#help-49
1 messages · Page 243 of 1
Oh so you meant -3 and 1 instead of -4 and 2?
Yeah that's what I said
Alright
Increasing Int : ( -3, infinity) u - Infinity, 1) (-infinity, -1)
Decreasing Int : (- infinity, -3) u (-1, infinity) u (1, - infinity)
Ok, why (-3, infinity)?
cause its going up right here
i thought you guys said that increasing interval is where the graph is increasing
but we dont have any coordinates tho
We have an entire set of coordinates, the x-axis
Do you understand what a function's domain is exactly?
yes a bit
Tell me
whatever x cannot equal
No, the opposite
um
A function's domain is the set of inputs (values of x) that the function accepts
oh okay
Yes, this domain is all of R, except 1 and -3
That's what this notation means
righttt okay okay
An interval is also a set, just written differently
oh okayy oh okay thats why theres infinity basically for XER
For example, the interval $(1, 5)$ is equivalent to ${x \in \mathbb{R} \mid x > 1 \land x < 5}$
Nel
Does that make sense to you?
okay okay yea
Another example: $(-\infty, +\infty) = \mathbb{R}$
Nel
rightttttt okay okay
R is just the interval from -inf to +inf
And R is, of course, also a set
Now, the interval(s) of increase of a function is the interval on which the function is increasing
alr
So if you give me (-3, +inf), I'm going to understand it as f increases from -3 all the way to +infinity
And I'm not talking about the y values here, only the x values
(although you need to know that the y values increase, of course)
wait so infinty from where
from -3 to -4 and so on for -3 to -2 and 0 and so forth
Wdym
For all x > -3
(-3, +inf) = {x in R | x > -3}
right okay okay
If you understand that better, can you try again?
okay soooo
Interval of Increasing : (-inf, -3)u (inf, -1)u (1,infinity)
Interval of Decreasing ( - infinity, -3) u(-1, infinity) u(2, infinity)
broo its hard on PC okay! 😭
What is?
looking at the graph
wait nel did i get the -inf,-3 right tho
Yeah, f is indeed increasing on (-inf, -3)
WOOOO
You're gonna have to choose though, you also said it's decreasing on that same interval
is this part decreasing?
I think you need to review quite a lot of definitions
u right'
A function is increasing if the y values increase as the x values increase
In other words, the graph goes up, when read from left to right
A function is decreasing if the y values decrease as the x values increase (graph going down, still reading from left to right)
WAITTT so my (-inf, -3)
it represents that right
All the way to the left end of the number line, yes
anyway can i ask u abt this
i thought the right side is the postive infinity side
Did you mean to write (-inf, -1)?
no +inf
When reading just "inf", I assume +inf
An interval is a set of values between two bounding values, where you write the lower bound first and the upper bound second
+inf cannot be the lower bound if -1 is the upper bound
sooo basically it wouldve been -inf, -1 still
I can't read your mind
im so confused
i thought these follow the exact rules
unless it was -3 to -1
which it isnt cause it doesnt connect to each other
I'm really not sure what you mean
In green is the interval (-inf, -3); in purple is the interval (-1, +inf)
Those are just examples
You can clearly see that f is increasing in the green part, but hopefully you realize that's not the only part where f is increasing
oh
oh okay soooo
Increasing Int (-inf , -3) u (-3,-1)
Decreasing Int (-1, 1) (1, infinity)
?
Yes
like all of it?
Yes, that's all
It's the part left uncolored here
What is not making sense to you?
I don't understand
its fine dw abt it ill prob just figure it out in the next 6 hours alone
Are you talking about the discontinuity at -3 or the point where it changes at -1?
yes
YES
... which one
Right well that's why we write (-inf, -3) u (-3,-1) and not just (-inf, -1)
-3 is not in the domain, so we skip it
It doesn't matter that it's not connected, we only care that f increases there (in each interval)
ohhh okay
Similarly we write (-1, 1) u (1, +inf) instead of (-1, +inf) since 1 is not in the domain
ohhh okay
Alright I'm off, maybe @frozen talon can take over if you have any more questions (the range? your teacher made a mistake there, so...)
no its fine ill prob js figure it out
gn guys
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p(x) and q(x) are polynomials with a degree of 3 that satisfy:
p(0) = q(0)
p(1) = q(2)
p(2) = q(4)
p(3) = q(6)+30
Find the value of p(4)-q(8).
What have you tried?
I'm still typing bro wait
just joined, hi
I found that p(x)≥q(x)
So I can say that
p(x) = ax³ + bx² + cx + d
q(x) = ex³ + fx² + gx + h
p(0) = q(0), thus h=d
p(1) = q(2) -> p(1) - q(2) = 0
p(2) = q(4) -> p(2) - q(4) = 0
p(3) = q(6) + 30 -> p(3) - q(6) = 30
First equation:
p(2)-p(1)=q(4)-q(2)
8a+4b+2c-a-b-c = 64e+16f+4g-8e-4f-2g
7a+3b+c=56e+12f+2g
Second equation:
p(3)-q(6)=30
27a+9b+3c-216e-36f-6g=30
hi, welcome to the server! to chat, please head to #discussion!
Since a and e are both on x³ then a=e.k for some coefficient k
i think you're going about this in a difficult way
Ok, so that's one way to do it ig... there's much simpler jic
yeah
Simpler how?
As a hint, you're not supposed to consider polynomials p and q
let f(x) := p(x) - q(2x)
Well the cat's out of the bag ig
then
- f is of degree ≤ 3
- f(0) = f(1) = f(2) = 0
- f(3) = 30
- goal is f(4)
yeah i guess it is
meow
f(x) = x³-x²+4x?
f(1) is not 0 here
Coefficient method probably isn't the easiest again. You can try to find factored form of f
is it not?
p(1)=q(2) is stated
oh do you mean his f doesnt satisfy
Yes
Idk, using system of equations?
Not really
You just need to multiply f by a good coefficient
it won't change f(0),f(1) or f(2) since they stay at 0
But it'll change f(3) to what you need
the thing is f being a cubic with roots 0, 1, 2 actually leaves us with one more degree of freedom you havent considered. you dont know that f(x) = x(x-1)(x-2) but rather that f(x) = kx(x-1)(x-2)
and this k is what you're to find out using f(3)=30
Didnt know that property of a cubic equation
So I can just multiply the equation till I get 30?
So just multiply by 5?
Since f(x) = kx(x-1)(x-2)
f(3)=k(3)(3-1)(3-2)=30
k(3)(2)(1)=30
k=5?
Yes
i have an idea maybe would work
you see that that the input in the function q is 2*the input in the function p so you can write the functions as:
p(x)=ax^3+bx^2+cx+d
q(2x)=ex^3+fx^2+gx+h
and from the first given we know that d=h
now define a function of difference f(x)=p(x)-q(2x) and want p(4)-q(8) so we want f(4)
f(x)=(a-e)x^3+(b-f)x^2+(c-g)x=x(ix^2+jx+k)->(just replace the constant to make it more simple)
and from the givens we have x=0,1,2 are roots so solve for i,j,k then find f(4)
Well that's what we did
But not even needing to solve for i,j,k, we can just write f(x) = kx(x-1)(x-2) as we know 0,1,2 are roots of f which is cubic
And solve only for one coefficiebt
i did not see cuz i was typing🫠
Sure, but isn't it easier to compute f(4) with its factored form
yes that better
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Why is the answer to life, the universe, and everything 42 if 37 appears everywhere.
?
help channels aren't the place to ask such philosophical questions.
please use #chill or #discussion
HGTTG
hitchhikers guide to the galaxy
"The Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy is a comedy science fiction franchise created by Douglas Adams"
if its comedy fiction why are people taking it seriously
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Pls help. I got -1/sqrt(x^2 -a^2)
I've done answers A and E both are wrong
are u sure about the -1?
yes
This is through my uni aswell omfg will be complaining to the higher ups
no way 😭 this is a resource from uni?
bte
btw u shouldn't use direct proofs
try to derive them yourself to double check
I looked online and it seems that you're right
YES
Absolutely unbelieveable
I've spent like 20 mins trying to figure out how I've been getting this wrong
they probably had a typo from the line but thats unacceptable ngl
hope u win the case
Are the rest of these right out of curiosity ?
yess
just the middle one
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God this is to hard I’m going to cry
,tex .alg lesson
riemann
you serious 💀
🙏
Is this a helping sever or just a piss take
anyway lets work it step by step
I struggle with maths and it’s hard for me
first divide both side by 2
you can just read this if you don't wanna get bullied by them
write what you got
The LHS and RHS
Divide the left hand side and the right hand side of the equal sign by 2
Yeah I did it
think of it like a weight balance
if two plates have the same mass
they are balanced
I got 1 and 4
I am asking for the equation
2x + 2 = 8?
Also the thing is the equation has 1 variable and degree 1
so there can be only 1 answer
why 8?
in question it is given 10
☠️
no multiply 2 to both x and 1
1
you remember distributive property?
Haven’t learnt that
ohh
Secondary schools here don’t teach that
anyway distributive property is
I’m literally good at maths with other stuff this one’s a little bit hard because I have loads of notes but no examples on this type of question
a(b+c)=ab+ac
you got this?
Here’s a example how we do it
what does it simplify to
2(1+2)=?
see you would genrally add first
dont do that
are you done?
when you divide
firstly when you divided why did you leave out the +1?
You meant to do opposite
2(x+1) divided by 2 is (x+1) not x
bro I am just correcting the process
think of like 2(3+1) divided by 2 would be (3+1)
not 3
Kk
because 2(3+1)=2*4=8 which divided by 2 is 4=(3+1)
Ty for helping
ok
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Im genuinely confused on the phrasing of this proposition
Let me try and explian what i understand
So there is a set A and what [[2]]^A does is it maps functions from A to either 0 or 1. Now the POWER set of A maps the subsets of A to either a 0 or 1. So say I had the set A = {a,b}. The power set would be, empty set, {a}, {b}, {a,b} right
then when the mapping takes place
u can get smth like {0}, {1}, {0,1} respectively?
such that 0 corresponds to a
and 1 corresponds to b?
im so confused
but how do u know that 0 correspond to a and 1 to b?
[[2]]^A is a set of functions, it doesn’t really map anything, so it would be more correct to say [[2]]^A is the set of functions that map elements of A to either 0 or 1
Same thing with the power set, it’s the set of subsets of A, it doesn’t map them
This is just regrading the wording though
do we know whch elements go to 0 and which to 1
so what exactly is this proposition talking abt
No, what you get are indicator functions of those subsets
Can you explain what the indicator function of a subset is?
well i know that an indicator function like say ID_B is one which if B is a subset of A and say we took out a subset of A, it would output a 1 if that element in the subset we took out was also an element in B but 0 if it wasnt
You mean took out an element* of A?
wait
so we take out an element in a
Oh wait
yh
Yes, that’s correct
so we take out an element of A and it will let me knwo if its in the subset B or not
So 1|({a}) would be the indicator function of {a} as a subset of {a, b}. If you want to describe 1|({a}), it’s better to do it with its mappings
Which are 1|({a})(a) = 1 and 1|({a})(b) = 0
sorry im not understanding notation lemme digest this
ahh yes
i get it
so say we had 1|({b}) and the set {a,b,c} then it would only put a one if b was pulled out
alright so how does the proposition work with that idea
What do you mean by putting and pulling out here exactly?
like it would output a 1
show a 1
idk how to say it
for my example
i understand identity now
Okay, can you explain to me what a bijection is?
well if something is surjective and injective then its bijective
and injectove is
if f(a) = f(b) then a= b for a certian function f to be injective
and for sujective
there exists a b in B such that for all a in A f(a) = b?
For every b in B* there exists such an a in A
Right, so injectivity of 1| would mean that if indicator functions coincide, the subsets must be equal
And surjectivity means that if I were to give you function A -> [[2]], it can be interpreted as an indicator function of some subset of A
oh so we're saying if the subsets output the same "array" of 1 and 0 then they are identical?
Yes
Any ideas on how to show that?
wait im not understanding this
So here the codomain of 1| is [[2]]^A and the domain is P(A)
ahh wait
so if u give me an array of 1 and 0 then i can somehow get back the order of subset?
yep
The sentence “for every element of codomain, there is some element of domain mapping to it” translates to “for every function A -> [[2]], there must be some subset of A with exactly that function as its indicator finction”
ahhhh yes
i see
That’s the idea, but do keep in mind that what I’m giving you is a function rather than an array
yep yep, just for my own understanding
well to prove the bijection, i can prove its injective first
Yup, any ideas on how to do that?
if say i have 2 subsets of A
say B, B'
wait no
lemme go back to fundamentals, f(a) = f(b) then a = b right
so
yes so if i have 2 subsets B and B'
if i assume that identity_B = identoty_B'
then B = B' ?
Yes, that’s what you want to show
hm
Should say assume here rather than show
ah yes sorry
can i have a hint?
😭
wait
lemme think abt this acc
well if i say i have an element in B, sy b we have that Identity_B (b) = 1
and i assumed that identity_B = identoty_B'
so tht means
identity_B' (b) = 1
also
wait
im confusing myself
You’re on the right track
Now what does this tell you?
well if they both equal 1
im just going in a loop surely
Well, what does this tell you according to the definition of identity_B'?
b is also in B'
ohhh
Yup
ohh so B = B'
So every element of B is an element of B'
Not yet
What you’ve shown is just this
oh do i need to do a converse?
You also want to show that every element of B’ is an element of B
Yes, exactly
like if I assume b is an element in B' then id_B' (b) = 1
However, you can notice that reversing the statements in this reasoning gives you a valid proof of that
Yup
what im having triuble understanding is
So now we know B = B' and 1| is indeed injective
why do i make this assumption in the first place, the only reasoning i got from this is from the f(a) = f(b) implies a=b for injectivity
what acc is the purpose
so we assume that the identites are true then show theyre true?
We assume that the identities are equal and then show the inputs are also equal
oh wait we assume that f(a) = f(b) then show that a=b
ah yes
i get that
for sujectivity tho
so going back to the beginning, For every b in B there exists an a in A st f(a) = b
so
in this case
for every [[2]]^A there exists a subset of A such that..
f(A) = 1?
nah
For every function f: A -> [[2]], there exists a subset B of A such that 1|(B) = f
identity of B = f? what does this mean
so from the identity output we can work out what inputs we had?
Functions being equal means that, besides their domains and codomains being the same, their outputs are always the same for each input
So identity_B(a) = f(a) for all a in A
wait but Identity_B(a) only outputs 0 or 1 right
Yes
but surely f(a) outputs other things?
ohhhhhh
wait
no
f(a) also outputs {0,1}
Yup
so we're saying that what erer element we put in f, we get the same output from the identity?
hm but to prove surjectivity
OH WAIT
Yes
I believe that only changes how you’re wording the proof
The ultimate goal is to describe a subset of A whose identity equals f
ill try so
wait idt what im thinking makes sense
if i say B is the subset right then if a is an element of B
so B being like the preimage of 1
then Identity_B (a) = 1
and so like f(a) = 1
but if a is NOT in B then identity_B (a) = 0
and so f(a) =! 1
You might have meant a being the preinage of 1 under identity_B
so f(a) must be 0
yess this
i need to consolidate pre images 😭
is that valid
Yeah, so how can you describe B using f given that logic?
like if its not 1
then it will be 0 as its the only other element in [[2]]
which makes it surjective
well if B doesnt contain a then it
<@&268886789983436800>
💀
hm
say B contains a then identity_B (a) = 1
if it doesnt contain a then identity_B(a) = 0
so like f(a) is either 0 or 1
which is the domain
idk if that makes sense
Technically you’re getting close, the codomain of f being [[2]] and the implications you mentioned tell you that the converses are also true
Now replace identity_B with f and what you get is that
f(a) = 0 implies a is not an element of B and f(a) = 1 implies a is an element of B
So, B is the set of all a in A such that f(a) = 1
And this finishes the proof of surjectivity
Which also finishes the proof of bijectivity
ahh this makes sense yea
damn that was nice proof
tysm ❤️
genuinely made me understand 
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heyy,
guys why if x²=y <=> x=sqroot(y) or x=-sqroot(y)
but sqroot of x is always positive ?
like per exemple : sqroot of 4 is always 2, but 2 squared and -2 squared are both 4.
why ?
( that's what i found in reddit and google )
the sqrt function only returns positive values
so if you have y=sqrt(x), y will always be positive for valid x
when solving y=x^2 however, because (-x)^2=x^2 -x and x are solutions
sqrt(4)=2 only
if y^2=4 then y could be 2 or -2
sqrt(x^2) = |x|,
(not x, which is where the misconceptions come from)
sorry but u just reapeted what i just said
i'm asking why
assuming y is non-negative,
thing the sqrt of both sides gives
sqrt(x^2) = sqrt(y)
|x| = sqrt(y)
and from that the result you posted
when it was defined they would have to choose the positive or negative root
otherwise it wouldnt have been a function (2 y values for x values)
so we chose to only return the positive one sqrt(x^2)=|x|
i didnt understand why sqrt of 4 is only 2 even if 2 and -2 squared are both 4
as i know the sqrt is the value that if u square it, it gives u the value under root
i didn't understand u
If sqrt(4)=2 and -2
then sqrt(x) wouldn't be a function, because we would have multiple outputs to one input
so the sqrt function was chosen to return the positive root only - so it would be one-one
and so defined sqrt(x^2)=|x|
ow, i didnt learn this :((
wait
if sqrt of x can't have 2 solutions
why if we have x²=y we have 2 solutions for x
because x^2 is still one-one
its not a problem if two x values return the same y value
but one x value cant have two y values
(for it to be a function)
aaa ?
i didn't understand
x can have 2 values cuz it's squared okey i got it
but why sqroot of x can't have 2 values
,w graph y=x^2
,w graph y=sqrt(x), y=-sqrt(x)
alright, just that top graph
thats what it would look like if sqrt(x) returned both the positive root and negative root
but you can see that its not a function, because for one x value, we have two y values (except at 0)
here we can see every x value has a single y value, so its a function
tysm for ur efforts to explain to me, but i didn't understand
sm1 explain to me guys !
?
x²=y isn't a function ?
if it is x=y², isnt a function ?
no, because take x=4, we have y=2 and y=-2
so its not injective
tysm
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Idk what im soing
What happened to the dx
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Help please
With number 12
I believe you need to put 26 under a root
Idk
imaginary
Yea
:clueless:
26i is 26 times the imaginary unit.
That
lmfao
But its wrong 😑
I know what i is, just curious why it's written that way
...no?
On formative
lol
Wait can you help me with these instead because I think that problem is broken
X squared plus 2x +11=0
Using quadratic formula
maybe it wants you to leave the answer in root form instead of evaluating it to the imaginary unit
nice
did you just leave it in root form? is that what they want?
if it is, we'll leave all future answers in root form
The answer was x= -1+or minus i square root 26 over 3
ah then you missed a root sign
as for this, I presume it's $x^2 + 2x + 11 = 0$?
Mikya
if it is, it's the same trick
throw this into the quadratic formula the same way you did q12
Ok
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hey
hi
do you have a question?
👀
ye we have the same question
ye but that didnt help me @lament creek
then what's your question?
or, if you have the exact same problem as the OP there, what did you not understand?
(about the helper's explanation)
i was just geniunely confused on how horizontal asymtotes, work here cuz here's what im thinking. 1/sinx , the denominator has a higher exponent than numerator, then why wouldn't the the horizontal asymtote be at 0.
sin(x) is not a polynomial function.
take the limit of 1/sin(x) as x grows without bound (or simply consider what happens to the graph as x keeps getting bigger)
so i would do 1/sin(100) or something liekt hat
you'll find that the graph oscillates between the section above sin(x) and the section below sin(x) forever
depending on the sign of sin(x)
key point is that the graph never approaches a fixed value as x keeps getting bigger
hmm i see whatchu mean
therefore, there is no HA
so always i do as x apporaches infinity, what's the value gonna be bigger or smaller right?
no. the concept of HAs is that they represent some fixed value that the function tends to as x grows without bound
keyword: fixed
oh, so if it has more than 1 value it doens't have a fixed ha
ok make sense
also do u know any other type of questions where a equation is not a polynomial function
like maybe cosx could work
thank you so much
this helped me a lot
trignonometric functions, logarithmic functions, exponential functions
at least three
do you still have questions? if not, you can .close the channel, and welcome to the server!
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I have found a way for just 2 circles and any given distance
This is the Problem of Apollonius. It is not trivial
Isaac Newton did it in his Principia Mathematica Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica
Hmmm
isn't principia russell's work
or is one of us confusing themselves
Oops
Newton wrote one too
Math Olympiad?
Yes
It's on that level
you can do it with basic geometry
It's just really hard
You have to be pretty bright to see that path without help
Does it involve inversion or just normal constructions
iirc, you can do it with just properties of hyperbolas
(yes, using just compass-straightedge constructions)
I will give it another try then
good luck. I don't even remember the whole proof 🙂
@rare maple Has your question been resolved?
@rare maple maybe try ET function
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Hey
yes po, I need help
sure, just ask your question
there will always be people who can help you, and it's faster if you post it right away 
Ok. Whats your question?
@timid topaz Has your question been resolved?
1f: Missing curly brackets. Should be {1,3,5,7,9}.
1g: good.
1h: good.
1i: good.
1j: good.
2a: good.
2b: good.
2c: good.
2d: good.
3: I'm pretty sure they want curly brackets for the enumerations. Ex. For part a, {6,7,8,...}.
a) I don't see why x would have to be even. x being an integer should be fine.
b) Omit the x = part of your inequality in the set builder - x is not equal to one singular value, but rather can take on an interval of values (as shown with your inequality). Also, does the grade have to be an integer? Because your enumeration and set builder notation conflict. Finally, if the maximum grade is 100, then your enumeration should be written up to 100 (writing 99 ... suggests you can have all integers more than 99, including values like 101).
c) Same advice for omitting the x = as in part b holds. Enumeration should be fine.
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would i figure this out by checking the second and third derivatives
what's a point of undulation
what's point of inflection
That's what you would do
i just wanna check if she knows
Ah
cuz like obvi ur not gonna check that with the 4th derivative
Mbmb
when 3rd = not zero
yeah so to answer ur original question
no
u check that with 5th derivative
7th deriv < 8th deriv
Huh
Zah is back
Are you sure?
Google gives me "Second derivative is zero and curvature does not change sign"
But third derivative = 0 is not equivalent to 'curvature does not change sign'
hmmm
Which would be the opposite of a point of inflection
Where curvature does change sign
Can you check your definitions?
yh okay
Is it this?
so is d correcT?
Right
f'(x) = 5x^4 + 1 and f''(x) = 20x^3, left to 0 it's negative and right to it it's positive
i.e. curvature does change at 0
i.e. inflection point
meanwhile the third derivative is zero, yes. This shows that it can still happen that it's an inflection point, third derivative zero does not imply that it's an undulation point
@leaden seal
What does hold though, is that third derivative nonzero and second derivative zero => point of inflection
@leaden seal Has your question been resolved?
idk what you mean by left to zero is positive
I said left to 0 f'' is negative
Like plug in x = -0.1
(-0.1)^3 is negative
and 20 * that is also negative
At 0, f''(0) = 0
It changes from negative to positive though
Because a little left from 0, f''(x) < 0 and a little right to it, f''(x) > 0
sadly i dont understand this i will read up on it now
f'' describes the curvature, right?
If it's positive, it's convex (curved upwards), if it's negative, it's concave (curved downwards)
If we say the curvature changes at one points, we mean it goes from convex to concave or from concave to convex
And this means a little left from the point, it has to have the old curvature, a little right to it, the new one
(because in the middle, at the actual point, it changes)
for this question would it be cos(very large number)e^very large number
@leaden seal Has your question been resolved?
Hmm not sure about that cos(very large number)
Remember cos theta is oscillating between -1 and 1
Yeah so
What happens to the e^x part
As x->∞
@leaden seal
@leaden seal Has your question been resolved?
becomes infinity?
Yeah it becomes really large so you can say that cos(x) dictates whether the function is above the x axis or below
Right?
yh
Okay so we know that as x->∞ y will oscillate between...
-1 and 1
It oscillates between "infinity and -infinity"as x increases
This is the end behaviour at the right
At the left what do you think will happen
Mhm
As x->∞
Just to be sure have you done the domain question
(infinity,-infinity)?
Sorta the lesser value stays at the left (:
is it like substituing infinity into cosxe^x
For the domain?
yes
No you look for points where the function is defined. If that is too tedious then look for the set of points that the function is undefined and exclude them from the remaining points that's the domain
and how would we do that for cosxe^x
e^x and cosx are defined everywhere so their products will be too
and how do we know if its not defined?
By examining it's properties
There are properties of some common functions
Like polynomials are defined everywhere
c^x is defined everywhere c≠0
then cosx and sinx are defined everywhere
and defined everywhere means negative infinity aswell?
It means you won't get something like 0 in the denominator or √(negative number) when you evaluate the function everywhere
and o find the limit or end behaviou
we see what happens to yas x approaches +/- infinty?
Yes
Basically
Just
$lim_{x -> \infty}$ f(x)
And
$lim_{x -> - \infty}$ f(x)
Clover 🍀🦋
If the limit doesn't exist then you can explain why
Yes
But you might still need to do other stuff afterwards
Okay so what are the end behaviours
ok
hmmmm
e^-∞ cosx
0?
i think im gonna come back to it tmro
its just not clicking are there any videos on it?
Relax and try again
Try doing some precalc questions from calculus early transcendentals
They help to identify limits and evaluate stuff easier 🙂
i need a video to watch

Oh okay
Organic chemistry tutor and khan academy have videos on it
okay thanks
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Wondering if this would be a ocrrect answer for this
x²/x(x+2) the answer said x/x+2(also said answers may vary so)
(please ping when u can help)
the two expressions are equivalent for x != 0, you can cancel one of the x's on top and bottom of your expression to get the other one
but
will i still be correct?
if i didnt
@simple field this is the full question
this too is apart of it
ok i would say then maybe your answer wouldnt be accepted
because you were given an explicit form for the function to be in and yours isnt in that form
oh I see
how would the proper answer be?
@native wharf Has your question been resolved?
the proper answer seems to be the one given by the answer key
well at least, it's one of them. yours doesn't work because you have a squared term in the numerator (and what could be expanded to be a squared term in the denominator)
the question explicitly wants both the numerator and denominator to be linear, so
@native wharf Has your question been resolved?
some other answers to other questions have squared
can you show those questions (together with this instruction so I can confirm it's under the same question) and show the answers to those questions?
yep
im gonna reopen my textbook rq
@lament creek
well, I kind of asked for two things 😅
(btw you don't have to ping, I'm lurking anyway)
ah I see the problem. c) is impossible without a quadratic on both top and bottom (but which then simplifies to be linear on both)
d) is flat out impossible with a linear denominator
so wait whats going on 😭
😅
I mean, you yourself have seen that they ignore their own requirements
(and they have to - c) and d) are outright impossible without originally tossing a higher-order term in either the numerator and denominator of the function)
at least c) does simplify down to linear / linear, but there's no hope for d)
Ok this makes sense what ure saying
thank u for the help
❤️
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such method does not exist
i didn't grasp your method conceptually...
what if they made some changes in the question...i will be left blank then
i am close to finishing this topic..
i want to understand this chapter..but afraid of giving too much time to it
The simple idea behind it is that:
By dividing the whole average into two parts, where they share exactly one element
And then getting them back together, you can find exactly what element is shared
Since its counted twice
@worldly pine
can we call an average a middle number
solving for mean gives middle number?
there is one more question like this..in it they asked for 'What is the middle number that is counted twice'
To be honest, this is more of a theorical thing that goes outside of what the problem is about
But the arithmethic mean (aka average) is actually a poor way to approximate the center value (in some cases)
And also, the middle number we are talking here is one element from the average, not the average
I could try walking you through the idea of this problem again if you want
please
First of all, do you understand what an average/mean is?
Okay, so
you know what i am going to cram these few questions into my head
Mb, i was in the bathroom and ran out of battery 😭
Lets just say I give you a list of numbers
{6,9,9,1,4,3,1}
You could find the mean of that list, right?
yes
But, also, if you wanted, you could find the mean of a subset of those numbers
Lets say, the first four elements
or the last four
or every other number
Whatever you want
ok
{6,9,9,1,4,3,1} -> Mean = ~4.71
Lets just say i take the first four numbers
6,9,9,1 -> Mean = 6.25
And last four numbers
1,4,3,1 -> Mean = 2.25
I hope you can see that these two subsets share exactly one element.
the last 1 in the first
the first 1 in the second.
yes
Well, you can obviously see what the element is yourself because i just invented the numbers myself
But, ill state to you that
If we know the mean of all the 7 numbers (~4.71)
The mean of the first 4 (6.25)
and the mean of the last 4 (2.25)
Then we can find exactly the number in the middle without any extra information
This is the idea, yes, theres a mechanical way to do it, which is what me and Ann were trying to explain
But youll have to do arithmetic either way
btw, that isnt tedious
in the question that i provided, it is
$74 \cdot 33 = (72.8 + 77.2) \cdot 17 - x$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
thats a really basic operation
and if youre not comfortable doing that either with paper or mentally, you should be practicing
Once you do that, youll find the number shared (in the middle)
we have to find mean again after that
This has x = 108, which is the element in the middle
then to exclude it from your previous mean:
$\frac{74 \cdot 33 - 108}{32}$
∫ᴄ 𝐅·𝑑𝑟 = ∬ʀ ∇⨯𝐅 𝑑𝐴
And this will be the mean/average of the 33 numbers without the middle element (so 32 total)
statistics is riddled with long arithmetic operations if you are tasked to do it manually
? don't get it
What?
this
The mean/average is part of statistics
If you have to do calculations by hand, you will usually have to do long operations
My exam want to do it manually
