#help-49
1 messages · Page 259 of 1
0,2 is the intersection of the fucking horizontal asymptote with the y axis -.-
we're arguing it being on the graph, it isnt
cant believe i took so fucking long to identify that -.-"
Another thing I'm confused about, why would they specify the graph isn't defined on x=-1, but didn't mention the other vertical asymptotes?
I think because the bottom part crosses -1
I see
i dont think we have enough information...?
Alr alr
what does the rest of the thing look like?
?
cuz i see stuff written on the right
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-0.8 i think
From the starting point, you know that X is lower than the mean
Therefore, it has to be negative
So 0.2 is already wrong by default.
i mean by checking the value in a table
Im looking at this
@leaden seal
If you got your z-score wrong, you have basically nothing to work with in your accumulated probability.
so this would be -0.8
yes
and then find 0.8 in the table
yes, but, if youre trying to use that table in there, consider youre using the wrong one
at least for your current purposes
you can technically still find your desired value, but youll be doing extra work just cause
@leaden seal Has your question been resolved?
wdym?
by using a calculator?
By doing some basic arithmetics and use some reasoning
The table you have there tells you the accumulated prob from the center to a positive z
And you want this
so jus use the postive 0.8 becus its symmetric
i see what you mean the table is fom the centre
So you have to do
1 - (P(0 - Z) + .5)
12.3%
By table you get the blue area
You then add 50%
and substract that from 100%
That technically gives you the red-right tail
But since Normal Dist is symetric, thats equal to your left-tail you wanted
wrong z
which table?
This one, or the positive z-scores
Both just tell you the probability to the left.
0-to makes some calculations harder.
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$$G_{4}(\tau) = a, quad G_{6}(\tau) = b$$```
Let $a, b \in \mathbb{C}$ such that $a^{3} - b^{2} \neq 0$. Show $\exists \tau \in \mathbb{H}$ such that
$$G_{4}(\tau) = a, \qquad G_{6}(\tau) = b$$
I'd quite like help with literally just a first step
I have the discriminant function in terms of G4 and G6, but it does not fit nicely into the a^3 - 27b^2
what's G_4 and G_6 and \mathbb{B}
Varixiuqlhfbgraijbzjnqghppxnqmvw
mathbb{B} is a typo, and the G4 and G6 are the unnormalised eisenstein series of degree 4 and 6
H is the upper half plane
I have this for free
In fact here is just a screenshot of my question
Apologies, I'm tired
Think i'll do contrapositive
.close
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Renato
do you have a screenshot of your work
yes, thank you for asking, but i got stuck mid way
so your last line says (n + 2)! + 2^n >= 2^(n + 1)
and this is where you got stuck?
try subtracting 2^n from both sides
yea but (n + 1)! times (n + 2) is just (n + 2)!
good catch
we need more induction?
yea
hahaha nice!
its really straightforward though
nice
do you want to use induction to prove that 2^n is monotonically increasing function?
i think we can take that as granted, i just don't want to be handwavy
where are you using that?
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I'd like some help
lets try to simplify the equation first
can u make any terms 0 as they approach infinity?
I tried, the problem that I have that k can’t be zero
K is greater than 1 tho
we don't care about k
try by taking n common from both denominator and numerator
do i need to use the squeeze theorem?
ok i got it
i answered it
thank y'all ❤️
i got the lim equals 1
how did you get that
squeeze theorem
what did you compare to?
LHS = (sum from k=1 to n) (sqrt(n^2 - n))/(n^2 + n +n)
RHS = (sum from k=1 to n) (sqrt(n^2 ))/(n^2 + n )
LHS
RHS
and got that both limits get to 1
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how to find the perimeter of this side
find the radius of each of the arcs
that gives you horizontal and vertical lengths for each
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I guess this is a conceptual question
Because no specific matrix is provided
For a projection, I can imagine the eigenvalues are 0 (for vectors that are perpendicular to the original space) and 1 (for vectors already on it)
For reflection, I can imagine the eigenvalues are 0 (for any vector) and 1 (for any vector originally in the space)
I'm not sure how to produce the eigenvectors though
and I'm contradicted by this PDF
you use the properties of projection/reflection matricies to find the eigenvalues
for reflection, you know that R^2 = I
Could you clarify?
I don't think I learned that principle
when you reflect something twice, you get the original thing you reflected
oh ok it seems obvious when you put it this way lol
yeah it is kind of conceptual but the eigenvalues dont come out of nowhere
you use that concept to find them
for projection, you use the fact that P^2 = P for a projection matrix P. intuitively, this is because a projection applied twice is the same as a projection applied once
so both of your assertions make sense but I'm not sure how to move forward from here
i'll do projection as an example, you are trying to solve Px = Lx (L instead of lambda)
okay
oh shit, that's clever
Same idea with reflection, if you can realize R^2 = I, then you get L^2 = 1, thus L = -1, L = 1
so with R^2, we know that
RRx = Ix = x
so lambda^2x=1 so lambda= plus or minus 1
ok very helpful thanks
wait so for eigenvectors
the way I was taught to find eigenvectors was to find the basis of N(A-lambda I)
that's not applicable here given that we don't get the actual matrix
for projections the L=1 case is Px=x. what x satisfies it?
something originally on the subspace? the main trouble here is representing it
can I just write C(P)? Is that valid?
what subspace?
i guess you could write it in words. like for L = 1, you could say "all vectors in the subspace you project onto"
the notation is not important
talking about a projection assumes you already know the subspace it projects onto
you should just say c2b7's answer instead of making up notation
okay
now the L=0 case is Px=0. what x satisfies it?
any vector, right? since 0 is a scalar multiple of any vector
no
wait stop
sorry, mb, any vector perpendicular to the subspace
so for negative one the vector would be something that is perfectly reflected across the subspace, i.e. any vector perp to the subspace
for one it would just be any vector originally lying on the subspace
yep
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np!
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so I'm conceptually stuck
tp'=Lp is an ODE
ODE?
differential equation
wait thanks for the help but I just found an online source with the same question
for posterity
.close
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$$ y' = (2x+3)(y^{2}-4)\ , \ y(0) = -1 $$
This was a problem on the test I have and I couldn't find the answer to it in the book, wait I messed up
Alphurion
Yeah that looks right... I thi nk
What's $y$ specifically
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
And what are you trying to find?
it's an "initial-value" problem, ummm
It just said solve it
No other context
"solve this" and gave me those two equations
Use separation of variables
so like $$ \frac{y'}{y^{2} - 4} = (2x + 3) $$
Alphurion
But, I have to like, integrate it to find y right
Mmhmm
the next step would be to integrate, yes
Partial fractions time
$$\int \frac{y'}{y^{2} - 4} dy = - \frac{1}{4} ln | y + 2 | - \frac{1}{4} ln | y - 2 | + C}$$
please be righttt
NOOO
Alphurion
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
yay
well I mean idk if its right
surely
so alldat............ equalsssssssss (2x+3) in theory
well that notation for the integral is a bit off
it should be [ \int \frac{y'}{y^2-4} \dd x = \int \frac{1}{y^2-4} \dd y ]
cloud ☁
Oh
so if I integrate one side with dx, I cant just integrate the other side with dy
they both have to be in terms of one
variable
yes, you would need $\int f(x) \ dx = \int g(y) \ dy$
south
the common thing is to write $y' = \odv yx$ and then ``multiply the $dx$ to the other side'', i.e.
[ \frac 1{y^2 - 4} \dd y = (2x + 3) \dd x ]
cloud ☁
Then integrate both sides
Alphurion
yayyy
and you only need to write one +C, even though there are two integrations
so if I hypothetically insert -1 into the left side it should equal the right side
cause if you have .... + c = .... + C'
that's just ..... = .... + (C' - c)
C' - c is a constant
well ln(-1) is not a real number
Actually its ln 1 since its + 2
the other one would be ln | -3 |
yeah that's why ln |x| is very important
But do I know how to evaluate it? nop
failed alg 2 :3
so kawaii
Oh theyre like really long decimals anyways... but 1/4 of that...
You don't need to evaluate the logs
Just simplify them as much as possible and then you can leave them as logs
sooo is ln 1 + ln 3 = ln 4 or is that like completely insane
Wrong
Also you can use a calculator to answer your own question
Wrong again
o ok
Why?
You can't just add logs like that
You need to use log laws
I don't know any of them though so I can't really evaluate it without a calculator
,tex .log rules
riemann
so ln 1 + ln 3 is just ln 3
Is that surprising to you?
It's something I didn't know
I don't know it
Okay so ln(x) is the inverse of e^x
In other words, ln(x) is the number that you need to raise e to in order to get x
0
,calc log(1) + log(3)
Result:
1.0986122886681
,calc log(4)
Result:
1.3862943611199
Not the same
How did you get this?
A number to the power of 0 is 1, therefore to get e to the power of something is equal to 1, the power must be 0
Nice
Which matches with the log law as well
ln(1) + ln(3) = ln((1)(3)) = ln(3)
ln(3) is just a number. You can treat it like a square root in the sense that you just leave it as it is
$-\frac{1}{2} ln 3 = x^{2} + 3x + C$
Wasn't it -1/4?
well there was two hold on
Pls help me solve this: Four million 500-kilowatt windmills in the states listed in the table could generate 91% of the total electrical use. If this were done, how many windmills would be in North Dakota? (Hint: It is not 11% of 4 million.)
!occupied
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Oh are they added aw man
Noooo
wait what am I doing
shhhh
bro youre making me nervous
- 1/4 + -1/4 ...
-1/2...
yeah
Alphurion
boom
Either the fraction multiplies or adds
I mean its a fraction but you get what I mean
I don't
There are two -1/4, either we are using the properties of logs to say that they multiply and are 1/16, or we are saying because they are both negative they add up to -2/4 which = -1/2
unless you mean it simply it -1/4 still
but I 'm pretty sure you said no to that
You should not be lazy and skip terms. Write out fully what you mean here
$-\frac{1}{4} ln 1 - \frac{1}{4} ln 3 = x^{2} + 3x + C$
Alphurion
So it has been told to me that from the properties of logs that ln 3 and ln 1 become ln 3 in isolation
Only if you have ln(1) + ln(3)
I was then informed the fraction was incorrect
So then what about for this problem, how would I go about this step?
If you have 5x + 5y, how else can you write that?
Pretend x=2 and y=3
It looks like you could do with revising some algebra
What's 10 + 15
25 prolly
Prolly?
5(x + y) ??
Finally
so you want me to....
Apply that to left side here
so its -1/4 ln 3 then
-1
Actually, I'm not sure
I don't even think I was supposed to plug in -1 actually
I shouldve plugged in 0
which would have led to -1/4 ln 2
Be careful with what you're doing
which would make the other side equal to -1 because -1/4 ln 2 would be y(0)
the function y when you input 0 is = -1
input 0 into what?
so if this equation I plugged in with 0 is y(0) = -1 = x^2 + 3x + C
No
So why did you just write that? >.<
Because I don't know the solution, so I am going to try something rather than nothing
It would help to think it through rather than just spamming
^^^
You didn't speak for an entire minute, I'm not going to sit there and do nothing, I thought about it
I'm sorry if it wasn't right, but I clearly am not proficient enough to know it was an incorrect decision
I need to go to sleep
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a¹≅a, because a^1 is every arrow from 1 to a, in other words Hom(1,a)
I believe ∃!f : 1 ⟶ a, ∀ a in 𝒞
which is "select a"
i was gonna say some stuff but i just realized i know nothing about proofs lmao
and it is iso, because there is ! : a ⟶ 1
go on,
categories and logic are good ways to learn something about proofs, for example I found it cool to learn that proof can be seen as a path, and "showing" or "proving" we construct a path:
from the context of premises Γ to the conclusion φ
showing there exists: ∃
a path f(which is the name of the path, or arrow ⟶)
from the premises Γ
to the conclusion: φ
∃ f : Γ ⟶ φ
well im actually clueless on the proofs side
i only know a bit about induction
and from looking at that u can use induction to prove the 1^a = 1
provided the axioms/assumptions of categories (set of premises Γ), we are asking is can we go from a¹ to a and back, and from a to a¹ and back
we are asking: exists a path a¹ ⟶ a, and a ⟶ a¹?
do you know implication? P ⟹ Q?
1^n = x
1^n+1 = x.1
1^n+1 = x
1^n+1 = 1^n
i think thats how u do it
cant recall
proof afik is you have premises and derive conclusions using logic,
it's like you ask a question and find answer
I need to learn induction 
- show it holds for 1,
- then assume it holds for n,
- see for n+1
I think
the way you define ℕ via Peano axioms is the blueprint also
@shut canyon Has your question been resolved?
one sec, I don't yet udnerstand the example you gave
i mean its just induction
1ⁿ = 1 for any n ≥ 0
you can write it like this look: ∀ n, 1ⁿ = 1,
which is to say: for all n greater than or equal to 0 the nth power of 1 is 1
1ⁿ⁺¹ = 1 * 1ⁿ = 1 * 1 = 1
yeah thats what we did
maybe try 1 + 2 + … + n = n·(n+1)/2 with induction
here is a template for induction, I hope it's correct,
1️. base: P(0)
2️. inductive hypothesis: assume P(k)
3️. step: show P(k) → P(k+1)
4️. conclude: ∀ n, P(n) holds
P: proposition "…is P", or …has the property PP(k): k has the property PP(k) → P(k+1): if k has the property P, k+1 has the property P∀ n, P(n): every n has the property P
in induction u just prove that f(n) = f(n+1)
when you use induction, I heard it is good practice to say something like * "we will use induction"*,
and highlight the main steps, like "base case", inductive hypothesis and inductive step, is good form
I guess so, and also some say proofs are like art, you can be creative with making proofs, I read this by Paul Lockhart in Measurement
imo u dont need to care much about the paperwork if u get what im saying
and it has an aspect of explaining and shining light and communicating so it's good to make accessible maybe
just demonstrate ur math and i think ur teachers will consider it
this is the natural numbers pattern in Lean4, I think it's analogous to Peano axioms and inductive proof:
inductive Nat
| zero : Nat
| succ : Nat → Nat
u see idk what that means lmao
not YET
See, pragmatically, I'm not sure Kytsu's learning things in an order that makes sense here
yes
The level of material you're reading, one should expect induction to already be a familiar tool to you
thats what i was thinking
understandable
@paper mantle dw, "Peano axioms" is a set theory-based term, i.e. well into uni maths
It's to do with number construction at a fundamental level, and little to do with proofs in and of themselves
nice
You may re-explain induction with them, though it is a little overkill
yeah i dont study proofs cause the olympiads i attend usually dont ask much about proofs in a strict way
Olympiads aren't gonna need something like Peano axioms 
noice
@shut canyon
so
induction
is prooving that a specific statement
is true
for n
and n+1
for example
What was the og q?
.
Peano axioms seem to say the same thing as induction, like isn't it it the same pattern?
my creativity to give an example at 6am is not good, if someone could id appreciate it lmao
Peano axioms define the set of natural numbers via induction, yes
They aren't in and of themselves induction
oh thats very advanced shit
I did say 
but yeah now that i searched about it he should know a bit ab induction to know what a peano axiom is no?
A perusal on MSE appears to give me some traction btw, regarding the original question:
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3627695/how-to-show-that-a1-simeq-a-for-all-c-objects-a-in-a-cartesian-closed-ca
thanks @fathom onyx
That's a cool way to visualise diagrams with the grid, I think
look there is the same question also via that link
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3463019/prove-that-a1-cong-a
I'll try to answer with my solution, I will probably be cast out
they will be like "ugh this person… do you even know Peano axioms?" 🐙
.close
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I need help with this limit
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
I'm trying to use squeeze theorem
first off, the stuff inside the limit is quite clearly $\frac1n \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k}$. this might help
Ann
umm, how will it help?
well at the very least that's less shit to write every time you wanna refer to the function
lol yea
but ok yeah so what are we squeezing with
on LHS, I got that this whole expression is bigger than 2/1+n
I used AM-GM inequality to prove it
you mean 2/(1+n)
okay alright. so that's a lower bound.
what do you know about the sum $\sum_{k=1}^n \frac1k$?
Ann
i can say that this whole sum is less than $\sum_{k=1}^n \frac1n$
KevinSnow
oh yea right
ok lets see... do you know integration at all / do you have access to it
@soft sky Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
rip
bro this question is KILLING ME
can i use arithmetics? say that each of this terms tends to 0, so the whole expression tends to 0 aswell?
yea true
@soft sky Has your question been resolved?
@soft sky Has your question been resolved?
<@&268886789983436800>
@soft sky Has your question been resolved?
Cosider grouping the terms by powers of $2$:
$$\sum^{n}_{k=1} \frac{1}{k}=1+\frac{1}{2}+\left(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4} \right)+\left(\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{8} \right)+\dots$$
Civil Service Pigeon
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I'm trying to apply the Central limit theorem to these two problems
For the first one, we can take $U_n=#H-#T$ after $n$ flips, so that $U_n=X_1+\dots+X_n$ with $X_1,\dots,X_n$ i.i.d. as $\operatorname{Uniform}({-1,1})$
kheer257
Then we want the probability that U_n = 0
But I don't really know how CLT works for discrete random variables
@zealous schooner Has your question been resolved?
Should just be CLT approximation to binomial distribution
In probability theory, the de Moivre–Laplace theorem, which is a special case of the central limit theorem, states that the normal distribution may be used as an approximation to the binomial distribution under certain conditions. In particular, the theorem shows that the probability mass function of the random number of "successes" observed ...
Isn't tossing a coin multiple times already binomial distribution
Do you really need CLT for that
@zealous schooner Has your question been resolved?
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for instance i have 5-x^2
and i have to put 1 in x,
is it 5-(1)^2 or 5(-1)^2?
the first one
why
order of operations
in the initial expression the power of 2 only applies to the x
PEMDAS
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and that x^2 is being subtracted from 5
in other words
5 minus (the square of the value of x)
for the second, you're treating it as though you had
5 * (-x)^2
which doesn't follow the established order of operations
sub or not
p - q
isn't the product of
p and
-q
@sturdy kindle Has your question been resolved?
ohhhh
@sturdy kindle Has your question been resolved?
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can someone explain to me what lateral surface area is?
if it's just the surface areas of two parallel surfaces how does that apply to a cone etc
it's the area of whichever part of a solid isn't its "top" or "bottom"
one speaks of it usually only for solids which have a clearly-defined top or bottom, namely:
- cones and pyramids
- prisms (incl boxes) and cylinders
- frusta
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lmao
so we're currently on proving A, M, F, C concylic
we shall prove angle AMC = AFC
any ideas on that?
keep going
tgat should equal DBC i think?
yeah
ohh wait
AST on that
DBC=BHC=AMC
done
alr great
now we should be able to prove that E, M, F, B are concyclic
(im trying to figure out how to get D in there tho)
ye it isnt too difficult either
BC seems tangent to (EMFBD)
yeah ok thats what i thought the pair of angles was
BEF=BED-FED
BED=180-EAC
using the same angle chasing BED=AMC
so BEF=AMC-FED
hmm ok this is abit wierd
hmm looks like you're overcomplicating stuff but anything works i think
you're forgetting EB//AC it seems
now we just need to get D in there
hold on brb gimme a sec
back
mm so probably something cyclic quad with D on the other 3 of the 4 points, then combine to get DMFB concyclic
fuck this is harder than i thought lmao

fake orz

lowkey DMBE seems promising?
huh didnt you say it wasnt too difficult 
dis
this is the part im missing
samee
i also got a sol that depended on that
hold on lemme reconstruct the sol
DBM=BCM by alt seg on (BCM)
MDB=MBC by alt seg on (MDB)
so DMB=BMC <=> DMA=AMC
AMC=AFC=180-CAE=AEB
so DMA=AEB
DMA=180-DMB=AEB=DEB (DEBM cyclic)
yeah this bit is the part that uses BC tangent
howwb😭
*realizes i made another mistake
*

wait hold on
BEA=180-CAD=DBC
alternate segment theorem is an iff right?
so BC is tangent
so were done no??
it only means that BC is tangent to (BED)
doesnt mean D lies on that circle we want to prove
well unless i did something wrong, this should prove DEBM is cyclic
we already did boil down the problem quite a lot
if DEBM and MEBF are cyclic then DEBFM is cyclic
then the radical axis theorem, then were done right?
one interesting thing i discovered but havent been able to prove is that EM goes through the intersection of AC and (BMC)
yes, but D is being a bitch and is stopping us
huh??
we need to prove that D lies on the (MEBF) somehow
like i got BC tangent to (BED), then used that to prove DEBM is cyclic, doesent that incorporate the D?
then you have to prove BC is tangent to (BEM) as well
shit
i dont know if i should go for this
or i can pull out the phantom point trick
@viral dagger Has your question been resolved?
@viral dagger Has your question been resolved?
yeah i think you must know about symmedians to get the property of DM
Once you know that you can solve the problem
@viral dagger yep, figured it out
yea from symmedian CD you have MDA = MAC = MBE
-> DMBE is a cyclic quad
-> problem solved
lemme pull up my notes
ok so this is my note, AD is the symmedian of ABC
so here in our diagram the symmedian is CD?
yes
yeah D in our diagram is K here
if you're unconvinced you can try to do this
(AOD) intersects (ABC) at E
AE will be the symmedian
and you'll get BED = CBA as well
it's just awful angle chasing
i dont get how you got MDA = MAC = MBE
you dont get why is MDA = MAC?
alr let's do this lemma first
given ∆ABC, O is the circumcenter, D is the midpoint of BC. (AOD) intersects (ABC) at E. Prove AE is a symmedian
hmm
the definition of symmedian is that the tangents of B and C to (ABC) intersect at X, and AX intersect (ABC) at E
it's very looong angle chasing
so we want to prove AEX is colinear
nah you dont need that
you only need to prove BAD = CAE
that's it
that's enough to make AE a symmedian
ok lowkey im hella stuck i have no idea how to prove this
alr so BAD = BAE + EAD = BCE + EOD
EOD = BOD - BOE = BAC - 2BCE = 180 - BEC - 2 BCE
shouldnt EOD be BOD-BOE instead
oops sorry
alr fixed
so BAD = BCE + 180 - BEC - 2BCE = 180 - BEC - BCE = EBC = EAC
and since this works both ways, EA will be a symmedian of triangle EBC as well
wait sorry is there a different definition of a symmedian??
what do you mean by "definition" here?
the definition of a symmedian that i know is this
how does proving BAD=EAC lead to AE being a symmedian
well the definition to me is you take a median then reflect it across an angle bisector
yes
ok so on applying the lemma
yeah there's really only 1 specific point on arc BC that satisfies BAD = CAE
and it just so happens that that point also applies to your definition
mm i see
do you have any questions on that?
oh was the lemma just to show that you can prove symmedian like that?
because the lemma goes both ways so if you have AE being a symmedian then AODE is a cyclic quad
no like i still dont get how you know CD is the symmedian of ABC
oh yeah
up
yes?
oh yeah i havent explained the second part of the lemma
going back to this image
so to not make you suffer through more angle chasing pain...
if i switch the roles of A and E
you get CEA = BED
and then CEA = CBA so CBA = BED
this symmedian part prob took half the convo lol
so we get this
MAC=ABE cause parallel
MDA=ABE
ohh and that proves (MDEB) concyclic
which gets (MDEBF) concyclic
then the theorem
qed??
omgggg tysmmm
❤️
.solved tysmsmnmmmmm
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. sorry i was away lmao
. but its correct right?
. really? which part?
. the symmedian part which took ages for me to figure out
. huh wdym?
. we were so dead-on trying to prove BC is tangent to that circle
. anyways let's stop this so new helpees wont be confused
I was thinking $Z_{120}, S_5, D_{60}$
wai
ok, you have 3 non-isos to explain
$Z_{120}$ is not isomorphic to either as its cyclic and neither of the other two are
wai
ok and why are S_5 and D_60 not iso
$D_{60}$ has an element of order 60, $S_5$ has none
wai
There are abelian examples
why does S_5 have no element of order 60
The order of the product of n- disjoint cycles is the lcm of their individual lengths
ok and why can't the lcm of a bunch of numbers adding up to ≤5 be 60?
A bit of an overkill solution: If there was an element of order 60 then the subgroup of S5 it generates is normal and hence its equal to A5, which is not cyclic
wait, why is it normal
Subgroup of index 2
Its overkill because you use a really strong result regarding S5
A decomposition of 120 would be 3x2x2x5x2, but when combination is chosen such that their sum is 5, their product , an upper bound on the lcm is less than 60
Is there any better justificatioon
get your hands dirty and just go through all combinations
okay, so the possibilities are elements of order 2, of order 3, or one of order 3 and another of order 2, their orders will be 2,3,10, none of which are 60
at least one cycle must have length a multiple of 5, but in S_5 this can only ever give order exactly 5 with a long cycle
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
Oops, forgot to close this
Coming to the simpler examples that people were talking about, can you produce 3 abelian examples? ||Think of direct products||
Will look into this after dinner
tq
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hola!
i wrote th eq as a+ax+ay=60 and then wrote it as 1+x+y=60/a and then x+y=60/a -1
tried to use stars and bars
got 179 as answer
actually answer is 144
Can you explain your reasoning more in detail for 179?
basically we need to find no of solutions of the this modified equation
so by stars and bars you get
(60/a -1 +1)!/(60/a - 1)!(1)!
you get 60/a as the answer
the possible values of a are 1,2,3,4,5,6,10,12,15,30,60
sum them all uo
oh wait 1 is there
180 is what i get
Are you using stars and bars for x,y positive or non-negative?
60/a - 2 is the actual answer
ahhh
i took them as non negative
so eq would become x'+y' =60/a - 3?
from there it seems to work
thank you so much
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I didn't understand the part I we have to move from minus infinity
basically you need to imagine the line 9x+4y=c sweeping out the plane as c goes up
that's why this person is saying "from -∞"
But why we are moving?
Can we not do it by +infinity to -infinity
Or it is restricted by condition<=1
that'll be downward
and then you'll instead want to keep moving until you FIRST hit the constraint
You preparing for upsc?
Yes
@near geyser Has your question been resolved?
3 is correct but a comment about the bound being attainable would be nice
@near geyser Has your question been resolved?
Answer is correct but i am asking about the method
3 is correct but a comment about the bound being attainable would be nice
The solution arrives at a correct bound
But in general, when using inequalities, you need to show that your bound is attainable
Ex. Let’s say that you have x,y positive and z negative
And you want to minimize |x+y+z|-(|x|+|y|+|z|)
The triangle inequality gives you that this is __<__0
So you may be tempted to say that the minimum is 0
But this can’t be attained since equality is only attained when x,y,z have the same sign
Which is impossible
In this case, the supremum is 0, but there isn’t a maximum
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how do you find the surface area of this shape? I thought of using the formula for a one by integrating 2pi x int from 0 to 3 of the line -4/3 x + 4
but thats not the right approach because one side is flat
so im not sure noww
you definitely can, and it's extremely annoying
can you tell me how to approach it?
no, that's way beyond my skill in integral calculus
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wouldnt the answer to this just be 96
depends on whether you are treating the groomsmen as two different people, or the same
given the wording, i dont think thats the case
can you explain how you come to that number?
@last slate
in that case, 5! x 2!?
they can be nondistinct mb
this is also wrong
Also, dont give answers plainly without any explanation behind
hmmmm, im pretty sure thats correct
Supposing that were right, explain how would you come to that solution
well i wasnt sure if i was right either
didnt wanna explain if my solution was incorrect
but i cant see what else it would be
what are you thinkin
okay so they want the bride and groom next to one another
thats S = { bride , groom } and S2 = { groom, bride }
then we have a remaining of random combinations for the 2 bridesmen and the 2 groomsmen
Yes, that limits quite a lot the possibilities for arrangements, if i have to give some advice, think of both as a "block" and then simply multiply by 2 whatever answers you come to.
i get what youre doing here it isnt wrong to think of it like this but why am i wrong
like
that would be if you only considered one position for the bride and groom
Youre missing a few combinations coming from the fact that the groom and bride can be placed anywhere
but i wanna do it this way
oooooh
oh shoot
my guess is that you assumed that they have to be in the center, right?
why?
look at helpers lounge
well i assumed they are at the right but my mistake still applies to if you assume they are anywhere but as long as theyre next to one another in a fixed spot
so right left center
but they only stay there
what do i do then
the only condition is for the groom and bride to be next to eachother
Yes but they can be next to eachother anywhere like u said
How many positions would that leave for the block?
mb, you were right, i dont know where i got 5! from
Try to think of the edges too
Its basically how many 2 consecutive pairs from 6 elements you can get.
6 spots ib total
bride n groom take two
four remain
yes 4 spots
5 spots for the groomsmen and bridesmaids (black lines), think of how many spots that creates for the bride-groom block (red arrows)
We are talking about how many ways you can place the "block"
there should be another arrow on the far right lol mb
wdym by block
The "block" is essentially the pair of groom and bride, we dont really care in what order they come
How many ways you can fit two consecutive spaces?
5 ways
Well, now, for every placement of this "block" (which is the pair groom-bride, or bride-groom)
We have 4 free elements which we can arrange however we like
yes
what would that be?
4 · 3 · 2 · 1
so, 4!
Yes
Now, remember the "block" can be arranged as Bride-Groom or Groom-Bride
so we get an extra
*2
Finally, we just multiply all together
5 * 4! * 2
which is
5! * 2
you lost me here
lemme write an example
im thinking of the cartesian product
im trying to see how i can do it here
Imagine we place our "block" there
Which remember, is just the pairing of bride and groom
For this particular placement, the bridesmaid and groomsmen can arrange in 4! ways
But beyond the 4! ways to place the maids and men, you get this two for Bride-Groom and Groom-Bride
They are "similar" situations, but where the placement of the groom and bride get switched, but they still are beside eachother
can i think of all this via cartesian product
i dont really think so.
Not without having to do a huge one
the concept of permutations usually is easier
@last slate Has your question been resolved?
Ohhh I think i got it
You can arrange the bride and groom in 2 different ways as they take 2 spots so thats
| GroomBrideSet x BrideGroomSet | = 2
And those 2 arrangements can be arranged in 5 different ways so 2 * 5 = 10
Also we know that for the remaining ppl can be arranged in 4! Ways so ∴ there exists 10 4! Ways to rearrange the other guests and that simultaneously takes into account the amount of times the bride and groom can be rearranged next to one another
correct me if im wrong @cerulean oyster
i think the way im thinking of multiplying 10 and 4! Is a bit goofy
like there are 4! Ways to rearrange the groomsmen and the bridesmaids
and 10 ways to rearrange the bride and groom respectively
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Can we have a random variable $X$ such that $\mathbb E\left[e^{tX}\right]=+\infty$ for all $t\ne 0$?
kheer257
I don't think X can be integer valued since [ \mathbb E\left[e^{tX}\right] = \sum_{n\ge 0} e^{nt}\mathbb P(X=n) \le \sum_{n\ge 0}\mathbb P(X=n) = 1 ] for all $t<0$
kheer257
Does this just mean X can't be discrete at all
I think Cauchy Distribution is great example for that
If $X$ is continuous with pdf $f_X$ then we want [ \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{tx} f_X(x) \dd{x} ] to diverge to $+\infty$ for all $t\ne 0$
kheer257
What's that?