#help-49
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Hi, this is a physics question from the beam and cable lab
(hope you dont mind me asking here
my question is: how do we get 0.842 (the angle) where it says costheta at the bottom
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How would you roughly sketch this diagram?
We are given a triangle ABC such that ∠BAC < 90◦.The point D is on the opposite side of the line AB to C such that |AD| = |BD| and ∠ADB = 90◦.
Similarly, the point E is on the opposite side of AC to B such that |AE| = |CE| and ∠AEC = 90◦. The point X is such that ADXE is a parallelogram.
it's just im not sure what "the opposite side" is referring to
like what is the "opposite side of the line AB"
oh?
C and D are on opposite sides of AB
B and E are on opposite sides of AC
I drew the perpendicular bisectors of AB and AC, and to make ADB = AEC = 90º, I just made BAD = CAE = 45º
oh thanks so much
okay this made much more sense than what i was trying to visualise
(I forgot to draw CE but you can imagine the right angles)
Then EX is just parallel to AD, and DX parallel to AE
yea
Do you need help with a question about this?
... are you going to post it?
Why? Is it a test?
not exactly, it's just a problem to challenge me
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I am trying my hardest...
Ok so which types of asymptotes do you feel you don’t understand?
Are you having trouble identifying them or having trouble providing the equation for them?
So for a vertical asymptote to happen, a function will shoot off to positive or negative infinity (or both) around the asymptote
I think it is a positive right?
Positive what? Do you mean positive location, positive infinity?
Ok positive 4
Yes! Now, what do you think the equation should be based on this?
@lament flame Has your question been resolved?
X/x+4 +5
I dont know the numerator yet
ah, that's your function equation, but you just need the equation for the asymptote line
do you know what the general equations are for vertical and horizontal lines?
The denominator can not be less then the numerator or equal 0
ok, let me get a visual aid
What is the equation of this blue line?
Its 1/x-5 right?
you're trying to find the equation for the red function. You need to find the equation for the blue line
yes, but, it's specifically x=5
because that is the equation for a vertical line at 5 on the x-axis
Ah....
yeah you have to specify because if you just write "5", that could mean either a vertical line at x=5 or a horizontal line at y=5
Ohhhhhh
ok, so I think you have everything you need to answer this one correctly
what did you answer?
Oh I missread
I dont know if I need to factor or if I dont and cancle for this one
Do I cancle the 4x? It doesnt seem factorable
so, for vertical asymptotes, you need to find all the x-values that make the denominator equal to zero (with the caveat that you need to check and make sure the numerator isn't also equal to zero at this point, as that might do something else)
Ohhhh
and because the denominator is linear (and not constant), it has to equal 0 somewhere, and also only passes through 0 once
yup
Then we plug it in to numerator correct?
yeah
Plugged it in to numerator
you need to subtract that 2, not add it
nope my bad
I'm taking real analysis rn and apparently I still can't multiply two negative numbers correctly lmao
ok so your numerator is not equal to 0, and the denominator is, which means x=-1/2 should be a vertical asymptote
Ohhhhhhh
for context, getting 0/0 somewhere on the function leaves a discontinuity, but not an asymptote. I will show an example
Ohhhhh
but 1/x blows out to infinity because the numerator doesn't keep up with the denominator
that's why you want to check for 0/0
Apparently there is a horazontal or oblique asymtote
yes. those are going to be quite different because they happen as you approach infinity or negative infinity on the x-axis instead of at a discontinuity
What does it mean when they say num and denom both have a DEGREE of 1?
it is the power x is raised to
so like x+1/x^2+1 would have a numerator of degree 1 and denominator of degree 2
1/x has a numerator of degree 0 and denominator of degree 1
nope
Wha
well, be careful, because one of those terms should be negative
so, since you are looking at it as x gets very large, what will happen?
So wait- its... would it still be an oblique
ok, so since we are looking at very large x, we know x isn't 0 in this area
which means you can divide out the x
Oh yeah
So -4+1/4+2?
this is after removing the lower degrees
because they become negligible as x becomes very large
so take f(x)=x and g(x)=x+1. when x=1, g(x) = 2 and f(x) = 1. so, g(x) is double the height of f(x). Now take x=100. so g(x) = 101 and f(x) = 100. so the percent difference between them is now much less than double. as that x gets even larger, the percent difference "becomes negligible", or mathematically, approaches zero
Ohhhhhh
this is why you only need to look at the highest degree. Because the highest degree of a polynomial is going to eventually blow out to infinity faster than all the lower degrees do, it's the only one that matters when you are looking at behavior as x becomes very large or small
(by small, i mean going to negative infinity here, not 0)
well, you look at y= -4x/4x, and then just divide it out
So -1
If it is a oblique it wants me to put it in slope intercept form?...
Oh-
so it's horizontal, not oblique
you only get oblique if you end up with something in the form of ax^(n+1)/bx^n
I apologize my head is just... I dunno today
Ok domain would be
(-inf, -1/2)U(-1/2, inf) right?
yeah should be
my guess is the denominator is a quadratic function
since quadratics can pass through 0 twice
Oh shoot- thanks dude you helped me a lot
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is this correct?
its for FSM finite state machines
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part c
c i, c ii, or c iii?
ii
p sure you want to do integration by parts
LIATE
coffee?
Nope the rule for choosing u
what is liate
you want to make the log(x)^n into log(x)^(n-1) somehow
don't worry about that for now
im thinking differentiating but by chain rule we get a new term
try it anyway
nln(x)^n-1/x
yes go on
okay so integration by parts is:
uv - int(vdu)
i guess im gonna choose my u=ln(x)^n
so i get du=nln(x)^n-1/x
dv=x^2 so v=x^3/3
ln(x)^nx^3/3 - 1/2int(x^2nln(x)^n-1)dx
wait let me just write it out
write out the version for definite integrals
also it's 1/3 multiplied by that integral
on paper not in discord
oh fun fact, ibp can be organized in a good manner using the D-I method
Integration by parts by using the DI method! This is the easiest set up to do integration by parts for your calculus 2 integrals. We will also do 3 integrals to illustrate the 3 stops of the DI method.
Dear calculus teachers, please let students use the DI Method (& why it is really the same as integration by parts) 👉 https://youtu.be/8xPfNu...
i have seen this method but my teacher doesnt allow it
Try Brilliant with 30 days free: 👉 https://brilliant.org/blackpenredpen/ (20% off with this link!) #calculus #brilliant #maths #math
In this video, we will show you why your calculus students deserve to learn and use the DI method for integration by parts. While it's true that the DI and u-dv methods are equivalent, the DI method has many a...
lmao
it isnt that she doesnt believe in it
they are literally the same thing
she wants me to clearly show where im integrating
the IB exams definitely allows it though
oh that's a different issue then
is this correct?
yeah to find v from dv, you better show your steps in the real exam too
my ipad died so um i used google docs
I do wonder what she would think of the video, but I learned integration on my own and currently am not up to integration in calculus, so I'll see what happens when I get up to it
-
it helps to mention ln(e) = 1 and ln(1) = 0
-
it's better to write $\int_1^e \frac{x^3}{3} \frac{n \ln(x)^{n - 1}}{x} \ dx$ for clarity
otherwise, all good
south
and now this integrand will just be n/3 I(n-1) right
okay i got the result
going back to the central issue
how do i choose u and dv?
the key insight is: differentiating (ln x)^n is the way to make the power of (n - 1) appear in the integral
so it's a case of knowing what form you want the answer to be
writing it out as $\frac{1}{3} \left(e^3 - n \int_1^e x^2 (\ln x)^{n - 1} \ dx \right)$ helps a lot
south
and also, a common trick in papers is that they factor something out
so the 1/3 in front here
i see, so it is sort of like inspecting what i want or which ever term is harder to integrate per se
yeah, that's the idea behind LIATE
though LIATE is not perfect and it 'fails' in many questions if you apply it in a braindead way
do u know a list of tricks we need for ib aa hl in integration
im so lost, i skipped almost all my calculus classes because i was super sick
there's actually no tricks
techniques i mean
IB will only give you integrals by substitution in the form $\int f'(g(x)) g'(x) \ dx$
south
otherwise, they will tell you exactly what to substitute
(this is the reverse chain rule form)
here sub would be u=g(x)?
I suggest practicing with the formula booklet also
yep! du = g'(x) dx
oooh
AAHL doesn't go as deep as you think for integration
which topic is the hardest
there's also things like, if you want to integrate $\frac{x^2}{9 + x^2}$, that equals $\frac{9 + x^2}{9 + x^2} - \frac{9}{9 + x^2}$
south
it's subjective
do you find 3D vectors hard?
or how about complex numbers?
to be honest, I don't think it's worth your energy
WHAT
how did u get the insight to add and subtract 9
if you practice you'll know
could we directly complete the square?
that doesn't actually work, cause now you'll have -6x in the denominator
and that's even nastier
the key is to recognise the integral of 1/(x^2 + a^2) as a standard integral in your formula booklet
wow
clearly i need to practice a lot more
i think i understand this now, tysm ann, south, and a message!
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,tex
hello, suppose we have the sequence $a_n = \frac{3n}{2n +1} $
\
and i have shown that
\
$ \frac{3}{2} \geq a_n \geq \frac{3}{2} + \frac{a}{n} $
\
\
where $a> \frac{-15}{4} $ but i havent actually proven anything more than that. is it enough to say that our sequence converges to 3/2? it seems rlly wrong to me bc im not sure if such "a" exists
fijokazż
try taking the limit as n tends to infinity
presumably you arent allowed to write a_n as 3/(2+1/n) and then move the limit inside the fraction?
then by the squeeze theorem you basically have a proof
yeah but i havent defined a so well
assuming the inequality you showed is correct, yes
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could I get some help please
which question specifically?
isnt that as simple as resolution of forces
not sure I only js started mechanics
u know what resolution of forces is tbh?
yh but I dont think the question is that simple
it is tbh
unless if im missing smthing 
bruh
(idk if showing the image is giving the answer
)
i dont get it icl
which part
breaking down a force into its x and y components , or resolution of forces
mg costheta would be the y component of the force
Yeah Im still new to this
with respect to the block
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I have this, but I am struggling to make it to where I can have a palindrome in a palindrome, while maintaining the multiple of 3 I need
the goal is to make a context free grammar from the context free language provided
What course is this for?
I have no idea what this means
theory of computation
Are you counting palindromes or something?
It seems like a combinatorics problem yeah
a grammar is basically a set of rules you can use to derive a string
so like
if I say
S -> A
A -> 00
I can do S -> A -> 00, which is just S => 00
I feel like this is something more in the realm of computer science than mathematics maybe? It seems very applied
I need to make a grammar that accepts strings comprised of 0s and 1s which are palindromes, and are divisible by 3
What does divisible by 3 mean in this case?
what do you mean by "derive a string"
so like 000 has a length of 3
the length of the string is a multiple of 3
derive meaning can get to it via the starting rule and any combination of other rules in the grammar
So theoretically there is no upper limit on length?
nope
infinite length is acceptable
it doesn't if your goal isn't just counting palindromes, which it isn't
so as a concrete example, the grammar for even length palindromes looks like this
S -> 0S0 or 1S1 or epsilon (empty string)
oh so this is a recursion thing
yeah
What is the goal here exactly?
create a set of rules such that by going from rule to rule you end up with a palindrome with a length div by 3
and you must start with the start rule
I think having two confused people asking questions is counterproductive
Yeah I’m going to have to leave here
this problem feels hard to me because it's induction
you don't care about changing the alphabet from {0, 1} right?
nope
a and b is fine
as long as it's binary
well, a palindrome is entirely determined by the first half of the string, as anything you append to the left must be appended to the right
- the middle character, if it exists
yeah and in this case we will have a middle in a lot of cases
my first thought was to say something like S -> 000S000, 001S100, ..., 111S111
but that excludes cases where appending only three digits (disturbing parity, therefore) still results in a palindrome
e.g. "111" (odd) || "111" (odd) = "111111" (even)
yeah this handles all cases of length 3 or less but
no more
what you had makes sense, but then you need S -> something
are grammars meant to let you derive satisfactory words from other satisfactory words?
if you want it to represent a particular language then yes
like in this case, it must always end up in a satisfactory state eventually or else the grammar doesn't represent the desired language
but generally speaking, a grammar just needs to follow certain rules, satisfactoriness can only come from some constraint being set I suppose
ok, so grammars are not necessarily recursive, because this example generates palindromes of length 3
yup
it can be but doesn't have to be
it's made to be expressive
is there a grammar-y way of expressing the reversal of a given string?
I don't know, but that would probably help solve this 😹
can you access characters in a string in this setting?
and just to be transparent, I've actually never done this before, I'm not feigning this ignorance lol
access wdym
maybe it's not useful. I was wondering if you're able to reference a character in a specific index of a given string
no indexing
ok, sure
hmm
so we do need recursion but
I don't see how to get that recursion while maintaining the divisibility by 3, for even length it was "easy"
here there is some extra conceptual leap
I had the idea of an intermediate variable Y, which can then go back to S
maybe I got it @frozen talon
I think that looks fair, cool
yeah now I need to test it though 
like 100010001 should be accepted as a palindrome right?
length of 9 and is same forwards / backwards
well anyways, thanks for the help, I do think it looks good now, I still don't really get it though lol 😹
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Unsure of where to even start, other than the norm is non-zero everywherre but 0
Consider two orthonormal basis for V w.r.t. to each of the inner products
right
You only need to consider the orthonormal basis for the second inner product
also, weird that the exercise needs norms corresponding to inner products
why not just norms
anyways
Is it true for general norms?
I thought it was widely known
this is from LADR 😭
in the chapter on inner products
Let's oblige then ig
(just know you could have shown this w/out requiring inner product norms)
let's leave this as a bonus exercise
why is this
the answer lies in the proof itself
take v in V
and decompose it wrt said basis
wait lemme just check
sure, but computing the norm from that is near impossible
you're not gonna compute the norm, you're gonna bound it
(hint: how do you bound ||u+v+...||?)
Okay, I'll solve it in a norm-linear space then
triangle inequality
quick sanity check , does. the concept of orthonormal basis make sense in a norm linear space
or something similar
norm-linear space?
normed space
${\norm{\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i e_i}}1≤ \sum{i=1}^{n} \abs{a_i} {\norm{e_i}}_1$
wai
does this work?
yes
now under the same basis I decompose $v$ under the other norm
wai
sure but related to ||v||_2
by a constant factor
so it's useless to upper bound something that's already supposed to be an upper bound
imagine i want to show a <= b, and I show a <= c, b <= d
Showing c <= d will have no consequence on the proof
got it
Here, the trick is to show that each term of the sum is smaller than (constant)*||v||_2
then the sum will be smaller than n * ...
I was able to prove something similar I think
Let $e_1,e_2,\dots, e_n$ form a basis .
Then ${\norm{v}}1≤ c \sum{i=1}^{n}{\norm {a_ie_i}}_2$
wai
would this help us in anyway
Okay, so here I'm assuming norms satisfy |v|=0 iff v=0
$\frac{{\norm{e_1}}_1 }{{\norm{e_1}}_2} = c$ (say) . We then chose a number bigger than $c$, say $c_1$. That then gives us ${\norm{e_1}}_1≤ c_1 {\norm{e_2}}_2$
wai
repeating and then replacing each c_1 ,with max of all c_i, we get the inequality
ok good
now what we could do is, and I have an idea
So now, apply it to our problem, where e_1,...,e_n is specifically an orthonormal basis for <.,.>_2
I thought we could directly do it for normed spaces?
we could if you want to
I'd like to
ah, I guess you haven't seen compacity and borel theorem
no
ok so unfortunately I think you need compacity to understand why it works for every norm
So here the proof we're gonna use still requires ||.||_2 to be connected to an inner product
but notice we haven't used that ||.||_1 is linked to an inner product
I think I have a way around that
We know that $c \norm{ \sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i e_i }2≤ c \sum{i=1}^{n} \norm{a_i e_i}$.
wai
okay, let's do this, I guess the problem here will be getting a constant multiple
I know what you're going for, you forgot what I said above
.
ok
so now we have this, let's show $|a_ie_i|_2 \leq |v|_2$
Raphaelisius Maximus MMIII
this feels off, doesn';t this violate the triangle inequality
I feel what you want me to prove violates the triangle inequality
How so?
What triangle inequality would be incompatible with what I'm asking you to prove
$\sum_{i=1}^{n-1} a_i e_i =v; a_ne_n=u$
wai
ok?
I feel the inequality has to be reversed
????
here
nope
also, this would give us
keeping those notations
$|v|2 \leq |\sum{i=1}a_ie_i|_2 + |a_ne_n|_2$
Raphaelisius Maximus MMIII
yeah no there wasn't any
xd
it was just for one i
no, sorry
This is true as we're assuming the basis is orthonormal
this the idea to it
but prove it
${\norm{a_ie_i}^2}2≤\sum{i=1}^{n}{ \norm{a_ie_i}^2}_2 = {\norm{v}^2} _2$
wai
there we go
ah cool
maybe don't use the same i for the particular term and the index of the sum
so we stitch together the bit from the first part and this
now stitch this
with this
We can select $e_i$ to be a basis of $V$, such that it's orthonormal under $\langle.,. \rangle_2$.
\ It then directly follows $\norm{v}1≤c \sum{i=1}^{n}{\norm {a_ie_i}}_2$. Further $ \norm{a_ie_i}_2≤ \norm{v}_2$. It then follows $ \norm{v}1≤c \sum{i=1}^{n}{\norm {a_ie_i}}_2≤nc \norm{v}_2$.
wai
does this work
whats c
a positive constant
but what constant
is this supposed to be a full proof or no?
just the way to stitch together the two results proven here
so no
I can write a proper proof if needed though
We select ${e_1,e_2,\dots,e_n}$ to be an orthonormal basis under $\langle . , \rangle_2$. Under this basis $v= \sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i e_i$. Then there exists $c_1>0: \norm{v}1≤ c \sum{i=1}^{n} \norm{a_ie_i}_2$. Further $\norm{a_ie_i}_2 ≤ \norm{v}2$ so $\sum{i=1}^{n} \norm{a_ie_i}2≤ n \norm{v_n}$. It thus follows $c \sum{i=}^{n} \norm{a_ie_i}_2≤cn \norm{v_n}$. So $\norm{v}_1≤ nc \norm{v}_2$
wai
then what is the point of the message you just wrote
I dont understand it
its not a proper proof
so what is it for
this is the question
It was a reply to @visual tiger when he asked me to stitch the two parts together
but you stitched the results together here
so what is this for
You asked for a more comprehensive proof
so this was supposed to be a proper proof?
Isn't it comprehensive enough if I've proven all the required results previously
what is the point of the message summarizing the previous results if I still have to read through this chat to find out those previous results
what is the point of that
either give me a proper full proof or just give me nothing
Okay, will do
This is a mess
( typing it out)
I'll do it tomorrow, it's nearly 12 here
sorry
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hello, i have several questions from my textbook that i dont get quite understand, theyre word problems that are related to finding the derivative of when two functions/variables are multiplied or divided (idk correct terms since im translating everything im saying) like if f(x)= x^2 * 3x, the derivative would be (2x)(3x) + (x^2)(3)
anyway i hope i was able to clarify the lesson in my textbook, if it isnt too much, ill be sending 5 questions, i hope i dont need to send them one at a time, its fine if you can answer only 1 and then guide me with the rest
i downloaded the english version of my book to send these
what are you stuck on for 25
i cant understand what he wants me to decipher exactly
i understand 27 and 28 and im aware of how theyre solved
29 and 30 im lost but i know its something to do with derivative of something thats being divided
like is it really that straightforward?
yes theres nothing you have to do yourself they lay out all the steps
what is P'(t)?
0.03 p(t)
ok cool now find R'(t)
im in a "memorized not understood" kinda mindset with that tho
which is (q'(t)) (p(t)) + (q(t))(p'(t))
howd he find q'(t) and p'(t) seperately tho
and it was the percentage times the original function
is that a standard or is it exclusive to the question
huh? they said find R'(t) which is what you said and you know what Q'(t) and P'(t) is
just plug it in
alr then
just replace q'&p' by their values from the last step
29 and 30 are the real kicker for me
we'll get to those
memorised what
product rule?
R(t) = q(t) * p(t)
R'(t) = (q'(t)) (p(t)) + (q(t))(p'(t))
whats the division version called?
quotient rule
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I've been teaching myself linear algebra using Gemini and did a problem on paper, just want to know if I did my work properly. Here's the problem:
and my work:
yea
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Guys why am I getting negative time
In case those help
i believe it means that the event happened before your origin time
may i recommend using a pencil instead of a pen
your solution strictly decreases so there is no way to get it since the initial condition is P(0)=8
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wait
lol i probably should yea
so is my solution wrong ? I mean I'd assume that over time the disease spreads
your solution doesnt look wrong
your solution just means that if you went back in time by 0.159 days, you would have 100 cases
yea ill leave it i guess
my teacher sometimes makes bad questions
not sure why its the disease is decreasing but wtvv
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hi i need help
You know how R^3 works?
If you assume R^3 is a 3-tuple of 3 real numbers
And that R is the set of all real numbers, which I wont define cause thats complicating things too much
Then R^3 is a vector (a,b,c)
Which are elements from a set " {something something} "
well
If our set becomes {0,1}
Then {0,1}^3 is the set of vectors of 3 elements either 1 or 0
Which, from the computation side, is basically a string of bits
From there, x \in {0,1}^3 means that x is a 3-bit string
And x0 is a kind of notation abuse
But for this case, we assume x0 implies adding a 0 as the Least significant Bit (the rightmost)
i dont get it bro
R is a set, right?
{0,1} is too.
A set to the square/cube/nth power is shorthand for the sets of vectors constructed from the original set.
$\mathbb{R}^3$ has $(a,b,c)$ for $a,b,c\in\mathbb{R}$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
${0,1}^3$ has $(a,b,c)$ for $a,b,c$ being an element from ${0,1}$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
So, either 0 or 1
R^3 has infinite elements since R has infinite elements too
{0,1} and its 3-tuples dont have infinite elements though
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but R is a set of lists
those bits are put in witout paranthesis
Nope, R is a set of numbers
{0,1} is a set of numbers too
R^3 is a set of Real Valued Vectors
{0,1}^is a set of 0 or 1 Valued Vectors.
hloo
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Someone else is already using this help channel. If you need help with a question, please open your own help channel/thread (see #❓how-to-get-help for instructions).
messi or ronaldo
Shut the hell up and go to #discussion 🥀
did i make you angry
welcome to the server! please head to #discussion or #chill to chat.
set of lists of numbers..no??
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
Set of Real Numbers
yes but like
No, R is defined as a set of numbers
what do you call numbers in paranthesis
Set
oh, thats a vector
you're looking for the term "ordered pairs".
Sure?
or "ordered tuples" in general.
Yes, a vector is synonym for ordered tuple.
Does (a, b) mean the open interval
Well not really but sure
okay yeah, but not in this case
I’m asking lnrd
$$ R^3 = R x R x R = { (r1,r2,r3) : r1 ∈ R , r2 ∈ R , r3 ∈ R }
{0,1}^2 = { ? } $$
LNRD
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
{(0, 0), (0, 1), (1, 0), (1, 1)}
badtex
if you want a cross for multiplication it's \times
how do you write that in definition terms
${0, 1}^2 = {(a, b): a \in {0, 1}, b\in {0, 1}}$
frosst
$\mathbb{R}^3 = \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} = \{ (r_1, r_2, r_3) : r_1 \in \mathbb{R}, r_2 \in \mathbb{R}, r_3 \in \mathbb{R} \}$
Ann
oh
btw whats the original q
It’s exactly what you would’ve thought it was
I didn’t do anything fancy
I just wrote exactly what you did but replaced some of the stuff with the new problem
i see
which cant be truly listed since there are infinite elements in it
meanwhile {0,1} is also a set, but with finite elements
One could imagine this if one wanted to
Every real number is a list of integers in its decimal expansion
is this the original q?
So technically you could say that R is a set of lists of integers
Nope
You’d need to define what random means
letting A and B be sets
where are we at, actually. im a little confused
(a, b) is used to denote any arbitrary element of A x B
Lets go over, do you understand what {0,1} is?
like i walked in to see some badtex that i fixed but what is the actual question you're asking or thing you're looking at right now specifically @last slate
im just trying to figure out definitions
of what
Initially it was with strings
what object are you looking at rn that you're trying to figure out the defn of
(a,b) is an element from this set
{0,1}^2 is "formally" {(0,0), (0,1), (1,0), (1,1)} but commonly written as {00, 01, 10, 11} when talking about bitstrings
What do you mean by parenthesis
Cos {} and () are different
parentheses are not some kind of magical beast with a life of their own btw
LMAO
we humans design our own notation
let's maybe step back a little; do you understand what a cartesian product is? @last slate
yes
ok
ill send the definition
then
{0,1}^2 is "formally" {(0,0), (0,1), (1,0), (1,1)}
do you also understand this?
look at the set on the right
We have ordered pairs
sure do.
But there isnt in the set on the right
ok, so your hangup is on how to quote-unquote "go from"
{(0,0), (0,1), (1,0), (1,1)}
to
{00, 01, 10, 11}
do i understand you correctly yes or no
Or rather why dont we have the second one
?
query unanswered
query unanswered
Uh
not really
im just hung up on how the definition is related to the product of the 2 sets
yeah
like different parts of the definition
alright,
"the definition". send it here please.
do you mean A × B = {(a,b) : a ∈ A, b ∈ B}?
yes
that
does this apply for every cartesian product of any 2 sets ever
The cartesian product of A and B A × B is a set constructed from two others.
Where all its elements are created from taking one elements from A, and one from B
All the elements from the cartesian product are equal to all the combinations possible.
yeah this is what i was asking
i was told no
by whom and where and when
do you remember the exact things that were said
.
you said "random"
they are not random
the elements of A × B are ALL POSSIBLE combinations of a member of A with a member of B
Lets say we have two sets A= {1,2,3} B= {4,5,6}
The elements from AxB are:
A×B= {(1,4), (1,5), (1,6), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6)}
They simply cover all possibilities for mixing
with A = {0,1}, B = {0,1}
We end up with this.
And we use {0,1}^2 as shorthand for the cartesian product of that.
Yes
To be honest this is a bit of misnomer for the definition, but yeah, lets suppose
so why isnt R^3 x R^3 = { ( (a1,b1,c1) , (a2,b2,c2) … ) }
because (a,b,c) is an element
R^3 X R^3 has elements* ((a1,b1,c1) , (a2,b2,c2) )
you have an extra pair of brackets
But for ease we define it as (a,b,c,d,e,f)
however if you even need to treat R^3 × R^3 as a thing it is easiest to pretend it is the same as just R^6
it's kinda... not that deep ig
but thats not how its defined tho right
they do { (a1,b1) , (a2,b2) }
Because ur supposed to put the elements in the brackets and (a,b,c) is an element
are you just trying to think about this shit by yourself or are you trying to solve a problem with it
are you solving a homework question rn
no
ok so this is just idle musings
i am doing HW but not regarding thr R^3 question
so basically your question is "why doesn't R^3 × R^3 consist of fuckers that look like ((x1,y1,z1),(x2,y2,z2)) ie ordered pairs in which both coordinates are themselves 3-tuples?"
do i NOW understand you correctly?
answer yes/no only
Yes
right
ok well the answer to that is
formally it does, but we usually "flatten" that sorta nested tuple into just a basic 6-tuple for convenience
what does that mean?
it means we strip off all those layers of brackets and put the same six numbers in the same order into one big tuple
it means we pretend R^3×R^3 is just R^6
the difference between these sets is rather technical, bureaucratic and just doesn't matter 99.9% of the time
and does this thing exist in other sets
this kind of manipulation
at this point i cant trust the definition anymore or them
It looks complicated
Lowkey
You can probably understand that R^2 x R^2 -> ((a,b) , (c,d) )
is obviously different in structure from R^4 -> (a,b,c,d)
right
And this will sound overcomplicated, but the connection between the two is a function.
But since those two structures, for us humans, seem so similar
We just consider them to be equal for practical cases.
generally A^n × A^k is identified with A^(n+k) in the same way
Its just an ordered list of 4 elements, it generally doesnt matter how we "bunch them up"
But again, the R^2 X R^2 -> R^4 isnt really special, and there are arguably more interesting ways to "re-structure" it.
Am i good with exactly following the definition
and taking the elements as they are
@cerulean oyster
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Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of measurable, real-valued functions. Does it make sense to ask if $n\mapsto f_n(x)$ is measurable?\
Context; I have a sequence of exponentially distributed variables $U_1,U_2,\ldots$ and positive integer-valued random variable $N$. Then my book defines $U_i'=U_{N+i}$ and claims $U_i'$ is a random variable.
psie
@inland patio Has your question been resolved?
@inland patio Has your question been resolved?
Ui' is a map from your probability space to R, not a map from N to R
yes, but it is a composition of maps. Do you understand the maps it is composed of?
$\omega \in \Omega \mapsto (U_{N(\omega) + i})(\omega)$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
Hmm, ok. That's the full map. Perhaps it is not a composition?
Its a composition, but you shouldn't view it as such
Ok. I'm just curious how one would verify that this map is a random variable.
The inverse image of every measurable set in R will It like a big union and intersection of sets, which are measursble in omega
Something like based on where N(w) is fixed
Try it as an exercise
Hmm, could you please elaborate a bit more? The $N$ in my original post is actually the Poisson process $(N_t){t\geq0}$ and I'm reading a proof of the fact that if $t>0$, and we set for every $r\geq0$, $N_r^{(t)}=N{t+r}-N_t$, then the collection $(N_r^{(t)}){r\geq0}$ is also a Poisson process. The author introduces $U_i'=U{N_t+i}$ and claims they are random variables, but without proof.
psie
I've been stuck for quite some time on this. 
$$(U_{N+i})^{-1}(A) = \bigcup_{n \in \bN} \left ( (U_{N+i})^{-1}(A) \cap N^{-1}(n) \right)$$
$$ = \bigcup_{n \in \bN} \left ( (U_{n+i})^{-1}(A) \cap N^{-1}(n) \right)$$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
Interesting, thank you very much. 👍 I have to carefully think about your equalities.
By the way, we assume $\mathbb{N}$ is equipped with the power set, right?
psie
Like the sigma algebra?
Yes.
Well its just the lebesgue measure
And the borel sigma algebra
Which includes P(N)
Ah, ok. 👍
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given an ABC triangle, knowing that vct AB = (4, -2, 1); vct AC = (-1, -4, 0) and centriod G (-1, 1, 2/3). D(x; y ;z) is any points, prove that z(D) = 2
I tried to use the centriod
the uhm..
since D is any point
vct DA + vct DB + vct DC = 3 vect DG
so that will be
A - D + B - D + C - D = 3G - 3D
or, A + B + C - 3D = 3G - 3D
but..
A + B + C - 3D + 3D = 3G
and because of that, there will be no D
but im finding D
can you all tell me what did i do wrong?
or.. teach me a way to find the z of point D?
Damn wth
Do you have a picture of the question
Sure whatever language it is
Maybe someone will know
,rccw
okay I have no idea what it says
@coarse ledge Has your question been resolved?
if D is any point then its z coordinate can be anything
oh..
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lạy
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in this question, why cant i simply equate pressures a depth of 36cm from the top of the U-Tube?
why must I equate the pressures at the interface?
Because the pressures at the interface need to be the same, or the interface will move
The pressures at a depth of 36cm on each side are not the same, so you can't equate them
o
i see
ty dreyuk
np
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<@&268886789983436800>
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oh that was super fast
bam
⚡
.close (oh, already did)
.
A spammer hit a lot of them.
cuz shit happens sometimes and we need help with those
Can you show what they send
No. A series of images that look like they were attempting to recruit victims for an advance-fee scam.
in short, stuff irrelevant to the help channels
Something 2222?
I'm not sure what 2222 means in this context.
Then no
I have a friend who got hacked recently
And the guy who went on his account spammed pictures similar to description you said
Typically they're a sequence of three or four images of laptop screens that appear to show someone withdrawing prize money from the scam site. We ban them pretty much on sight, so if you're referencing some detail in the images, we won't see it before reaching for the banhammer. As soon as you see "[celebrity] is launching a crypto casino ..." there's no need to read further.
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what i dont get is
in the solution to this question
why is the pressure at the line marked p_atm + d_2yg + d_1xg
like where tf did the d_1xg term come from
what's P, what's P_atm?
I think the pressure p should be at the red line level. The pressure is equal at both arms at red line level. On right side arm of the U-tube, its pressure is p, since only the trapped air exerts pressure. On the left arm, the pressure is exerted by the x-long column of d1 liquid + y-long column of d2 liquid + atmosphere
hmm makes much more sense
but clearly pressure at interface here isnt 0
so shouldnt i first let it be at equilibrium??
well, you kinda have to assume, since it only makes sense for the measurement to be at equilibrium
bruh
otherwise you need fluid velocities
well no like send it to equilibrum (left goes down by x right goes up by x stuff)
but yeah that isnt solvable either i think
why would it? the trapped air column supports this configuration
thats why you get this pressure equation
but the p we derived is clearly not equal to d_2yg+p_atm which is interface pressure
theres a pressure gradiant so shouldnt it flow to equilibrium first?
p would be p_atm + d_2yg + d_1xg this
yes yes
but
how can u assume
if its different like
is this an eg. of where i shouldnt use mah brain too much?
honestly, I dont quite get what you are trying to say
do you wanna introduce shm of the interface levels here or smthn?
whts shm here?
simple harmonic motion
since you dont think its in equilibrium, the liquid would oscillate
well it would eventually reach equilibrium right
with the levels going up and down about the mean equilibrium position
yes
and stay in that state right
which I am assuming is already reached, coz you are clearly doing hs fluids
but clearly it isnt
like yes m doing hs
yea, I meant steady state equilibrium position
again, why do you say this? I see no reason for you to assume this is not stable
the pressure at the line originally marked (the interface) is not same on both sides
and i have verified this numerically
can you post what all you did
coz in both, stable and unstable condition, the pressure should be equal at the interface
well i was confused so i ended up looking at the soln
so p = p_atm + d_1xg +d_2yg
putting values we find that
p = 2p_atm (nearly)
but p_atm + d_2yg is not 2p_atm
ok, so you solved p = np (
) and found n = 2
yes and then i checked whether the interface pressure was equal
which it clearly wasnt
why tf would it be? 2P_atm is supposed to equal p_atm + d_1xg +d_2yg, not p_atm +d_2yg
because p_atm + d_2yg is pressure at the line on the left side, and p=2p_atm is the pressure at the line on the right side
no.?
we're talking bout the black line right
I get what you are saying, but the pressure at black line on right side is not gonna be p
it would be less by d1xg
wth
