#help-49
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PajamaMamaLlama
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halfway done with getting all the zeros in first row
@languid flame Has your question been resolved?
@languid flame Has your question been resolved?
@languid flame Has your question been resolved?
Gauss method π
i just finished column 3
This is pure punishment having to solve all that

I think bro is getting cooked
Idk what the point of it is though
Like they can test if you know Gauss method with 4x4 or 5x5
i tok my first test and after seeingthe grade i really need this
that was the homework
Yea fr this doesnt even test if you know math after some point
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Is this somewhat related to the nine point circle?
prove angle XDY = XZY
Hmm
Maybe this is a useful fact to prove it
The circumcenter of ABC is the orthocenter of its medial triangle
nah you don't even need that
notice that once you got XDZY cyclic, you also got XY//BC which means XDZY is an isoceles trapezoid
I have another one
Since D lies on the nine point circle of ABC it must be the feet of perpendicular or median
But since its not the midpoint it has to be the feet of perpendicular
then you can derive equal sides which leads to XY being the perpendicular bisector of AD
maybe its naive to say but cant you just backwards construct it by reflecting A across XY
Can i use the phantom points here then prove the points are congruent?
By angle chase XZY = ABC = XDY so XDZY cyclic then the conclusion follows
Yea phantom point also works
Reflect A wrt XY call it A'. Then prove A' cong D
Alr thanks all
It doesnt ensure that A' and Z are the only points on BC that satisfies that property tho
Oh off
Oh oof
@toastaman needs help
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so yea the cyclic quad way is prob the best way
and since it involves the 3 midpoints you can use the nine-point circle argument to prove
just for quick finishing
I got another way
Since its an isosceles trapezium
AX = XB = XD which means ADB = 90
The isosceles trapezium one is beautiful
Yes lol
Alr thanks all
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Can ts be middle term splitted?
No
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
determinant is ugly so no
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
Hint: $\frac{a}{(\frac{b}{c})} = a \cdot \frac{c}{b}$
It's !noans, for future reference
i can send
I've already given you a hint, if you insist on getting direct solutions, i will have to ping the mods. Also stop opening multiple channels when your question has already been answered.
im pretty useless
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
let's send memes
hint
Another $ at the end
$\frac{a/b}{c/d} = \frac{ad}{bc}$
Goofy
Thatβs crazy
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I have a basic question. If I have a function that is continuous and I extend it by a single point, does it suffice to prove continuity of the extension by simply proving continuity at the extended point?
Yeah, so long as that doesn't somehow break the continuity of other points
Ok. This confuses me to a great extent. How does one "prove" this? I thought that a function is continuous iff continuous at each point. Does this statement not apply here?
Sorry did the second thing I said there confuse you? Because I don't think that's actually possible (unless you're doing some strange topology stuff maybe, idk)
If you had a function that was continuous on [a,b), and you safely extended it to [a,b], so long as the value at b is continuous with the rest of the function, the extensions is fully continuous
By safely, I mean like how you can't really extend 1/x from (0,1] to [0,1]
Are you only considering functions R -> R?
what if you define it piecewise
yeah no that wouldn't work anyways
Your statement is fine. π But I think my own original statement confused me. However, your phrase "...so long as the value at b is continuous with the rest of the function." How does one formalize this?
Limits
The point we're adding is a continuous point
Yes, more or less. A function X from some topological space to C, the complex field.
Oh we're talking about topology?
Yeah, this appears in a topology section.
I thought this was a calc 1 question and was treating it like one lmao
take sinx/x for example
design a function such that it is sinx/x for all real except 0 and then define it as 1 for x = 0
oh shoot
my bad this is topology
General topological space? I am eager to say this is not true if the space is not Hausdorff but I'll think on it
Yes, I think you're right. Something like that.
To be more precise, the continuous function we are extending, we are extending it to X's one-point compaction, where X is assumed to be LCH -- locally compact Hausdorff.
Yeah, doesn't the double-zero reals break a ton of continuous stuff around 0?
Hmm...
Oh, you mean the space X = (-1,1) U {0'} where 0' is not an element of (-1,1)?
Yeah, where every open set that contains 0 also contains 0'
I remember that being an example of a topology with some problems
So this is honestly more topology than I think I can review at 1am
Ok, well, thanks for the help nevertheless.
Can you think of any reason why adding a point at infinity (which looks to be what you're doing) that is continuous would break the continuity of other points?
This honestly seems to be very similar to what I said back here
A more general topological notion of it sure, but the same general vibe
I can't, but only if I prove it, I'm convinced. π
And I don't really know how to show that it suffices to prove continuity at infinity.
Hmmmmmmmm
If f:X->C is our function, X' the compactification, and F:X'->C our function extension, can you prove that if for some point b other than the one at infinity, that if F(b) isn't continuous then f(b) isn't either?
I think I got it. Take the real line, we're going to add another origin.
f(origin2) β f(0)
f is continuous at origin 2
There exists an open set containing f(O2), but not containing f(0).
Therefore the inverse image is an open set containing O2 but not 0, a contradiction.
clearly it's sufficient that there exists a neighbourhood of every other point which doesn't contain the new point
clearly
I will try. We would need to find a neighborhood U of F(b) such that F^{-1}(U) is not a neighborhood of b. I think this is what it means for F not to be continuous at b. But since F is not given explicitly, I don't know how the preimage of U is mapped.
Ah wait, but that's breaking continuity of the original function too, isn't it
yeah it is
Why would that be sufficient? Such a neighborhood would perhaps be X itself?
Hmm
is X open?
Yes, in the one-point compactification topology it is.
continuity at a single point can be checked on a neighbourhood
Well thinking proof-by-contradiction-ey, imagine you've got a nbhd U of F(b) s.t F^{-1}(U) isn't a nbhd of b, what does that tell you about f^{-1}(U)?
so if you have a neighbourhood that excludes the new point then you're always fine
Okay so I think I can fix my example, only by setting f(O2) = f(0), right? Or is there any other way?
And as such, we are forced to make this extension continuous anyway?
If U doesn't contain the point that infinity is mapped to, then F^{-1}(U)=f^{-1}(U), right?
Yup, so then f^{-1}(U) wouldn't be a nbhd of b either, making f non-continuous
There's still the case of U containing F(inf), but I think handling that shouldn't be too bad
So we need to be able to find a neighborhood that does not contain the image point of inf (not the other way around; a neighborhood of each point other than infinity).
No I think it's fine if we have a neighbourhood that includes F(inf)
We're trying to show whether or not making F continuous at infinity is enough to make F everywhere right?
Right.
So when trying to show that it's insufficient, we should be assuming F is continuous at infinity
One moment let me lay this out a bit
Yes, that would be great. We are proving F continuous at infinity implies F continuous everywhere, and we are proceeding by proof-by-contradiction.
So I'm still thinking on this one.
I'm trying to suggest a proof by contradiction, where f is continuous everywhere and the extension F is continuous at infinity, and our contradictory assumption is that F isn't continuous anymore
So we want to show that F being continuous at infinity but not continuous everywhere implies that f isn't continuous everywhere
Ok, makes kind of sense. I follow I think.
Okay I'm definitely on the verge of passing out here, I'm forgetting what the next things I was gonna say are
But yeah, if the preimage of an open set in X' isn't open, then it shouldn't be open in X either
I think all that is left to show is that if we've got a nbhd U of F(b) s.t F^{-1}(U) isn't a nbhd of b (here U is a subset of C, or R), we need to show f^{-1}(U) isn't a nbhd of b. The case where U contains F(inf) is immediate since f^{-1}(U)=F^{-1}(U) then. But the case when U contains F(inf) remains.
Hmm.... okay so if F(inf) =/= F(b) then because of Hausdorfness we can find a U only containing F(b)
So we've gotta care about when F(inf) = F(b)
Can you show that if F^{-1}(U) isn't open, then f^{-1}(U) = F^{-1}(U) - {inf} isn't open either?
Ok, let me ask something slightly related. If U is a neighborhood of F(oo) such that F^{-1}(U) isn't a neighborhood of oo, what does that mean?
A neighborhood of p is defined to be any set such that its interior (an open set) contains p. So I guess it means F^{-1}(U)'s interior does not contain oo, so its interior is a subset of X. I'm a bit lost now.
That's gotta do with how the compactification is done
I think I really need to understand the negation of a neighborhood. I don't think I got it right.
@inland patio Has your question been resolved?
The assumption is that $f$ is continuous on $X$ and that $F$ is continuous at $\infty$. Then suppose on the contrary, $F$ is discontinuous at some point $b\neq\infty$. This means that there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $F(b)$ such that $F^{-1}(U)$ isn't a neighborhood of $b$. If $U$ does not contain $F(\infty)$, then $f^{-1}(U)=F^{-1}(U)$ isn't a neighborhood of $b$ either. Impossible. \
If $U$ is a neighborhood of $F(b)$ that contains $F(\infty)$, then $\infty\in F^{-1}(U)$ but it isn't a neighborhood of $b$. Here I'm stuck.
psie
I think... if V isn't a neighborhood of b, then wouldn't V\{inf} also not be a neighborhood of b?
Well, I think you're right. The tricky thing is translating that to f, since one needs to show f^{-1}(U) is not a neighborhood of b != inf for some neighborhood U of f(b).
Well if U contains F(inf), then f^{-1}(U) = F^{-1}(U)\{inf}
Ok. A final question perhaps. Where in all this did we use Hausdorff-ness, if at all? π
Hmm... could a Compactified non-hausdorff space have a point that always shows up in open sets with infinity?
If so, I think this might break
but idk
Ok, thank you very much for your help and patience. π
I still don't understand what you were alluding to here.
so if you have a neighbourhood that excludes the new point then you're always fine
A function f is continuous at a point p if for every neighborhood V of f(x) there is a neighborhood U of p such that f(U) subset V. Why would the existence of a neighborhood that excludes the new point make the extension continuous everywhere?
well first, you already assume continuity at the new point
so it remains to check continuity at all the points you already had
then you just always intersect U with the neighbourhood exclusing the new point
and thats guaranteed to be a subset of V since U doesn't contain the new point
the new point cant ruin continuity because you can always exclude it from consideration
that makes sense actually, thank you π And the existence of a neighborhood that excludes the new point is guaranteed by some sort of T1 assumption (in this case, I actually assume something stronger, that X is locally compact Hausdorff, which implies that the one-point compactification is compact Hausdorff).
yeah seems fine
A final question perhaps. How do we choose U to begin with though? The definition of continuity says that for any neighborhood V of f(x), we need to find some neighborhood U of x.
the function prior to extension has a U
if you want to be more precise you can probably refer to the subspace topology on X
f|X is continuous, and for it we can find a U = U' cap X, so take U'
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hi
listen
i graduated highschool in june 2022 only VERY recently have i decided to go back to school im attending the university of washington now but between those years ive obviously have not done any math, i was wondering if doing khan academy would suffice to regain knowledge
or is khan academy not good enough
like algebra 1, algebra 2, geometry, trig, precalc, calc series
It is fine for an overview of topics
so
lets say i did everything from khan
would that be good enough for university level?
like if i had to take a placement exam for math
and i did every single one of them from khan academy
depends what are the programs your university is teaching
what do you gusy think
well
Udub has alot of stem related majors
but for like a math placement exam is that like good enough?
or what do you think
do you think i should look at other resources for calculus?
im not reading a textbook
i dont have time for that
instead of khan
if you have to take a placement exam, try to seek for the past ones
please
youre not answering the question
tis a yes or no question
do you think khan is enough
what do i do then?
lets say i do everything
algebra 1 algebra 2 trig geometry precalc calc series everything from khan academy
now what
its not enough so what do i do then whats the next step
And i'm redirecting them
take a chill pill vroski
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is c correct?
d is correct, I got it. but c I don't know
Have you tried any workings for C?
yeah
it is basically sec^2 (x) =2
but I'm wondering if any more solution is there
Well, you can use cosec^2(theta) = 1 + cot^2(theta) and substitute that into the equation.
From there, finding theta is trivial
no
3pi/4 is solution... I just checked
there are more solutions, how to get them?
yea, 3pi is sol
that just gives cot^2 (x)=1, same
umm....
<@&268886789983436800>
<@&268886789983436800>
Donezo
so try taking the root of that
cot(x) = +- 1
Trig isnβt even half as bad as integration π
Yes. to find all solutions , simply plug n as any integer
for example, 3pi/4 = pi - pi/4 (n = 1)
Tru Vro π’
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Why would anyone do thatπ
Lots of idiots out there
Delete that also kek, even tho its in dm to you dont post it here
Got kids on the server

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hi guys im new here, could anyone help me with this? im not sure if im right
(sorry, its in italian, heres translation: "Complete the following equalities, deducing from the graph the value of the following limits, if they exist.")
a is correct
b and c are switched around
d and e are wrong
f and g are correct
thank youu
Welcome to the server, Dudika!


for b and c note that $x \to a^-$ means $x$ goes to $a$ \textbf{from the left} no matter if $a$ is positive or negative itself
Ann
so for x -> -1^- you approach -1 from the left and you end up on the upper part of that curve that shoots off to +β
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Why am I getting different values for c and d? All the C(z) are mathematically equivalent.
They are all at a multiplication by 1 close
Yes, that's what I said, so why we have different values for c and d?
if the C(z)'s are all the same
Not the same, equivalent
it's like having 4a/b and 8a/2b
different values for coefficients but they're equivalent
Different values do implies that they're not the same but not that they aren't equivalent
Same != equivalent
@willow lotus Has your question been resolved?
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since its differentiable it will be continuous
so i got one condition by putting x=1
and then i differentiated f(x)
and i got second condition by putting x=1 again
yes correct
but like i was just putting the continuity condition in the derivative of the function
is the actual logic left hand derivative = right hand derivative?
Yes
You approach the function from the right
you get RHD
and if u approach from x<1
You get LHD
so when you say a function is differentiable at a point, it means LHD=RHD
ok so i dont need to use first principle or something to find LHD and RHD?
If they've given the func is diffb already then no need
since LHD is necessarily equal to RHD
If they're asking if the func is diffb then u check LHD RHD by the limit defn
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btw did u give jee?
yh
which year
gave this yr
π₯ 
yeah it's a pun- nw lel
he changes it every single day
I've only changed it twice 
Hmmm
yes
are you a she or a he π
Truly a mains question
I've put an any pronouns but it doesnt show at top idk
Man this area under curve is killing me
i see

and anyway any pronouns role color is π₯ so i just put blue and pink both 
but yes am he 
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I'm trying to prove the derived set of a set is closed
in cases like x^2sin(1/x) you gotta do definition by limit for derivative i believe
oh sorry

To do so let $ x \in (A^l)^c$, then as $x$ is not a limit point it follows $\forall \varepsilon>0 (x- \varepsilon , x+\varepsilon)\cap (A^l)^c \setminus {x} \neq \varnothing$
wai
As $x \in (A^l)^c$ , it further follows $(x - \varepsilon, x+ \varepsilon) \cap (A^l)^c \neq \varnothing$
wai
not sure what do from here
Don't trust me?
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
I do
that's why I'm trying to prove the complement is open
Oh mb
is the notation for derived set really ^l and not '
I mean that's the notation my prof's notes uses
Does this need to be true for all epsilon
oh, right, no
honestly this interval notation for an epsnbhd is kind of clanky π΅βπ«
you prefer $V_{\varepsilon}(x)$?
ohh alr alr ty i was having trouble in finding what cases to use that
wai
you can make a proof that generalizes to any metric space here
sure or that B(r; t) thing if you like that
Could we please stick to R here π( I'll worry about metric spaces if I do well in RA)
you can pretend everything i say is confined to R only
I should add all this is self studying, so please excuse any lapses in my knowledge
let $G = (A^l)^c$ for convenience. we aim to show $G$ is open. to do so, consider $x \in G$; we aim to draw an open ball in $G$ that contains no limit points of $A$ (i.e. lies entirely inside $G$).
\textbf{key step:} let $\boxed{\ep := \inf_{a \in A \setminus {x}} |a-x|}$.
my claim is that this $\ep > 0$, and that $V_{\ep/2}(x)$ [or perhaps even $V_{\ep}(x)$, if we're adventurous] contains no limit points of $A$.
(the idea here is that our x has to lie outside A -- but by how much? that's what epsilon quantifies)
(with an overthinkable but not too hard proof, you get that the Ξ΅-ball around x contains no points of A \ {x})
oh yes actually this is cooking
Ann
hmm
i think you have been struggling on this one problem for a week at least
on and off, yes
also the obvious extension of this to arbitrary metric spaces is that |a-x| gets replaced with dist(a,x)
isn't inf |a-x| = 0 and therfore not >0, or am I missing something?
yeah you're missing the set over which i take the infimum
how do we know an infimum exists
an infimum always exists, even if it's -β sometimes
but these distances are always lowerbounded by 0
oh right, I thought we were taking the min, my bad
So essentially what I have to do is prove that's now contained in G
this ball is in G that is
yes
The infimum does not have to be in the set, inf |1/x| = 0, even if there is no x in R, s.t. 1/x = 0
i think you're overthinking something or just not seeing it
im not even making a claim epsilon as a point belongs to A
im deliberately obscuring the fact that A and G are subsets of R for wai's purposes
cause they dont need to be
epsilon is a distance
I'm kind of unsure of how to proceed
prove that for any limit point $y \in A^l$ you have $|y-x| \geq \ep$ and thus $y \notin V_{\ep}(x)$
Ann
you may find the sequential characterization of limit points useful here
as well as the continuity of the function a β¦ |a-x|
it's probably a bit unorthodox to have x be a fixed thing here but i cbf to shuffle notation right now
this feels like a lot
it's several small things adding up to a somewhat scary-looking total
I think I got it then.
\
Let $y \in A^l$ then as $ \varepsilon = \inf_{a \in A \setminus {x}} \abs{a-x}$ it follows that $ \abs{y-x} β₯ \varepsilon$
wai
how does it follow
note that nobody said y β A
y may very well be a point in A \ A^l A^l \ A !
hmm
you cannot make this jump directly.
yea, noted
typo?
yes sorry i meant them the other way around
Could we split this into multiple cases.
1)Let A be unbounded, in which case this follows directly
2) Let A be bounded
you give no shits about the boundedness of A
and no it still doesn't follow directly
Can I think about this and ping you if/when I make progress
sure ig
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is it necessary to choose an explicit epsilon here? 
if you negate the definition of a limit point, don't we have the existence of such an epsilon automatically?
or am I wrong?
fair 
x is a limit point if for all epsilon > 0, there is a point a of A st a lies in B_epsilon(x)
so negating that...
x is not a limit point if there's an epsilon > 0 for which no a in A lies in B_epsilon(x)
i.e. we have a nbhd of x that is disjoint from A
limit point -> for any positive epsilon, a ball with diameter epsilon contains some points in the sequence
Β¬limit point -> there is a positive epsilon such that a ball with this diameter contains no such points in the sequence [but we still have to prove such an epsilon exists]
how is it not given automatically? 
Because we still have to prove that this is true
if we do this via the topological definition (nbhds instead of epsilon balls), is it possible to prove the existence of such a nbhd?
In this case, Ann attempts this by construction, i.e. explicitly drawing such a ball
x is a limit point if for all nbhds U of x, there is a point a in A such that a is in U
In theory, yes? but since here we're in a specific type of domain we can use some extra definitions (like epsilon) to our advantage
so x is not a limit point if we can find a nbhd U st no a in A is in U

I've never actually constructed such a set, I don't think
such a U, that is
Yes - but now you're using a different requirement; which is why this doesn't need you to construct the nbhd - you just need to claim if there is one, then something else holds
I don't feel like it's necessary to construct one though 
if the definition says that something works for all nbhds, then negating it gets you the existence of a nbhd for free, no?
The epsilon one requires you to construct a ball/an epsilon; then show the statement from the definition of Β¬limit point holds
But the aim is to prove that this is true
maybe I still don't quite understand; why do we need to construct such a ball?
why isn't the existence of one given by negating the definition of a limit point?
We need to prove some set A is closed
So that is equivalent to proving that not(A) is open
sure, so we need to find an open ball around x in the complement of A that's contained in A
okay so; ignoring the above...
is it not possible to use the ball given by negating the definition of a limit point for this purpose, without specifying epsilon? 
You can't just negate a definition and assume it holds
Suppose I want to prove that some object A has a property P, with a definition D
The definitions themselves are different
It may be that if A has property P, then not(A) has property not(P) [let's assume this to be a fact from the definition]
Then not(A) would satisfy definition not(D)
We would still have to prove this
sorry, the letters are overloading in my head now 
in our case, what is A?
which object is A, that is?
e.g. a set
is A the set of limit points, the open ball around our not limit point, something else?
I'm trying to match things one to one
I'm trying to generalise
But suppose we want to prove that A is closed; this is definitionally the same as "A' is open" - but I would still have to prove this
We have two different definitions for openness here
But I mean, there are two definitions, and they're slightly different; so to prove their negations true in a given situation requires different things
wait no
I'm still confused 
we wish to prove that some set A is closed, meaning we want its complement to be open
to prove its complement is open, we want to fix a point in it, and then identify an open set that's contained in the complement
yes?
A is the set of limit points of another set B
if x is in the complement of A, it is not a limit point of B
therefore, there's an epsilon such that no point of B lies in the epsilon ball around x
yes, but it's closed
y'all wanna yap about it over in #γhelpers-loungeγ ?
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so the doubtful points are 0 and pi
so we need to check LHD and RHD at these points right?
yes
could u check if i got them right
because i dont want to have gotten the answer by accident
i can give it a quick look
checking for one case would be enough
this is f'(pi)
sorry if the handwriting is bad lmk if u cant understand anything
yeah
yeah
im having a little trouble with the LHD
is the only difference that h-->0-?
cause my teacher gave me a definition where
lim h-->0 (f(x-h) - f(x))/-h
no x=pi-h but h will still tend to 0 right
yeah
thats right
effectively saying you are taking a x which just a little little *100 tad smaller from pi
my doubt is instead of this can i use the definition
lim h-->0- (f(x+h)-f(x))/h
@quartz hornet
that doesnt make sense tho ,if you are checking at x1 ,and you are aproaching from left you need a x which is infinitesmilly smaller than x1
x+h would imply you are looking at a number biger than x , effectively looking from rhs
(imo)
you can try to check the continuity on gif with this , instead of replacing x=x-h, use x=x+h
that should put things in perspective
what your teacher said would work yeah
but idt this question wants ytou to do alltha
it dosent?
you could also just differentiate the function (if ou are quick at it) , and quickly check lhs rhs
basically checking the continuity of the differentiated function at the critical points
differentiate that shit π im good
it looks a tad repetative , so made me think there might be a trick to it , thats all , maybe not tho
i am not quick at it
thats fine too lhd rhd should work same
was it obvious
yeah
so what if they are repeated roots?
now if a function has repetative roots at these points
they are differentiable at thoese points
oh huh
think about it
consider (x-a)^2
diff it
2(x-a)(1)
now if i put x=a from either side i would get zero
making the differentiated function continuous , hence the function differentiable
similarly if you try to differentiate the above product you will notice that when you diff e^|x| -1 , (x-1) is untounched , hence it vanishes , and similarly other terms will vanish too at x=0 and x=pi
now you know!
ohh ok
thanks bro
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e
add the fractions, then use butterfly method and solve for x
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Can someone help me look over an application question? Itβs for a SI/TA position for classical physics
The question was the βwhy do you want to be an SIβ
Hereβs my response
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what is the amplitude of this sinusoidal signal in AC?
given channel 1 voltage div(y) = 10v/div?
do you mean that the y-axis grid scale is 10V per grid division
yes
in this case is nDiv only 1.5-1.8? is the mid line on the third line counting from above (the partial square line)?
what the hell is nDiv
im seeing from this clipart-looking picture that the wave spans about 5 divisions vertically
which means its peak and trough are 50V or so apart
yeah but whats the amplitude? I think the amplitude is only the peak?
ndiv is the number of squares you gotta count as divisions
since it starts at line 3, id assume the amplitude or peak is around 1,5 ndiv or 15V peak amplitude
do you think this is correct?
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Is this closed or open set?
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
At x=0
I got [1,infinity)
so you got F = [1, +β) yes?
your definition of closed set is?
Which contains all limit points
why does x=1 matter? the original definition of F has x go over [0,1**)**
0 β€ x < 1
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Consider the topology of uniform convergence on compact sets on $\mathbb{C}^X$, generated by sets of the form $$\left{g\in \mathbb{C}^X:\sup_{x\in K}|g(x)-f(x)|<n^{-1}\right}\quad(n\in\mathbb{N},f\in \mathbb{C}^X,K\subset X\text{ compact}).$$Let's denote these sets by $B_K(f,n^{-1})$. Are these sets, for fixed $f$, a neighborhood base for $f$?\
What we need to check is that each $B_K(f,n^{-1})$ contains $f$ (obvious) and that for open $U\ni f$ in the topology, there exists a compact $K$ and an $m$ such that $B_K(f,m^{-1})\subset U$ (how do I do that?). I am sort of considering the topology when $X$ is locally compact Hausdorff.
psie
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@inland patio Has your question been resolved?
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Can someone clarify?
what do you need a clarification with?
what part needs clarification?
I am studying linear algebra, but I was surprised with this quadratic equations question in the exercises so I am puzzled and can not make a grasp of it
once you plug in the points, those quadratics just become simple numbers
bx^2 at x=2 is just b(2^2)=4b
even the matrix notation contain the unknowns not the coefficients, what does this mean?
there are no specific points to plug as you can see the figure is vague
they are generalizing the solution set
so they pick arbitrary points
that (x1, y1) could be any point
still did not get it!! let's go straight to the point, how should I attack this problem?
here is the solution if it could assist someone with explanation
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lim nβ infinity nsin(2 pi e n !)
what have you tried?
is that thing at the end there multiplication or exponentiation
[ \lim_{n \to \infty} n\sin(2\pi e n!)?]
k
i see pi, e and n all there
like this?
can i use stirling?
What is that?
or is it unneccessary?
approx
Use minority criteria
you can just frame it
The original question was that = kpi
Then find k
Don't think approximation will help here
What is that too?
ye doesnt wokr
On second thought the e breaks stuff
Probably doesnβt converge?
?
So the question is wrong then?
Would be a yucky thing to prove I think
maybe its supposed to ask the limit in 0?
Hmm that would be just 0 tho
by any chance do you have the original question? maybe there is a mistake with interpretation
is that supposed to be a factorial
Another way of writing factorial
that's a factorial?
Yeah
in which country
i'm admittedly taking a shot in the dark here, but would it help to consider the taylor series expansion of (en!)?
i went to your query on wolframalpha, and it seems like if you tell it to assume a discrete limit, there is an answer
Interesting
and i think the idea behind it is to split the taylor series expansion of (en!) into an integer and fractional part
would that be enough information to solve?
this is the taylor series expansion for en!, right?
I just wrote the expansion of e
And then multiplied it by n!
Did you mean something else?
what if you look at it this way?
can you now split this expansion into an integer part and a fractional part?
hint: compare m to n. when will n!/m! produce an integer? when will it produce a fraction?
Wouldn't it always be an integer since n is bigger than m
m is also growing without bound
basically both n and m are growing without bound, and we aren't fixing n >= m
so let's come back to this question. what do you think?
I am not getting it. Wouldn't it just give
n!/1+ n!/2!+....+1
when m > n, what happens?
How will m be greater than n, n approaches infinity?
m is also approaching infinity
i mean, we are summing to infinity
for any given n, there will always be values of m > n because m is tending to infinity too
alright
so let's split the series
and let's just consider the fractional part (on the right)
for large n, what does the fractional part approximate to?
1?
so we have 1/(n+1) + 1/(n+1)(n+2) + ...
0
i think the idea behind the question is that the whole series approximates to 1/(n+1)
How does the 1/n+1 come?
because the decay in value from subsequent terms is significant enough
(for large n)
Where does this lead to?
ok so we have split the taylor series of en! into its integer and fractional parts
let's call the integer part I and the fractional part F
Ok, what after that??
so you can remove 2pi(I_n) from the sine
you will need to use small angle approximation
I get it
remember the approximation of f_n? substitute it here
then use your standard limits techniques to solve for k
n sin(2pi/k+1) = 2
n+1*
I get the answer but this part still bothers me
you're not wrong to question it, but it is an approximation
if someone else has a better way or can justify it, i'll be happy to hear
but for me, that's my only justification unfortunately
Thanks a lot
glad to have helped!
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How to solve it through substitution???
Use anyone of these equations
would you know what to do if the numbers were not roots
And find the value of one variable
it's basically the same shit
Yeah!!
Then what's the trouble?
square root phobia
Roots are just normal numbers
I get it
roots are just normal numbers but pedagogically they are a hurdle
rhizophobia i guess or something
like... ok, you do need to exercise a bit of extra care when handling these roots
in particular make sure not to confuse $\sqrt{2}x$ with $\sqrt{2x}$ --- one handwriting trick that helps for this is to put a little hook on the end of your root symbols
Ann
I am stuck π
Show ur work
Where did the root over 2 go
Look there is still a sign of root
@lyric charm
not over the 2 in the last equation which is the issue being pointed out
Aah I see
Let me fix it
But either way u continue in the normal way
Subtract
To make it easier briing root 8 to a simpler form
what is this word
Ehh?
specifically what is the first letter in there
here you don't need it...
anyway
Put 
the important thing you care about is that this equation reduces to $\paren{\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} - \sqrt{8}}y = 0$, and one thing you can say for sure about $\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} - \sqrt{8}$ is that it's not zero
Ann
if it says "put" then what are these bits doing there
Cursive
π
That's cursive 
Isn't it cool?
no it's not

you're talking to someone who deliberately taught herself a semi-cursive hand out of hatred for Russian cursive
Back to the question
anyway you reacted with β to this. what's unclear?
Your English and explaination
you collect like terms and the equation becomes $\paren{\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} - \sqrt{8}}y = 0$
Ann
understand or no?
Understand
$\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} - \sqrt{8}$ is not zero
Ann
and to say the quiet part out loud: the best next step is to divide by that
So everything becomes 0
β οΈ
Right?
"everything" is not a word you should throw around lightly like that
Y=0
too vague to answer.
@lyric charm
Ehh??
i do not know what you mean by "there is any natural number"
If there is any natural number Instead of zero
like on the RHS?
well then you may have to do some simplification magic with the radicals
Yeah
eventually you'll come to a point where you need to do something like multiplying by the conjugate to rationalize the denominator
best if you come here with a specific example question though tbh
Oh yess!
rather than force me to explain things in generality and fail to make you understand
This algebra video tutorial explains how to rationalize the denominator with radicals and variables by multiplying the numerator and denominator by the something that will eliminate the radical expression in the denominator. This video contains plenty of examples and practice problems on simplifying radical expressions.
Radical Expression...
Ohk!!
Well @lyric charm why there is no vc?
Vc will help to end the doubt more quickly
dunno, ask the mods. not me.
- i don't have the energy for voice chat right now anyway
mods == moderators
if you want to speak to them as a team, you can DM @shadow scaffold
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I have the function 144x/(x+9)^2 but only in the domain x>=0.
Is there a tangent to the function at x=0 or no?
Because without the domain constraint it does have a tangent there but with it, the function isn't differentiable at x=0.
why do you claim it's not differentiable at x=0?
$\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(h)-f(0)}{h}$ still exists just fine, does it not??
Ann
it just resolves to the one as $h \to 0^+$ due to the domain restriction, that's all -- but that doesn't stop it from existing.
Ann
I believed that at "endpoints" functions are not differentiable
what, like inherently?
yea
well you're wrong about that, what else can i say
good to know ig
So because the right side limit of the derivative exist, a tangent does exist to the function at that point?
yeah sure
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Is this a correct proof of the product rule?
limit h->0 (f(x+h) - f(x))/h = f'(x)
Therefore, f(x+h) = hf'(x) + f(x)
d/dx f(x) g(x) = limit h->0 (f(x+h)g(x+h) - f(x) g(x))/h = ((f'(x)h + f(x))(g'(x)h + g(x)) - f(x) g(x))/h
= (f'(x)g'(x) h^2 + f'(x) g(x) h + f(x) g'(x) - f(x) g(x))/h = h f'(x) g'(x) + f'(x) g(x) + f(x) g'(x) = 0 + f'(x) g(x) + f(x) g'(x)
There are dozens of proofs online you can compare yours to
f(x+h) = hf'(x) + f(x)
this equality is not literally true.
it provides good intuition, but for a proof you may need something more precise like little o notation
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Hi! If a/b,c/d are Farey Neighbours in F_n, why can't they have more than 1 fraction between them in F_{n+1}? I wanna try justifying this without the fact that |bc-ad|=1? Now if b+d>n+1, they're still gonna be neighbours but what if b+d=n+1?
Here's what I got so far:
so firstly, if a/b<r/(b+d)<s/(b+d)<c/d
k/(b+d) must also lie between a/b and c/d for all k beteween r and s both inclusive
so I only took the case where s=r+1
and when I did that what I got is a/b<(2d-1)/(2c-1) and 1/(bc-ad)<1/b+1/d
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hellooo does anyone know why the magnitude and angle of RF are wrong?
the table is correct
you dont need to give me answer im so grateful if someone guides me through it π₯Ί π
<@&286206848099549185> π
is this using the phytagorean theorem and trigo?
@lime oracle Has your question been resolved?
@lime oracle the reason why you haven't gotten much in the way of answers is that the information you have provided is incomplete.
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
hold onnn, sorry. this part is actually supposed to be done by my groupmate but i am doing it insteaddd so i dont have her solution (I think she used ai π)
this is only what our teacher gave usss
let me showww
Do you not have a diagram of the way the pulleys are arranged?
aaaa wait i just realizeddd
im also watching this video right now, not sure if its the right one that i should watch but https://youtu.be/RxV06Oj5sMc?si=veTlzsGBCy_Lntee
This physics video tutorial explains how to find the resultant of two vectors.
Direct Link to The Full Video: https://bit.ly/3ifmore
Full 31 Minute Video on Patreon:
https://bit.ly/41WNmI9
Vectors - Free Formula Sheet:
https://www.video-tutor.net/physics-formula-sheets.ht...
i genuinely just saw the diagram man
This seems like a good video to watch
i looked for the N part myself π
No worries. A difficult part of learning is not knowing which questions to ask.
thank you, i just thought it was a picture of our teacher showing us how to assemble the force table
So when I ask, "do you have a diagram?" That can be useful as an answer to a question you didn't even know you had π
yesyesss β€οΈ
this is my current progress
Good luck with the Squid Game btw.
its very small LOL
AGHHH s1 will always be my fav
Okaaayy
And then, if you still have questions, let me know.
okay okay, thank you!!!
Ping me, I'm going to look elsewhere for a minute
Absolutely
May I also make a recommendation, you don't have to do this, but it might help your other students (and yourself)
Once you figure out how to do this, it might help you solidify your understanding if you teach your project partner how to do it.
YESS SURE
slr i just saw ur message
i am halfway done btw
@carmine sigil i am done but i am very unsureeee
for the clockwise/counterclockwise part when u subtract 180 degreess
,rcw
i followed with the guy in youtube, but for his one of his sign was negative but mine are both positiveee
so i think i followed wrong HAHAHAA
thank youuu π yesyes
also my part of the activity was vector resolution, and it's the same but for mine it's 46.6
So I'm seeing something a little bit unusual, and I was hoping you could clear it up


