#help-49
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project the neighbourhood onto the Riemann sphere for best results
like, let u = -3<-2, then u^2 + w^2 <= 1, then 9 + w^2 <= 1 then w^2 <= -8
you just need to explicitly state the neighborhood you consider around the origin, for the upper bound
write down why what you wrote is true and can be used
well we consider the neighborhood of (0-2,0+2), something like that?
then you don't consider all paths
this would be just a line
like you neglect what happens below and above
a disk doesn't
we consider the disk of radius somrthing
I am getting a better idea now of what you mean
just consider the disk, x^2+y^2 of radius 2
for example
all radius work?
think of the yellow strip where the inequality works
so we pick a nice neighborhood (disk) which contains it
or a subset of that
remember, w was independent, for the inequality to work
the radius can be at max 2
yes
because otherwise u something something
otherwise there are points where the inequality fails
yeah
,, u\ge -2 , \lr , u+2 \ge 0 , \lr , e^{u+2} \ge 1 , \lr , w^2e^{u+2} \ge w^2 , \lr , u^2+w^2e^{u+2} \ge u^2+w^2
đĽ
consider the disk u^2 + w^2 of radius 1, then, the following upper bounding holds
well we justified the upper bound, how to conclude the limit is zero
well that's because u>=-1 implies u>=-2 but not the converse
anyway this means
we can pick a neighborhood that satisfies u>=-2 or a subset of that
it can be a square, strip, or a nice disk
now what?
first of all, what was the problem
we need another upper bound
prove that the limit approaches 0
no i meant, the problem was there was no justification for your upper bound
that's why we went through this journey
now you should know
explain now why this upper bound works and is true
then showing the limit of the upper bound being 0 should be easy
the upper bound works if the radius of the disk is less than or equal to 2, the disk guarantee we cover all the neighborhood of between (0,0) within a radius of 2, which will cover all the possible paths?
idk if I am explaining myself correctly
you got to be joking me

however it is still important to learn
not always find the best solution blindly
claiming something to be true without justification is always wrong
at least in math
always
and that at least is a lesson for future problems to keep in mind
that will save you
and make up the time you may feel have lost now
I didn't lost any time
I found it interesting the disk and neighborhood argument
is just, that this was my first weeks in university. I found it a little bit too rigorous, this simplification you did to the problem was better for my level of maths
well it's for the better, what if you encounter a problem, that doesn't simplify nicely
you never know that from the getgo, but the good part is, you were trained for that
up to you, i am kinda done
i think said and explained everything what needed to be
you can now choose how to complete the proof, and then post it for verification
Sorry just a question, do you think this thing converges ?
i checked with wolfram
Honestly just asking, it does ?
, w lim (x,y) to (2,3) of (ln (y-2) * (3x-6)^2)/(e^x*(y-3)^2 + (x-2)^2)
Hmmm
other than a factor 9 missing, it should go to 0
Thanks
factor of 9 where?
(3x-6)²=9(x-2)²
looks good, and i would be happy to see, if you could derive the implication

what if i lied 
e^(u+2) > 0 and w^2 >= 0
yeah the premise is given
well
well if you can't derive it, what is the justification for using it
idk how to prove it formally speaking
you can just add u^2 both sides
e^(u+2).w^2 >= 0
e^(u+2).w^2 + u^2 >= u^2
so far what i wrote

i gtg but in case you are actually hopeless: ||the rest is cross division (with no sign actually flipping because the terms are positive when dividing) ||
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Have you drawn it?
yes
Something lik this?
yess
I drew perpendiculars to the point b/w green and blue ylw and blue green adn yellow
like dis
b/w?
Don't mind the name because Imma delete it later
I feel like this can just be brute forced
But I'm wondering if we can avoid that
I can't see an obvious way to do this otherwise
how brute forcE?
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Here, your exponent n is \frac{1}{2}. Using the power rule \frac{d}{dx}(x^n) = nx^{n-1}: \frac{d}{dx}(x^{1/2}) = \frac{1}{2}x^{(1/2)-1} = \frac{1}{2}x^{-1/2} = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}} â
Can someone please explain what this means? I don't get how the answer is 1/(2 sqroot x) instead of 3.x^3/2/(2)
you are supposed to lower the exponent by 1 not raise it
this should have raised a red flag: how did you SUBTRACT 1 from a number only for it to become BIGGER somehow?
Oh true that where be my spectacles
1/2 + 1 would be 3/2
$\dv{x} (x^{1/2}) = \frac12 x^{-1/2}$
Ann
does this make sense to you now yes or no
Here, your exponent n is $\frac{1}{2}$. Using the power rule $\frac{d}{dx}(x^n)$ = $nx^{n-1}:$ $\frac{d}{dx}(x^{1/2})$ = $\frac{1}{2}x^{(1/2)-1}$ = $\frac{1}{2}x^{-1/2}$ = $\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}} $
Normie
... yes, that's what the power rule says.
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could i have some help with volumes of revolutions?
post your question here and then we can help you
you should convert into cartesian then use the formula for volumes of revolution
and it's revolved around the x-axis
ye i did that
wait hold on ill sned what im up to
ignore the top part
the left was my attempt of trying to convert it to cartesian form
but it didnât work out
so i found this formula
you should convert the entire thing to cartesian form such that there aren't any t's remaining
top right
you can rewrite sin(t) in terms of cos(t)
I'm talking about your y = 2x sin(t)
$\sin^{2}\left(x\right)+\cos^{2}\left(x\right)=1 \implies \sin\left(x\right)=\pm \sqrt{1-\cos^{2}\left(x\right)}$
Roy
so we have y = 2x times what?
its sin^2
mhm
so you should end up with $y=\pm 2x\sqrt{1-x^{2}}$, $V = 2\pi\int_{0}^{1}\left(2x\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\right)^{2}dx$
Roy
where did the 2pi come from ?
is that the negative area part?
thats what im struggling to understand
the point that says
- the fact that there is now part of the shape under the x axis. how will that effect the volume
i cant visualise and undertsand the under the x axis aprt
hello?đ
um i asked ai
and they put a 2 at the front? đ im so lost
0 to 1 only gives you half of the shape
y?
Look at the image
The object goes from -1 to 1
we just broke it in half at the origin
we got the part below the x axis by revolving the curve around the x axis
the y = expression is the height above the x-axis right
if we revolve that around the x-axis, we get the entire volume âaboveâ and âbelowâ
Which way is under?
oh?
its only above?
wait what
Well okay the +/- gave you below too but you can think of it as revolving one or the other
bc it covers the entire rotation
ok then instead of going from 0 to 1 and doing -1 to 1
is what i did right?
cuz itâs +/-
so i split it up
but then that gives u
0
Why did you make the second one negative
I donât understand what youâre doing here actually
if youâre integrating from x= -1 to 1, then you need a function describing y in terms of x from -1 to 1
What is that function
if you actually have a proper function from -1 to 1 and you revolve it around the x axis then there is no second integral to compute
integral of pi y^2
The rotation is done around the x-axis, there is no additional âbelow the axisâ to compute
your - integral doesnât make sense
the way I would do it is y = 2sin(t) cos(t) = 2sin(t)x = 2x sqrt(1 - x^2)
where the sqrt is +/- depending on t
Luckily the sign doesnât matter bc weâre squaring anyway
huh
ohhh this make sense
This is clever but you should be careful with your bounds
you want t to span the curve exactly once along the x-axis
oh?
sin(t) = either + or - sqrt(1 - cos^2 (t))
the sign depends on the quadrant t corresponds to
But the point is that regardless, after squaring the sign is gone
Iâll assume you meant to change the +/-, the integral setup looks fine and from there itâs just power rule stuff yeah
the +/- corresponds to above and below the x axis, but bc weâre anyway rotating around the x axis it doesnât matter what sign we take (and mathematically this is bc we square to get the area, we donât care abt sign, just distance from the x axis)
"the fact that there is now part of the shape under the x axis. how will that effect the volume. "
right ok
so it doesnt effect the volume?
if we used the entire t range from 0 to 2pi then we would have double counted the volume bc the curve double counts
Bc of how we substituted we manually just picked the x range -1 to 1
so we only took 1 curve from -1 to 1 and didnât double back ever
ohh ok
if you look at your parametric method, if you just set the bounds properly you would have gotten the same answer
The trick is that 0 to 2pi would make the answer different from the true volume
Bc each cross section at an x value only depends on the y coordinate once
for the bounds in the parametric method
but the parametric visits each x value twice
cos(x) would be easier
right
Like itâs clear that our period is 2pi bc of the cos
so it wouldve been 0 and pi
Since sin(2x) just halves the period
I think so
Equivalently pi to 2pi
And that method fully keeps the sign of our square root implicitly with the trig, it just again doesnât rlly matter
right
That seems not good
Why not decompose the sin(2t) into 2sin(t)cos(t) before doing the rest
@noble briar Has your question been resolved?
I think after the 3rd step, you should have done the substitution u = cos t instead
Can you show?
sin^2 t = 1- cos^2 t
omg ur right
omg yay
ok
@grim forge yay tyty
ok so um
i got that but the next part is the same but the volume revolved around the y axis
so its basically the same right
js finding the equation in terms of y
x=f(y)
Ye around y- axis it should be int(pi x^2 dy) I think
ye okok
i need help understanding this formula
this is for finding the volume revolved around the y axis
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Why do i get a different answer for b. part
I honestly don't understand these arctan signs thingy
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<@&286206848099549185>
h
signs like this right
oh mb
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for this, do you just have to expand the terms in the expansion and spot a pattern or something? I dont see how else to use 2.109 to show this result
I would just multiply out both sides and hope everything fits
as in everything on line 2.116 ?
yes
and sub in the expansions?
yes
ok
let me try
@runic hamlet
i only expanded up to power of 2
but im not sure what to do with this...
nope, just trying to do it to justify it to myself lol
yeah not sure
I would expect that this pops out if you spend some more time on it but I dont think thats a particularly good use of that time
(I'm talking on the order of hours. not minutes)
alright, yh i will skip this for now then
book is quite dense so I dont want to spend too much time on small bits
I didnt actually know that there was a version for non-commuting operators
and then not be able to go over the more important bits
it looks odd lol
thanks anyways
ima close it now then
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20 = (n)(2a + d(n-1))/2
40 = (n)(2a+d(n-1))
40 = 2an + dn^2 - dn
0 = dn^2 + (2a-d)n - 40
idk what to do
2a isnt necessarily even if d and n is odd
oh wait
pause right there, 40 = (n)(2a+d(n-1))
that implies that n is even and 2a + d(n - 1) is also even
since 20 is a multiple of 4
oh
oh
bruh
idk how i didnt notice that
ok nvm
ik how to do the question now
well, that's one possible way to make a multiple of 4 (I know n can also be a multiple of 4)
no worries!
so either d is even or n-1 is even
yeah so d can be even, exactly
but n-1 cant be even
so d has to be even
and n is even
so is it II and III only?
but then you have this other case
n = 5 , a = 2 , d = 1?
guessing numbers doesn't help
i mean either way
would this work
but indeed, you should check what happens when n = 4 or n = 8
you don't have the logic figured out yet
pause before you rush to conclusions
That is a counter example that n doesnt have to be even
cool
then it'd be clearer if you had just stated that
2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 20
but appreciated
You cannot assume n is even bc LHS is even, especially if RHS has 2 factors
yeah I realised, so we needed to start over to figure out case II
In fact for every question you should either prove it or give a counter example. It is easier to first try and find if there is a counter example and then if unable to , you should prove it.
This is also an example that III doesnt have to hold as common difference is 1 (not even)
oh right, so yeah we really should have checked something simple like 9 + 11 = 20
so that means I is not true
Also i think 20 is more trivial counterexample
A sequence with n = 1
then actually for II, you could just have the series {20} with 1 term
yeah
you realised too
damn yeah the quadratic is absolutely not the right approach
there are just too many free variables
I mean with so much freedom you can probably guess most of the things will be false
yes!
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Anyone else use McGraw hill connect before?
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Can someone tell me if this is a valid proof of De Morgan's Law? This is supposed to be a 11th grade level proof.
even if it's valid, all of those element listings are mega extraneous for sure
makes it hard to read, hard to verify, and easy to fuck up
what if the sets have an uncountable number of elements
yeah that too
i would say it is possible to salvage your idea by like... drawing a Venn diagram and acknowledging that U ends up partitioned into 4 (disjoint) sets & then expressing both sides of the equality in terms of those
This is 11th grade. We're not even supposed to know about countably infinite ones
are venn diagrams allowed
you're not supposed to even know about the existence of sets like N or Z or Q?
naturals, integers, rationals respectively?
Ok excpet those
that knowledge is considered illegal for you??
not even "the set of all even numbers"?
i think if you're in 11th grade and doing set theory then those things should be well within your comprehension
did your teacher punish someone for even speaking of such sets as a thing that might exist??
Fine. We're not supposed to know about 'countable' and 'uncountable'. We're just supposed to know what infinity is
i mean you could prove it using venn diagrams as ann said or prove that any element of one set is an element of the other (XâY & YâX then X=Y)
still, your proof relies on finitude and that's completely unnecessary and just makes your life worse.
I don't think they are. I asked the teacher and she said she preferred one without diagrams
Ok
dispreference is not the same as forbidding.
Ok fine. Forget about the teacher. Forget about uncountably infinite sets. Could you just explain how to do it without diagrams?
i mean such statements as $A \cap B \subseteq A \cup B$
Just so you know, I was taught the basic operations, like union intersection, subtraction, complement. Thats it. And also subsets, I guess
Ann
Oh yeah
right then you should also know that to prove some two sets are equal you prove their subset-hood in both directions
Yes
that's what cherryman was saying
Ok. So pick an element in one set and use it to show that for all elements of that set, those elements are also present in the other set?
And do the same in the other set
that's a somewhat wonky way to write it...
Im not very good at this proofs thing...
for your specific case, the proof for (A ⪠B)' â A' ⊠B' needs to look like this:
Let x â (A ⪠B)'.
[some arguments later]
Therefore, x â A' ⊠B'.
Understood
Then I do the same thing for the other way round right? After that I can say
=> (A union B)' = A' intersection B'
Anyway, thanks @lyric charm and @graceful drum . We have a exam tmr, and nobody in my class knows how to prove it, so I decided to come here for clarification.
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Here say d²f/dx1dx2 do we apply derivative wrt x1 first or x2
x1 first
U sure?
oh wait no
yeah looking into it as well and apparently not
,, \f{\p^2f}{\p x_1\p x_2} = \f{\p}{\p x_1} \lp \f{\p f}{\p x_2}\rp = f_{x_2 x_1}
cringe notation if I'm being honest
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a) find the domain of f
b) graph f using ggb
c) is it possible to extend f to the circle C such that it is continuous, if so how and why?
Which one are you asking?
everything if possible
The domain of f is where f exists, in other words what values of x and y make the function have a valid output?
To find try thinking backwards.
R^2 except when 1 - x^2 - y^2 = 0
yes!
What is your problem with b?
Do you need help with graphing using GeoGebra?
i mean the geogebra thing is like "open the 3D canvas -> type the function in" innit 
did we solved A correctly?
yes :D
Yes
I would like to ask you what shape it has. The undefined region.
a circle
with radius 1 and center origin
Yes using this you can plot the shape of it with your hand too which you can try.
?
I mean like how should the graph behave.
The circle doedn't mean much here but it is useful what I want to say is.
idk how to graph f(x,y) by hand
Sorry let me rollback a second.
We can kinda do it. Want to try?
sure
Alrgiht, first as a starting point and a hint does x^2 + y^2 ring a bell?
wdym?
What comes to your mind when you see x^2 + y^2
you want to graph a circle?
Have you heard about the polar cords?
what?
Polar coordinates.
What you are used to is Cartesian coordinates which has two "length" basis x and y. Polar coordinates in the other uses theta and r, one length(r) and one angle(theta).
whats your point
The conversion between the two are as fallows:
$$x = r \cos{\theta}\ ,\ y = r \sin{\theta}$$
Qwert
And the other way around is:
$$r = x^2 + y^2\ ,\ \theta=\tan^{-1}{y/x}$$
Qwert
Sorry I meant r^2 = x^2 + y^2
If we the conversion between them the function becomes:
$$f(r, \theta) = \frac{20}{1-r^2}$$
Qwert
Which also means the function does not depend on the theta/angle.
It really is bit of a complicated topic to fully go trough here it was not the question so I am going to keep it short.
Normally you would have a point that is defined by the distance from the origin in both directions (x,y). But in polar coordinates we the point have a distance from the orgin directly(the shortest path/line) and the angle it is at.
Yeah looks good.
now what?
As I stated the function does not depend on the angle.
So for now lets think a slice of the function theta = 0
And here r is not negative(not because of the square, the distance is always positive)
So only think about the right side of the graph. Positive r
can you do a drawing or something
I will hold you a minute.
ping me
what?
I am sorry. Let me try to explain it once more. Did you understood the polar coordinates first?
Zoom in maybe?
Yes I ploted g(x,y) = x^2 + y^2 not your function.
put it in ggb
We can see what we want it is true.
what?
Sorry the square root of it.
Not r^2 just r
I believe you are bit puzzled...
how so?
Probably I was not able to explain it.
Can you quickly go trough the question again? Writing it out may help.
wdym?
I mean like try solve it from the start maybe?
To help you understand how to do it.
I am sorry đ
sorry about what
Sorry that I wasn't able to explain it.
explain what
Renato doesn't even know what's going on
tbh I would have just went with cartesian
I felt like using polar is more natural but maybe.
yea i see
c will come with this too but you can take the limit or the function is simple enough to see it.
what?
Ok we are not using the limit either, that is calculus stuff. For this question it is not needed.
Idk at this point, do you know calculus?
Ok ok lets go back to basics and not care about drawing it ourself.
what limit?
Limit of the function as you aproach the circle.
like for example (1,0)
Yes.
,w lim (x,y) to (1,0) of 20/(1-x^2-y^2)
whats your point?
C is you can not.
That is the answer.
From one side it goes to -inf from one to inf.
there is no lateral limits here
The limit in polar cordinates seems to be more useful, i believe
Rather then for a point (x,y) -> (1,0) you do the whole circle r->1
Renato
ok that is cool
Well then this is the end of this question. Learning more about polar coordinates is useful so try giving it some of your time. Hope I was able to help. Have a great evening.
polar cords is hard dude
But it is really is useful and makes questions easier if you know it.
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how do i do the last question
Displacement is the signed area, distance is the total area regardless of sign (aka you add the area regardless of if you're above or below the t axis)
idk which one you did
this was what I did
wait
was I supposed to to 0-2 interval then do 2-5 interval
,w 6t^2 - 42t + 60 = 0
yes
you're supposed to split at t=2 and t=5 for the reason I said above

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so I need to do 3 intervals right
0-2, 2-5, 5-14?
correct
I got the erong answer
uhhh
Or is it supposed to be absolute?
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
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!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
What have you tried
extending EF and DC to intesect
labeled it as M
FM and CM are both 10
How did you get this?
pythagorean theorem and angle bisector theorem
idk how to use
Damn this is a good question
lol
how?
In DEM, it's a 3-4-5 triangle
ye
Where the angle opposite to the 3 side is always 37°
yea
So just find all angles and use slight trigo to get the other 2 sides
It should work imo
Oh you're supposed to solve with just geometry?
yea
Hmm
Yeah I see this working with trig but I'm not sure about geometry
OOH
WAIT
Triangles EBF and FCM are similar
By AA criteria as EB is parallel to CM
ok
so?
Crap that doesn't give anything too useful
I'm stumped man sorry
Maybe ping helpers again
@median urchin Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&286206848099549185>
can you use trig or nah?
Oh its this problem again
yea'
no
bro wdym
so then also trig
if I walk you through it
anyway I will give this a try
don't makeit too hard
kk
I think I found a way but itâs super complicated
ok
Do you want me to guide you through it anyway ?
ye
@median urchin ?
So my strategy is splitting the ĂĄrea in three
Ărea 1 is obviously EFD. Easy to find
Ărea 2 is DFC
oh
,rccw
kk
Area 3 Iâm still thinking
My god ⌠Iâm dumb
I found ND, itâs easy
Ok Forget about splitting ĂĄreas
ok..
What you have to do is find ND. Then itâs over
yea
Cause Ărea = ND * AB and we know AB
Ok letâs take it step by step
ye
Look at triangle EDF, can you find the Value of the angle EDF ? Using trig
2/root(5)?
ig
?
ye
128
How ?
Perfect itâs not exactly 26 but you get the idea
yea
Now using triangle NDE, you can find ND using trig
You have DE = 12 and the Value of the angle
yea but how i find it
Using this
hm
cos NDE = ND/12
You just found angle NDE Right ?
You didnât answer this
Wdym ?
cos is adjacent over hypotenuse right
Yes and adjacent is ND hypothenuse Is DE
okay
Give me the Value of cos NDE
yea
Use your calculator to compute cos NDE
Good
Itâs supposed to be 0.788
is the whole area 48?
Start by computing the cos what did you get ?
do you know the answer?
no
Good now multiply by DE = 12
9.45612904328
Now Thatâs ND
@brisk iris did you calculate the area?
so its 94?
And the ĂĄrea Is ND*AB
ye 94
No I didnât calculate
I just found the way to
looks wrong
cause I get something different than you
ye i dont think its 94
you dont know how much it is bro...
But the reasoning stands
Do you want me to do the math ?
no it's fine but I get 48 even number
I did it without calculating the sines and cosines
How Did you donit ?
what I did is:
- find DF
- find FC using cosine theorem
- find angle DFC with sine theorem (it is 45 degrees)
- I found angle DCF (pi - angles)
- DAB is the same as DCF and ADC is pi - DCF so I have all the angles in triangle ADE, then use sine theorem to find AD, after AD I construct the height from D and use that right triangle to find the height
just check if you also get DFC as 45 degrees, everything else should be correct
the angles I got for the parallelogram are pi/4 + theta and 3/4 pi - theta
But you followed my reasoning, itâs fast and I donât see any mistake
but I get 48 and you get 92
Ok letâs challenge this
Triangle DEF has an ĂĄrea of 12*3
Which Is 36
alright, dont worry, I might be wrong too
its not 48 its not 94
wasnt it 92
how much is it then lol
idk\
how you know it's wrong then?
lemme put solutuin
It was just too many approximations
lol
This is a fast way to get the answer
totally forgot about those theorems
And an advice to avoid approx errors. Leave the whole formula and compute last minute
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Prove that if $\mathcal{A}$ is a basis for a topology on $X$, then the topology generated by $\mathcal{A}$ equals the intersection of all topologies on $X$ that contain $\mathcal{A}$.
Halex
T(A) is a topology and also contains A
can anyone explain 1 of these to me. Im confused as to what the final answer is suppose to look like
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oof sorry
@meager ore Has your question been resolved?
@meager ore Has your question been resolved?
@meager ore Has your question been resolved?
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Consider a nondecreasing, right continuous and say bounded function $F$ on $\mathbb{R}$. Let $(x_n)$ be a real sequence converging to $x_0$. Is it true that $$\liminf_n F(x_n)\leq F(x_0)?$$ My current approach to show this gets very cluttered. What I do is consider cases of how $(x_n)$ behaves. Is there a more straightforward way?
psie
Does F = 1_(x>=0) break this
Consider the sequence 0, 0, 0, âŚ
Oh it doesnât
Ah I see
Yes, it holds I think.
If you have a convergent sequence canât you just take a monotonic subsequence that also converges
Would that make it easier to do cases?
well, yes and no, we might have that the sequence is eventually <= x_0, so there is no monotonic subseqeunce that decreases to x_0 so that we can't use right continuity đ
Wait how
Between (-inf, x0) and [x0, inf) at least 1 of these interval must include infinitely many terms of the sequence
yes, if it's only (-inf,x0), then we are in the case I was considering. The sequence might also oscillate around x0, and so have infinitely many terms in both intervals
If a point is on the left it automatically holds by non decreasing
If itâs on the right you know itâs continuous so itâll get arbitrarily close to F(x0)
and if it's in both?
but there might be infinitely many on the left?
Including points that are equal or less than F(x0) canât make the liminf greater than F(x0)
Since F is non decreasing
ok
You can then take a sledgehammer of ||right continuity as a topology then show decreasing sequences converging to x0 would converge under the image of F since F is continuousy||
I'm still a bit unsure how we can just delete the points on the left if there are infinitely many of them.
by the way, this claim about liminf and F I saw here about the quantile function, see Fact 4 where this claim is made đ
wait, let me think
inf{x_n} is an increasing sequence and so I would say yes, I agree
Okay
So if I have a sequence x_n, and inside that a subsequence y_m
inf x_n <= inf y_n
Wait wrong way
yes, makes sense
Letâs call these sets X and Y, suppose that X \ Y >= Y
We have inf {X} >= inf {X \ Y}
Fuck Iâm getting these signs going the wrong way all the time
If no one else says anything lemme figure out what exactly I want to say first gimme a moment
no worries :), but which sets are X and Y now?
Liminf X = min(liminf X \ Y, liminf Y) <= liminf X \ Y
Something like this I think
This is X and Y being the ordered sets of the sequence
Y is a subsequence of X
Ok.
but recall we are considering liminf of the sequence F(x_n), not of x_n
Ya but then you use the sledge hammer of right continuity
ah ok
The image of convergent sequences under continuous maps are convergent
If you show a decreasing sequenc converges then the image (under a right continuous map) will as well
You can definitely go through the epsilons and deltas if you wish but I would rather not đ
how do we use this inequality then exactly?
The liminf of the whole sequence X is less than or equal to liminf of the sequence missing the points less than x0 (the set Y)
Thatâs what you asked here
We show liminf X \ Y is F(x0) by continuity
So then liminf X <= liminf X \ Y = F(x0)
ah ok, so X \ Y are all the terms F(x_n) with x_n on the right of x_0, is that correct?
Hmm, I think when there are infinitely many terms in (-inf, x0) and [x0,inf), I still struggle understanding what we have to do exactly. Are you trying to say that we are taking a subsequence with only terms in [x0,inf)?
Yeah
ok, but there would be subsequence with terms eventually in (-inf,x0) too. We have to consider those too.
ah wait, we did perhaps already
But those donât matter because F is non decreasing
If at some point, none of your points in the subsequence is above x0 your limsup cant even be greater than x0 let alone your liminf
Ok. So to summarize; either there are infinitely many terms in (-inf,x0) -- we use non-decreasingness of F. Or there are infinitely many terms in [x0,inf) -- we use right-continuity. Or there are infinitely many terms in either interval, and then any subsequence will eventually be one of the two options we have already considered. Is that correct?
Hmm
We first start by using the fact that if a sequence converges, then every subsequence also converges
Thatâs how we can specifically analyse the cases
indeed
Now we have that liminf of X <= liminf X \ A for any A â X
We also have that X converges so liminf X = lim X
So liminf X \ A = lim X as well
So if we remove stuff from X (removing A) so that X\A is either of the cases you wrote down, then bla bla bla
Either X < x0, or X > x0, or both, at some point in the sequence
The first one is simple by nondecreasing F
right
If X >= x_0 then there is a subsequence thatâs monotonically decreasing, whose liminf is equal to liminf X because X converges
If itâs both, you can delete the < x0 part of the sequence then youâre in the X >= x0 case
I guess we still ended up doing cases in the end
Maybe we can try the full continuity way?
X converges to x0 implies liminf X = x0
Nah I guess it hinges on both right continuity and non decreasing
yeah
If X converges wrt std top. then X converges wrt right cont. top. and since F is continuous, F(X) converges wrt right cont. top. so liminf F(X) = lim F(X)
The < is only for when sup X = x0 right?
Yeah Iâm not 100% sure how to argue this properly
Hmm, I think we simply have < when the limit F(x_n) doesn't exist, or?
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/CĂ dlĂ g oh goodness me this is a whole thing
In mathematics, a cĂ dlĂ g (French: continue Ă droite, limite Ă gauche), RCLL ("right continuous with left limits"), or corlol ("continuous on (the) right, limit on (the) left") function is a function defined on the real numbers (or a subset of them) that is everywhere right-continuous and has left limits everywhere. CĂ dlĂ g functions are imp...
Oh yeah we wouldnât know what to do about increasing sequences
Yeah Iâm not sure :/
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cooked
Do you need help with all the parts
For the first part did you try graphing the function
no calc
Without calculator
A rough sketch

