#help-49
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the digits must follow a zizag pattern, which is determined from your first 2 digits
let the digits be d1, d2, .., dn
eoither you have d1 < d2, d2 > d3, d3< d4, ...
or d1>d2, d2<d3, d3>d4, ... and so on
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@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
Let $\mathcal{F} = {f : {1,2,3,4,5} \to {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} }$.
a) Determine how many functions $f \in \mathcal{F}$ satisfy $#{x \in \operatorname{Dom}(f) \mid f(x) = 9 } = 2$.
b) Determine how many functions $f \in \mathcal{F}$ satisfy $# \operatorname{Im}(f) = 4$.
Renato
do you know combinations?
just the basics
that should be all you need
For a), you'd choose two elements of {1,2,3,4,5} to go to 9 and then the other three elements can go to any of {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8} (with possible repetition)
P(5,2) × C(9,?)?
The first wouldn''t be a permutation, since order won't matter
choosing 5 and 4 to go to 9 is the same as choosing 4 and 5
The second part isn't a combination or permutation, since repetition is allowed
care to elaborate?
on which part?
In a permutation, order matters. So choosing 5 then 4 would result in a different function than choosing 4 then 5. But it doesn't, they both just go to 9.
So you can't count it with a permutation.
You can count it with a combination since you are choosing 2 of 5 elements, without repetition.
wait
so its a permutation because repetition is allowed?
i didnt understood this part
You see in the image, (a)(b) and (b)(a) are both counted as distinct things in the permutation. Order matters.
In the combination there is only (a)(b) because order does no matter. So (a)(b) and (b)(a) are the same thing
2 out of 5 go the f(x) = 9
yeah, but how does it relate to our problem specifically
the permutation vs combination thingy
is the function
1->5
2->9
3->9
different from the function
1->5
3->9
2->9
?
so the order you choose elements that map to 9 does not matter
you're just choosing 2 of 5 elements to go to 9
so it is not a permutation, it is a combination
the other way around, is a permutation
no. In a permutation, order matters
ah right my bad with permutation we would be counting this twice
we need combination, my bad
yes
so you'd use a C(5,2) for the elements going to 9.
then there's 8 options for the other three elements to go to, with repetition. So it is neither a combination nor a permutation, it just multiplication rule.
each remaining element can go to any number except 9
yeah
C(5,2) × P(8,5)
it's neither a permutation or combination. Just multiplication rule.
care to elaborate?
Say we choose 4 and 5 go to 9, for the sake of example.
how many numbers can 1 go to?
how many numbers can 2 go to?
how many numbers can 3 go to?
8x7x6
8^3
it definitely takes a while to get used to
nah
It's not just C(9,4) because you can have different functions within that
1->2
2->2
3->3
4->4
5->5
and
1->5
2->2
3->3
4->4
5->2
for example
but i gtg for a bit and get some work done
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
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. @lean shale post it here
Alright
How do i go about these questions
The example 27
Do you know those trigonometric identities?
I only know these three
sin²A+ cos²A
1+tan²
1+cot²
Yes
But how am I supposed to know
Which identity is to be used when
You don't.
Damn
try $\sin \theta = (\sqrt{2} - 1) \cos \theta$ and $\sin^2 \theta + \cos^2 \theta = 1$
south
Yea
Ooo that's a neat way.
there are probably quicker ways but it's not useful to introduce tricks
Udon says they only know those 3 identities above
tbf you dont need any identity, you can just substitute the first equation into the LHS of the second, and you arrive at the RHS of the second equation
I'd love to be able to use $\cos(-\theta) + \sin(-\theta) = \sqrt{2} \cos(-\theta)$ for instance
south
Lol
Yeah i have no idea what this is
wait, like $2 \cos \theta - \sqrt{2} \cos \theta$?
No, like $\sin \theta = (\sqrt{2} - 1) \cos \theta$
Βαχτερ10Φρ4γ
oh right, and then you just find cos theta - sin theta, sqrt(2) sin theta separately
show those are equal
omg
yea, no identity needed
oh lmao
can we just like, multiply both side by sqrt(2)+1
just sqrt2 is enough
Now that was wonderful
Got this one
oh you meant in the original question... mbmb
Now how do i go about the (ii) part
Of 27
I guess if you let cos(t) - 2 sin(t) = k, for some value of k
2 sin(t) + 4 cos(t) = 2, and you can add this to cos(t) - 2 sin(t) = k to get 5 cos(t) = 2 + k
similarly, try to isolate sin(t), and then cos^2 t + sin^2 t = 1 gives a quadratic in k
or actually, quicker is $(\sin t + 2 \cos t)^2 + (\cos t - 2 \sin t)^2 = 1^2 + k^2$
south
yeah this is better
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How would I solve this?
$x^3+2x+1$
Renna Tempest
is that $x^3 + 2x + 1 = 0$?
soup_norm
Yes I forgot the zero
oh
can you send a photo of the original question? there might be parts to it that can help you with this
There is no other parts
I would assume they want you to use the quadratic formula to solve
Yea but this is a cubed
use the cubic formula
I thought up to this problem but didn’t know how to solve it
still though, could you send a picture
Bruh ain’t no ways there’s a cubic formula
there is one
there is
so you came up with it yourself?
Yea I was just thinking if I saw that problem I the wild
ahh
there is only up to quartic
But it may be above what I’m currently learning
When would you learn the cubic formula?
never
in a curriculum? never
well there's a systematic way to solve cubics like this, but it isn't taught in high school usually
So then how is one supposed to solve that problem? Or do they just never give you that
this is called a depressed cubic since there isn't a x^2 term
they wouldnt give you one unless it was easy to solve
you could use numerical approximation
there are tricks that can be useful for solving higher degree polynomials, but those polynomials are special cases
This looks like a simple equation tho?
unfortunately its not
there's a method given here https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cubic_equation#Depressed_cubic, we could try it here
,w solve x^3+2x+1=0
see
however, if you changed the first plus to a minus, the equation x^3-2x+1=0 has an easy root
But the equation would be so much simpler to solve without the +1
why do u wanna solve that
yes, that is an example of a special case
This is not that tedious to solve
yeah, putting a +1 can make equations that much harder
Just thought about a Random problem but didn’t know how to solve it
Do you know how to solve depressed cubes?
You can factor $x^3+2x+1$ by setting $x^3+2x+1=(x+a)(x+b)(x+c)$ and expanding the right side to get some equations
purururuuriuruin
that’s fair, cubics and beyond kind of suck in general but depressed cubics aren’t too bad
Look up cardano’s fornula
you can find a method here https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cubic_equation
is that actually gonna cook tho
I hate how I’ve never heard of this like it’s just a 3rd degree but they don’t even acknowledge it
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/139357dd90
I also made a little desmos thing a while ago that lets you see how the roots of a cubic change as you vary the coefficients :D and in the process it shows how to analytically get the roots
hold up actually. is this school or uni
Hmm I actually started with (x+a)(x^2+bx+c) but you can get to this by expanding 2 of the terms and then setting the constant and first degree parts to new constants
well that's because the solutions can get hard to find and you don't generally need these in practice
and it works
you couldn't have gotten a rational value for a tho could you...
I love me some Desmos
yesss I love desmos
Desmond is my chosen coding language
it’s so fun making simulations
Anyways thanks for solving my problem!
I love seeing real roots collide and turn into complex ones
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I can not see how the Fact at the buttom was concluded can someone help me understand it
did you try writing out what L(f * g)(s) and F(s), G(s) might be?
im confused on this notation
does (f*g)(t)
mean like f times g of t
is equal to that
convolute
i didnt understand the left side
write out what $\mathcal L{f*g}(s)$, $F(s)$, and $G(s)$ are
frosst
$(f*g)(t) \coloneq \int_0^tf(t-\tau)g(\tau),d\tau$ and $(fg)(t) = f(t)g(t)$
frosst
like its just a symbolation for that integral
yes
it's a new symbol
it's called a convolution
you "convolute f and g together"
"the convolution of f and g"
idk what that means but ok
"f convolute g"
it means you do this
f * g is a new function, and if you want to know what this function does you need to know how it acts on an input
convolution in my language straight up translation doesnt make much sense
does not matter it's just a combination of letters that make a word
in this context
ok
yea nvm then
wait but whats the point of this
isnt this like already knonw
no!!
it's saying that if you need to convolute 2 functions together
you can first take their laplace transforms
then just multiply the results
oh wait F stands as L{f}
then take the inverse
yes
do you know any probability theory?
like what a PDF is
ok ill write it out to see how this is true
the file formation?
nah probability density functions
like $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-x^2/2}$
i keep hearing many types of theories but idk if thats a course or idk yea
frosst
have u seen that before
related to gaussian integral maybe
it is
anyhow if you dont know about random variables then this doesn't matter
why does this look like the gaussian integral result
i was just going to give you an example where convolutions are used
no i see how its useful
ill check examples after i understand it though
wanna see why this is correct
yeah i dont really know why it's called convolution either, that's just the word they use so i use it
yeah usually writing everything out will help
is this related to those gambling machines which use tiny metal bearings which fall down in columns and they form the gaussian function pattern?
open your own channel if you want to ask about it, this is taebek's channel i dont want to have random clutter here
ok i wrote it out
yeah sorry i just asked bc ive seen it somewhere
$$
\int_{0}^{\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{t} f(t-\tau),g(\tau),d\tau , e^{-st},dt
= \int_{0}^{\infty} f(t),e^{-st},dt ;; \int_{0}^{\infty} g(t),e^{-st},dt
$$
Taebek
yea its definetely not trivial
what
yeah but im looking at a multidimensional one
what i dont understand is
how did someone know this would be useful and defined it then proved this
you have any context to what this was defined for
you dont know anything about random variables?
wdym
like you havne't studied probability before?
there is probability inside math
isnt that just like what maths is used on
not core math
probability theory is an area of maths that deals with randomness
i mean i have done stuff like this
here i'll give you a quick overview
consider a fair 6 sided dice
now consider a rigged 6 sided dice
they are different, how do we describe that they are different?
meaning each side does not have equal chance to show up
well one dice has some device inside it
we're mathematicians we dont care how you physically do it
stupid answer but yea i dont understand
we just care that they are different
okay let me use an simpler example, coins (coins only have 2 outcomes so it's easier to list them out)
a fair coins has this property: P(X = heads) = P(X = tails) = 1/2
one has a prob 1/6 in getting a number
the other has 100%
and 0 on the rest of the numbers
a rigged coin will be something like P(X = heads) = 1/3 and P(X = tails) = 2/3
i can do something similar with a dice by listing out P(X = 1) = ... P(X = 2) = ... etc
ok whats this gotta do with these integrals
im getting there
so here im explicitly prescribing exactly how likely each scenario would be
but what if i want to describe something that's continuous?
how do i describe "pick a random number uniformly between 0 and 1"
because i could say "pick a random number between 0 and 1, but be biased towards bigger numbers"
you just pick one
this is the continuous version of fair vs rigged coins/dice
is it not possible to have the random aspect
what is dnd
is it like a board game or some
dungeons and dragons yeah
there's a mechanic called "advantage" where you roll 2 dice and pick the higher one
idk it
clearly the random numbers coming out of an "advantage" roll is going to be higher than just 1 dice
cos in a way you get 2 chances
why
higher chance doesnt mean its gonna occur
you could get 6 first try and 1 and 2
do you not intuitively see that if you roll 2 dice and pick the highest then on average you'll roll higher?
oh on average
this is how we prescribe probability
but isnt it relevant to the amount of examples you do
we need to explicitly write out what the probabilities are for each event that can occur
if i only do 5 scenarios its not certain it will be close to the odds
so if i say:
Dice 1
P(X = 1) = 1/6
P(X = 2) = 1/6
P(X = 3) = 1/6
P(X = 4) = 1/6
P(X = 5) = 1/6
P(X = 6) = 1/6
Dice 2
P(X = 1) = 1/12
P(X = 2) = 1/12
P(X = 3) = 1/12
P(X = 4) = 1/12
P(X = 5) = 1/3
P(X = 6) = 1/3
can you see that dice 2 is biased towards bigger numbers?
okay that's what we mean by a fair vs rigged dice
how do we define probability
if i have a coin and i flip it a million times doesnt mean half will be heads
same if it was a billion
and so on
then if we flip it infinite times
we dont do experimental trials in probability, we dont sample things
if you go and start rolling the dices, flipping coins, and recording the result you are doing statistics
ig i can understand what you are saying intuitively
but i can not formally write it down on paper
we're going very far from how these integrals are useful
ok
you can but i'll need like another 3 hours to define everything properly
so much like how this dice can be "rigged"
i can say, pick numbers between 0 and 1 but rig it towards bigger numbers
and somehow this is different to "pick numbers uniformly between 0 and 1"
im making the choices here
im just trying to explain what uniform randomness means
ok
what is uniformly
vs uniformly pick a number between 0 and 1, then square it
do you see that i will on average pick smaller numbers in the square case
because for any 0 < x < 1, x^2 < x
but doesnt saying average contain statistics?
not really
idk why you are refering to average
average is the average of countably many examples/samples
$f_X(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & 0< x<1 \ 0 & \text{else}\end{cases}$
frosst
and $P(a < X < b) = \int_\bR f_X(x),dx$
frosst
no that X is called a random variable
what this really means is
if you want to ask what is the probability that my random number lands between 0.2 and 0.5, then take this function
and integrate it between 0.2 and 0.5
the result will be the probability X lands between 0.2 and 0.5
this particular "PDF" (probability density function) tells us that the probability that X lands between a and b is just b - a
this is a constant line at y = 1
yeah the 0 else part is for "X cannot be outside of 0 and 1"
ok
and if it was rigged towards bigger numbers
it would be some like f(x)= x
in (0,1)
wdym close
f(x) = x is biased towards higher numbers
so the total probability is 0.5 that is not right
you need to scale it so the total integral is 1
so this will work
okay
ya ya that's cos the psi there is a density or something
some phsyics thing
no it's the wave function or something idk
i dont do physics
OKAY NOT THE POINT
its in quantum mechanics
point let's say X ~ U(0, 1)
its the probability of an electron being found in dV
what is X thoguh
i still dont understand that part
this is the probability theorist way to say X has a density like this
it's uniform between 0 and 1
why not just say
to explain this i will need to either abuse and handwave the explanation
or spend 3 hours starting at measure theory
P(a<c<b) = int f(x) dx
well because X ~ U(0, 1) is easier to write
where c is the number we care about
so the problem is this
and whats U(0,1)?
this guy
what is that saying
they both have densities like that
who are both
oh sorry i haven't written that part yet
if X and Y are both (independent) U(0, 1) random variables
what is X + Y?
the answer is, you can take their so called "MGFs" and then just multiply them
now what the heck did i just say
$f_{X+Y}(t) = (f_X * f_Y)(t)$
frosst
this is the same * that you're seeing
now sometimes this * makes it very hard (to solve the integral)
so maybe we want to stick f_X * f_Y through a laplace transform
then we can just multiply them together
and then we might even just recognise $\mathcal L{f_X * f_Y}$ as the transform of some other known random variable
frosst
wait so
so we dont even need to inverse it
im still stuck here
okay just ignore that part
yes
(technically though we're using the bilaplace transform in probability, here you talk about the one-sided transform, but for motivation it doesnt matter all that much)
Yeah idk about that it looks hard
im guessing it needs polar cordinates
.
oh it looks terribly long to derive
how was it found
like how did someone think of laplace transforms when seeing this double integral is there any context
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Can you think of a way to get sum of 6/i^3 from i=2 to k+2 in terms of sum of 6/i^3 from i=2 to k+1
try showing that 3-3/(k+1)^2+6/(k+2)^3 < 3-3/(k+2)^2
because youre trying to prove sum of 6/i^3 from i=2 to k+2 < 3-3/(k+2)^2 right
bread thank you
how
move stuff around and simplify
care to elaborate?
is not necessarily true
suppose k is negative number
but you also have to prove it
can someone elaborate
i got stuck here
we cant assume this statement, it has to follow from the assumption that k is greater than the base case
it will be, i was responding to renatos request to elaborate, not correcting you
mb
induction is usually you have a base case and you build off of it
your base case is n=1 here
and you have to prove that for all k >= 1, the inequality holds for k+1
which would prove the inequality
this means all ks are positive
so back to this
youre trying to prove that sum of i=2 to k+2 of 6/i^3 < 3-3/(k+2)^2 right
you already know that the sum is < 3-3/(k+1)^2 + 6/(k+2)^3
ye
so now if you prove that 3-3/(k+1)^2 + 6/(k+2)^3 < 3-3/(k+2)^2 for all positive k
you finish this
how to prove it dawg
algebra
the easiest way to to work it down to k >= 1, and then rewrite bottom to top, just verify it holds
where is this coming from
it will always hold if you use equivalence rules
is hard
3-3/(k+1)^2 + 6/(k+2)^3 < 3-3/(k+2)^2 but you move the 3-3/(k+1)^2 to the right side
when you are setting this inequality together you are assuming it's true
well, we need to prove it from k >= 1, so its implied by the induction hypothesis
flip the signs and divide by 3
then expand by multiplying everything by (k+2)^3(k+1)^2
uhh i dont agree with the last step that overcomplicates things
multiplying by (k+2)^3(k+1)^2 should get you (k+2)^3 > (k+1)^2(k+2) + 2(k+1)^2
then expand
like k^3+6k^2+12k+8 > ...
this is the simple route?
probably
ok
fuuuck its 4k
right
still slightly wrong
it should be k^3+4k^2+4k+2k^2+8k+8 = k^3+6k^2+12k+8
but you get the idea
fuck my life
and bc you know that k >= 1, it follows that k > any negative number
so you proved the case k+1 for all k >= 1
and you already did the case for n=1 so youre induction proof is done
@undone parcel thanks
np
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given prime $p\equiv 1 \mod 6$, prove that $127(2^p-1)\mid 2^{2^p-2}-1$
ihave<skissue>
yeahh idk
i was thinking to take care of 2^p-1|(the right) then 127|(the left), but theres overlap on 2^p-1 and 127 so we need to take care of that
$2^{p+7}-2^7-2^p+1$
ihave<skissue>

wait i mightve done smth wrong
err
i think you need to use difference of squares on the right side
$127(2^p-1)\mid (2^{2^{p-1}-1}-1)(2^{2^{p-1}-1}+1)$
ihave<skissue>
the left bit takes care of the 127 right?
or smth
i mean thats just clearely wrong?
nvm it doesent
actually proving 127| is p easy
i lied
$2^p\equiv 2\mod p \rightarrow 2^{2^p-2} = 2^{kp}\equiv 1\mod {2^p-1}$ bc $2^p\equiv 1\mod {2^p-1}$
bread
i think
@viral dagger Has your question been resolved?
interesting
so that deals with the 2^p-1 part
right
not sure about the overlap
<@&286206848099549185>
wait i think i got it
with a similar idea to this you can prove $127\nmid {2^p-1}$ for all p > 7 and $127\mid 2^{2^p-2}-1$
bread
@viral dagger Has your question been resolved?
why
i still dont get how you can prove it tho
you can use fermats little theorem on the RHS i think
oh wait nvm thats been mentioned
the only time 2^x-1 is divisible by 2^7-1 is when x=0mod7
p is prime though so it can't be =0mod7 unless p is 7
ohh wait i got it
mm all thats left is proving 127^2|2^126-1 which should be easy?
ok am i silly or i that just not true
that is true
🤔
hmm really
ooh wait the question says p>7 oopssss
my calculator gave me a full number
doubt its accurate as 2^126 is massive
and i think the problem here is that you wrote 16.129 which is not 16129
what calculator are you using?
apple
but it still doesent change the fact that it doesent divide
they are the same?
no
ofc its not comma
16.129=16129/1000
no\
yes
diffrent placews diffrent standards
at least in usa i think
this website doesent follow
in hungary we use comma too but in us i think its .
ok legit this discussion is pointless
if you test it with difference of squares and cubes, then yeah it doesnt divide
try putting it in without comma
you cant
lte also says you vant
v_127(2^126-1)=v_127(128^18-1^18)=v_127(127)+v_127(18)=1 and lhs is 2
2^126-1=(2^63-1)(2^63+1)
=(2^21-1)(2^42+2^21+1)(2^63+1)
=(2^7-1)(2^14+2^7+1)(2^42+2^21+1)(2^63+1)
you cant divide this by 127^2
2^7n=1mod127
it would be a waste of time since the whole thing of the last term will be 2mod127
i know it can because my calc showed the exact amount
.solved thanks guys!
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is this the same I on the left hand side? why is it called I_2?
Because I've used IBP twice
So it's not the same I
notice that the integral on the right hand side of the final expression is just I
Que?
now plug this back into the equation that contained the I2 integral
So it's I2=sin(x)e^x - integral of I
you have I = cos(x)e^x + I_2
and you have an expression for I_2
plug that expression in
missing a - I at the end
Why?
Bungo
so plug the second expression into the first
I thought I=integral of cos(x)e^x
Bungo
fixed sign in the first one
you never explicitly said what $I_2$ is, but I assume it's $\int \sin(x) e^x,dx$
Bungo
show your final step?
this was ok until the last line
if the left hand side is still 2Ithen the right hand side shouldn't be divided by 2
or equivalently, if you have divided by 2 then the left hand side should just be I
bungoo
hi ωβ!
yea this is ok, just add the final closing paren at the end of the numerator and don't forget +C
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Can anybody help me make the diagram?
Of example 6 -
Gimme a moment
Ok
a line that starts from a single point and has no end point
Line with one endpoint
And angle ACB will be 70° (alternative angles)
No AX isn't parallel to BC
Alright, so can I draw a arrow. Like this -
Yes
Cool
Can I write angle B + angle C = angle XAC or angle XAD or angle XAC + angle XAD?
Which one would be correct?
The last one
Hmmm
Exterior angles of a triangle
Are equal to the sum of the two non-adjacent interior angles
What do you mean by "non-adjacent interior angles"?
Angle B and angle C are adjacent
Are they?
<@&286206848099549185>
In Triangle all angles are adjacent
To get a non adjacent angle there needs to be more and 3 sides in a polygon
Non-adjacent interior angles refer to, for example, In a Rectangle ABCD : angle A and angle C are Non-adjacent interior angles
Adjacent angles are angles which have one arm in common.
An Arm refers to one of the two lines between which an angle is formed.
not exactly what is probably meant by Xavier
(though I would like your confirmation so as not to put words into your mouth, if possible, and sorry for the ping)
no they arent
Sorry yeah opposite interior angles my bad
Thanks for understanding what I meant, and thanks for the tag! 🌺
the 3 angles arent adjacent to each other, they are bounded by an adjacent angle
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Helpppaaa
Q19
How to get the inequality thing for 19b
@vivid yoke Can you help
.rrcw
.rccw
hmm you already got (2x-1)(x-3)=0
Yes
1
But how do I make a inequality
Alright now you can do some test here
The roots of this equation are 1/2 and 3 right?
Yess
Okay, check between these root, let say between 1/2 and 3 there is 1
Plug into equation, if you got negative then it's always negative for any value between 1/2 adn 3
👍
💯
If x>a and x>b (b>a) then we can reduce to x>b
What is the IPO date of Merck & Co., Inc.
Imagine you have more than 4 candies and more than 9 candies and both of these statement are true then you obviously have more than 9 candies
If you have 5 candies the first statement is true but the second statement false
yes
Is it and
Not really....
How?
Ok
Yeah that's much better
Yep
So we take both
I have no idea it's and or or, for me x has to sastify both 1/4<x<1/2 and x>3 if we use and
Which is impossible
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names for the added points should be easy to undersstand
lemme write the gist of the solution (im asking about it)
oi is this a evan chen problem>?
dunno but i didnt get it from there
I guess try proving that the quadrilateral formed is cyclic
Thats how I did it then
uncentered circles invert to uncentered circles
wdym
since AE=AR=AS then A is the center of (RES), and this extends for the rest of the verticies. invert on E to get the second diagram. notice that w_a* is perp to AE (and the rest). proving PQRS is concyclic is equivalent to proving P*Q*R*S* being concyclic. R is in w_a so R* is also in w_a*, analog R* is in w_d*, since R=/=E then R*=/=E is the intersection of w_a* and w_d* (also for other verticies). then you can get P*Q*R*S* is a rectangle so its concyclic
dont send the entire soln
what i dont understand is how w_a* perp AE
why?
he's OP lol
oml
sorry
sorrrry
I though you were telling him
wait
telling yourself>?
mb
i mean i guess i am telling him :p
if you reflect the triangles i think you can angle chase opposite angles summing to 180
yeah but im learning inversion rn
actually does that really work?
reflect AEB BEC CED DEA right
ok youre doing inversion
I think it gets solved easily using coordinate
use this
[
\textbf{Claim.}\quad
\text{If }AC\perp BD\text{ at }E,\text{ then the reflections of }E\text{ across }AB,BC,CD,DA
\text{ are concyclic.}
]
\paragraph{Coordinate set-up.}
Place (E=(0,0)). Rotate/translate so that (AC) is the (x)-axis and (BD) the (y)-axis.
Write
[
A=(a,0),\qquad B=(0,b),\qquad C=(c,0),\qquad D=(0,d),
]
with (a,b,c,d\in\mathbb R\setminus{0}) (convexity fixes signs but is not needed algebraically).
\paragraph{Reflections.}
The line (AB) has equation (b x+a y-ab=0). The perpendicular foot from the origin to (AB) is
[
H_{AB}=\frac{ab}{a^2+b^2}(b,a),
]
hence the reflection (P) of (E) across (AB) is
[
P=2H_{AB}=\Big(\frac{2ab^2}{a^2+b^2},\ \frac{2a^2b}{a^2+b^2}\Big).
]
By the same computation (cyclically) the reflections (Q,R,S) of (E) across (BC,CD,DA) are
[
\begin{aligned}
Q&=\Big(\frac{2b^2c}{b^2+c^2},\ \frac{2bc^2}{b^2+c^2}\Big),\
R&=\Big(\frac{2c d^2}{c^2+d^2},\ \frac{2c^2 d}{c^2+d^2}\Big),\
S&=\Big(\frac{2a d^2}{a^2+d^2},\ \frac{2a^2 d}{a^2+d^2}\Big).
\end{aligned}
]
\paragraph{Concyclicity check.}
Four planar points ((x_i,y_i)) are concyclic iff the determinant
[
\Delta:=\det\begin{pmatrix}
x_1&y_1&x_1^2+y_1^2&1\[4pt]
x_2&y_2&x_2^2+y_2^2&1\[4pt]
x_3&y_3&x_3^2+y_3^2&1\[4pt]
x_4&y_4&x_4^2+y_4^2&1
\end{pmatrix}
]
vanishes. Substitute the coordinates of (P,Q,R,S) above. A direct (but routine) algebraic simplification gives
[
\Delta\equiv0
]
as an identity in (a,b,c,d). Therefore (P,Q,R,S) are concyclic.
[
\boxed{\text{Reflections of }E\text{ across }AB,BC,CD,DA\text{ lie on one circle.}}
]
ADdisson's syndrome
LaTeX source sent via direct message.
thanks claude
ew coordinate
im asking about this
P* is the inverse (idk the word) of P with respect to a circle w with center O (can be a point as the radius is arbitrary), if and only if O,P,P* are colinear and OP\cdot OP*=r^2
a circle going through the origin E is sin(theta)
say r is 1
then what you need is sec theta
in polar coord thats a line
isnt polar coordinates (r,theta)?
r=sin theta and r=sec theta cancel
its not a proof, but it should hopefully give the intuition
or maybe you havent really thought about polar emough to understand what im saying
is sin(theta) supposed to be the radius or something?
yes
never really played with polar coordinates just heard of it
mm so your saying if you invert this circle to a circle with center E and radius 1, you get a circle with radius sec(theta)?
you get a curve with radius sec theta
curve??
well really its a line but lets act like we dont know that
eh?? i dont follow
let me gather my thoughts, i need to go to bed
making sure, do you invert to a circle with center E and radius 1, or just any circle with radius 1?
ill hopefully explain it better tomorrow
doesnt have to be radius 1, but it makes the math nice
there are no lengths in the diagram anyway, so a distance of 1 is arbitrary
ohh wait hold on ive been graphing it wrong
hmmm
ohh wait
so your invverting r=sin(theta) to the unit circle, and by definition its sec(theta) which is a line?
hmm lets try to apply this to the problem?
the origin is E
A is (0.5,0)
looks more believable now im sure
so w_a is the black circle, AE is the x axis
the inversion of w_a(cos theta) is the red line (sec theta), which is a line
(and in the polar coordinates, sec theta is a line parallel to the y axis?)
which implies the red line (inverse of w_a) is perpendicular to the x axis, aka AE!
oooo
then you just rotate the setup for any line
is there a simplified/shortened form (or maybe like a property or a theorem?) for this instead of deriving it again and again
actually i swear ive seen this somewhere simmilar before uhh
so, if you have line AB that passes trough the center of a circle, the inverse of the circle torwards A is perpendicular to AB ig?
ok thanks gtg
.solved
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what are negative integers? give a n example
what do you know?