask yourself what happens when cos(2x) is zero
then, for your question:
sin(2x) will be ±1 depending on x, but in no way is sin(2x)+cos(2x) going to be 0
actually "before dividing by foo, ask yourself what happens when foo = 0" works for division by ANYTHING
and in some cases the answer is "foo=0 can't happen, so N/A => proceed as normal"
so for this example what would your thought process be?
right here
yeah and then cos(2x) and sin(2x) can't be 0 at the same time now can they
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its x = 3pi/8 and 7pi/8 right? for the previous one?
Are you talking to me?
no no
Oh 😭
thank you, it's an a level question for maths
this is the answer
I just dont get why they used the sin^2y+cos^2y = 1 trig identity
oh it has to be open?
ideally yes
When will it open
no idea
Thank uuu
Alright thank you hanako
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g is inversely propotional to the square of d bwhen d is halved g is multiplied by a factor n
calculate n
what have you tried
how'd you come to the second line
D is halved not d^2?
also for the first you wouldn't use =
;(
I would use the inverse propotion but it's not in my keyboard
so how do I solve it
maybe let 1/d^2=kg instead
okay what's 1/d² if i substitute d/2
feel like that would help with the math a bit
instead of d
what's 1/(d/2)²
wdym?
why would I do this
well you have $\frac{1}{d^2}$
d is halved, and half of d is d/2
ye ik
Green
ye i stuck here
so instead of $\frac{1}{d^2}$ you now have $\frac{1}{\frac{d^2}{2}}$
Green
i mean that's what you did right?
😭
it can't be that bad
it's supposed to be $\frac{1}{\left\frac{d^}{2})\right ^2}$
Green
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why
instead of d you have to square d/2
the relation is that you square any given distance
d/2 represents a distance
so I square it every time or what
so you square it whole
what would you get if you simplify this
which is?
what is the relation between 1/d² and d/2
i dont think there is any
yep
so why did we square the d/2
if i give you some distance l, gn = 1/l²
in this case, l = d/2
so 1/l²=1/(d/2)²
so I square when it's inverse?
it's specified in the question that g is proportional to the inverse of the square of d, which is why we're squaring d
ye ik that's why we squared d
but why did we square the 2/d
d/2
so d is always squared?
yeah
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Really silly question. But here all $X_i$ have the same PDF , $f(x, \theta)$, right.
wai
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
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would 1 point be enough, being the turning point, since you get (-a/2, 3a^2+b/4), and can find a from x coordiante, then b from y coordinate?
no bc you then have to supply the info that it is in fact the turning pt
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any difference between this?
no, they're equivalent 
Someone was having a debate about this on one of the channels earlier
It comes down to a matter of intention and notation but in general sure
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you should always refer to your book to figure out what exactly they mean by some notation
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what have you tried so far? did you use the triangle congruences
use the given congruences to pin down which angles are equal
I did but wrong?
B=w
M=s
L=a
now do the same for the other two triangles
if you are assuming angle k as x then s should be x/2 according to the question
instead assuming s as x would be easier then k and b would be 2x
$\angle K = 2\angle S$ means $\angle S = \frac12 x$ not $2x$
Ann
seconding this
Ohh...silly mistake
Thanks ann
What next?
The given sum of angles?
2x+2x+x
5x?
yes that's right
4x=180
no
5x=180 so x is 36
in triangle bma
x+x/2+ angle a = x
Wait a second
I got x=72
yep
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I was thinking $\chi^2(10)$
wai
based on this formula
you’re right to think about the chi square
but i think since the terms are weighted differently, the distribution won’t be a simple χ^2(10)
I don't follow
like can't I treat 2X_1^2 as Y_1^2+Y_2^2 where Y_1=Y_2
you can’t treat $2X_1^2$ as $Y_1^2 + Y_2^2$ since $2X_1^2$ is scaled it doesn’t follow
anflo
okay, then how do I do this?
to get the distribution we would typically use moment generating functions (MGFs) to combine the terms properly
so MGF of the entire statistic?
yes exactly
wai
I can assume all RVs are indepndent, right
yes
hmm
I'm sort of confused
so I have $E[e^{2tX_1^2}] E[e^{3tX_2^2}]+ E[e^{X_3^2}]+E[e^{4X_4^2}]$?
wai
anflo
oops, missed a few "ts"
is this what you get
yes
I'm kind of confused of how to deal with the squares
Like is there any quick way
I could calculuate each one by hand but I'd really rather not
hmm try using the MGF $(1 - 2t)^{-1/2}$ for each squared term
anflo
wait, where did you get that
substituting the appropriate scaled $t$ (e.g., $4t$ for $2X_1^2$)
anflo
the mgf $(1 - 2t)^{-1/2}$ comes from the chi square distribution $\chi^2(1)$
anflo
wai
mhm!
hmm
okay
I seem to have forgotten how to find the PDF from the MGF sorry 😭
I think we normally just were told to recognize. it
to get the PDF we would normally take the inverse laplace transform of the mgf..
We haven't done laplace transforms ☠️
Unless I learnt it under some other name lemme check rq
def not done this
you can often recognize the mgf and directly match it to a known distribution
it can get tricky so its fine
In this case, it looks like the mgf corresponds to a generalized chi square distribution so the pdf follows that structure
how did you get that
the mgf is a product of terms like $(1 - kt)^{-1/2}$ which is typical for a generalized chi square distribution
anflo
coming from a weighted sum of chi square variables
okay I haven't done generalise chi square so guess I'll look into that
Thanks so much!
I guess this is $\chi^2_4$ then?
wai
no it's not exactly $\chi^2_4$
anflo
but you can look into generalized chi square distributions for a better understanding of how these weighted terms combine
Thanks
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claim
(-1)^n
Open parenthesis
yeah
Ann
ok
do you know how to sum $\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} k^p$ for $p=0,1,2,3$
Ann
no
oh wait maybe ik
for p=0 it is 2^n
yeah
then you can also do some generating function fuckery
get that (-1)^k by putting x=-1
was it differentiating?
idk generating function
fok
yes
hm.. maybe i remember we multiply (1+x)n by something then differentiate
can you tell the method in brief
@lyric charm
...
It's just differentiate binomial expansion of (x+1)^n
Do once and you get the case when p=1, multiply both sides by x and differentiate for the second time and you'll get the case p=2
You should have the answer after doing so
(a-k)(b-k)(c-k) expands to a cubic in k
hmm..
if you are ok waiting until i come home then i can show you the idea of my method more closely
cause rn i don't have paper
k
so at the end all summations would be 0?
hmm..
so for a p degree polynomial it is always zero for n> p?
maybe
oh wait yeah you have a point
this looks like the nth difference of the polynomial (a+t)(b+t)(c+t)
and n>3
so that kills it
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if E is euclidian , a,b,c in E such that a=/=b and |a-c|=|b-c| , I know that |c-(a+b)/2|<=|a-c| but how to prove that |c-(a+b)/2| =/= |a-c| ? I see it with a drawing but i can't write it properly, the proof should be short
how many times can a line intersect a circle?
If E is any euclidian space then geometric arguments will be hard to use
sure, just an idea
Have you seen cauchy schwarz?
maximum 2 times ?
yes we have
And so you've also seen its equality case
OOOHH I think I understand now
i'm writing soemthing
be a little more precise as to why lambda = 1, but it's the idea
even if it's one more line to write
by taking the norm we get |lambda| = 1 , we can't get lambda=-1 because <c-a,c-b> >=0 ?
even better... you have lambda >= 0 already?
yes i wasn't sure if i write it lambda in R or in R+
also, there's some small ground work to do to make sure (c-b) is not 0, otherwise you can't write linear dependence that way
but the rest is pretty trivial
oh your right, if c-b= 0 then |a-c|=|c-b| then a=b=c so c-b=/=0 so we can write this lambda now, thank you for your help 🙂
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what went wrong in part b
740g is definitely nowhere near 1960
i knew i did something wrong by that point
i have my answer to part a if it helps
but i doubt there were any errors that carried themselves over
because i am pretty sure i got full marks on part (a)
60g ≈ 588 sounds about right
hello guys im new
?
Wat
uhhh this isnt the right channel
to talk about this
#discussion maybe?
wtf
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(They've also been removed by the bot too
)
lmao does the bot timeout or ban?
Do what our esteemed friend does and the bot will ban you 
$\sqrt{-1}$
alex <3
what was that
@jade magnet Has your question been resolved?
t here is half the t used in a)
@jade magnet you there?
@jade magnet Has your question been resolved?
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ohhhh
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Stuck here
Got it, let me try that
Ceva's and Menelaus are closely related anyway, at least according to Wikipedia
Wait, how is this applied here?
which line in the problem is the transversal?
oh or maybe it's like this case
Hmm... I don't see it
In this case, you can apply menelaus' theorem for triangle BCF with D,P,A colinear
There're no collinear line that goes outside the big triangle, so our instinct is to consider the smaller ones inside
<@&268886789983436800> (there was a spam post)
Anyways got the question figured out, thank you for the help!
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Hii I’m trying to prove that this equation is solvable in integers for every positive integers n
[ x^2 + xy + y^2 = 7^n ] without much success 😭😭
If n is 1, we have x = 2 and y = 1 as one of the solutions
where is the n?
Irene
Hmmmmm
So it's possible for n=1
Maybe try for increasing values of n
and see a pattern
factoring in some way may be helpful
Trying to solve for n=2
okay let me try that 
@silent dock come help this nice woman


It's an induction problem
irene is also sad
if x_n^2 + x_ny_n + y_n^2 = 7^n works then let x_{n+1} = 2x_n - y_n, y_{n+1} = x_n + 3y_n should do the job
excellent work pure


I shall surrender to my slumber


Noooo

😭😭
Okay let me give this a try
But how is this motivated? 
if the ‘old’ solution gave you 7^n, you want the ‘new’ solution to give you 7^(n+1)
i’m gonna declare f(x,y) = x^2 + xy + y^2 for my sake
Okayy
so we have x_n and y_n such that f(x_n, y_n) = 7^n and we want to find a new x and y such that f(x,y) = 7^(n+1) = 7f(x_n, y_n)
Yess that makes sense
so you should be able to find some x and y that work in terms of x_n and y_n
those will be your x_(n+1) and y_(n+1)
Okay I’m following
that’s what i would try at least. i cannot say this is how pure did it
i am just doing my best to explain the motivation since he is slumbering

also i love that this is your image of pure
it’s lots of people’s image
I can see why!
@tribal temple 
Okayy I don’t really know how he figured out the trick so quickly but I understand the motivation/purpose 
he’s too smart for us
also you are so pretty
Have a good day/night!
Awww thank you!! 
I just know you’re gorgeous too!

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For part c how is it A =0? We need g(x+2) = g(x) . A can only be 0 if g(x) =0 which is when x = 0 and g(2) is not equal to g(0)
@sand flume Has your question been resolved?
Sine is periodic with period 2 pi and is equal to 0 at 0, pi, and 2pi
In your case, g would be equal to 0 at 0, 1, and 2
Since it would need to go back to zero once in between as well as at the end points
how is it equal to 0 at 1 and 2?
Oh sorry, i was thinking in terms of f
It still works though actually
If we see that f being an even function relates it to cosine
The integral of f is then related to sine, and would then follow the pattern i said
In (a), you show its periodic as well, so it would need to go back and hit zero to make a full wavelength , as sine does