#help-49
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Angle ABC = (360 - 10x - 5x - 7x) = 360 - 22x
angle BAC = angle BCA = (180 - (360 - 22x))/2 = 11x - 90
Also, angle ABD = angle ADB = (180 - 10x)/2 = 90 - 5x
So angle DOA = (11x - 90) + (90 - 5x) = 6x
In triangle AOD, by the angle sum characteristic, 10x + 6x + (90 - 5x) = 180
11x = 90
x = 90/11
No. I saw this on Youtube.
Is it correct?
Because the person in the video got x = 10 deg
<@&286206848099549185>
video link?
im surprised that this kind of angle chasing even works at all here
lemme repro...
10x is not an angle in triangle AOD
Oh.
Lol.
this is what plain angle chasing would give us
i will ask once again that you link the video
and timestamp
You won't understand it.
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i can follow the diagram at least
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Ah now the link has changed <@&268886789983436800>
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Sin|x| differentiability
Yes
you cant compute the derivative like that at x=0
??
you have to take the limit
Then should I have to take limit?
the chain rule doesnt work if the inner function isnt differentiable
Definition of derivative
take the limit of that function you got
just plot the graph thats the easiest method
but if you wanna do it mathematically just use the first princ
it will be sin|h| not sin(h)
limit of sinh/h exists
sin|h|/h doesn’t
Cz the numerator is positive for 0+h aswell as for 0-h
but denominator changes sign
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I can’t integrate $\int_0^1\int_0^1\sqrt{x^2+y^2}dydx$ using a polar subsitution because $[0, 1]\times [0, 1]$ is a square, right?
;(
[\int_0^1\int_0^1\sqrt{x^2+y^2}dydx=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\int_{0}^{\sec(\theta)}r^2drd\theta+\int_{\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\int_{0}^{\csc(\theta)}r^2drd\theta]
PajamaMamaLlama
you can but to say the substitution is obvious is silly lmao
Ok
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it is differentiable at x=0
Solve for?
Not differentiable
!xy
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
@regal barn Has your question been resolved?
this is the original problem
on the right of ur img, it's a comma, indicating that the sentence doesn't end there
alpha>0
alpha>1
alpha>=0
!xy
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
alpha>=1
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How do I read the left side of this equation? i mean, how do i start writing the terms?
I know this is the Vieta's formula for sum of products of r roots for a general polynomial, just curious on how this notation works
Set i_1 = 1 first
then i_2 has to be 2
i_3 is 3
on and on
then incremenet i_r until it hits the max
then increment i_(r-1) and incremenet i_r again
ohhhh
try matching the formula up with a small value of n like 3 or 4
okay so i choose i_1 to be anything between 1 and n and keep incrementing?
you'll see what I mean
well technically thats fine
but to maintain order you generally should start from 1
start with i_1=1 yes
yeah
wait so
Let $n=3$ and $r=2$, then
$$\sum\limits_{1\leq i_1<i_2\leq 3}\left(\prod\limits_{j=1}^2\alpha_{i_j}\right)$$
@chilly adder
so if i start with i_1=1, then i_2=2
then for the first term the product becomes $\alpha_{i_1}\alpha_{i_2}=\alpha_1\alpha_2$
then i set i_1=2?
@chilly adder
hhh
if i do that i_2=3
so product is now alpha_2alpha_3
thats it?
there should be an alpha_1alpha_3 term too
@chilly adder Has your question been resolved?
@verbal pumice my bad if you're busy, i have this last question
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Yo stupid question but is
Y/-2
The same as Y × -1/2
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Ik this a very easy question
But i need someone to use scaler vectors way strictly
Please dont help if your gonna use coordinate geometry
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.reopen
@sage crypt Has your question been resolved?
did you draw a picture
yeah try drawing a picture
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Can anyone explain how my teacher went from the first line to second? I can send the whole context if needed
Do you know the expansion for (a+b)²?
yes
im sure you can understand how the second line implies the first line. the trickier part is how the first line implies the second
have you learnt "completing the square"
yea b/2 squared
$t^2 - 2 \times 2t + 2^2$
╰ 𝕃 𝕌 ℂ 𝕀 𝔽 𝔼 ℝ ╮
they are using that method to convert it to vertex form
i can link a video that shows how to convert from the standard form to vertex form
This algebra video tutorial explains how to convert a quadratic equation from standard form to vertex form and from vertex form to standard form.
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Wha can u pls solve it?
This algebra math tutorial explains how to convert standard form to vertex form of a quadratic equation using the completing the square method.
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Also: $(a-b)^2 = a^2 - 2 \times ab + b^2$
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make another channel
alright thanks i’ll watch them
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Alr
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is there any way to solve these types of questions mentally?
37^12 / 23 has a remainder of ....
35^10 / 19 has a remainder of ...
yes, using modular arithmetic
$37 \equiv 14 \equiv -9 \pmod {23}$
south
then repeated squaring, so (-9)^12 = 81^6 mod 23 = (-11)^6 mod 23
= 121^3 mod 23 = 6^3 mod 23 = 36 * 6 mod 23
= 13 * 6 mod 23 = 78 mod 23
= 9 mod 23
that's the closest you can get
for other similar questions you could also use Fermat's little theorem
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How could I approach this problem?
Q seems the easiest, notice how its just the sum of the squares of P then -10
Yeah
then for S its kinda the same thing
the fourth power comes in
and it is a fifth degree polynomial so it wont be that easy
not even to find the sum of squares ig
how will you solve that?
@astral terrace Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
What does "zeros alpha1, alpha2, etc." means? @astral terrace
If you know the alpha[] value then this would be trivial no?
yes but you cant really find the value for qlpha easily
ol i have no idea weather its correct or not but it may be equivalent to
(a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2+e^2)^2-2(ab+ac+ad+ae+bc+bd+be+cd+ce+de)^2+4(abc+abd+abe+acd+ace+ade+bcd+bce+bde+cde)(a+b+c+d+e)-4(abcd+abce+abde+acde+bcde)
Ok but what are we suppose to use P(x) for?
for all the alphas
i cant check cause im too lazy to do it manually, chatgpt sucks, wolfram alpha breaks
zeroes are roots
But i assume you already know that
man i have an examination rn so i gotta leave now
I'm an idiot 
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for this, do i need to show that t(0)=0? if so how?
uppercase T not lowercase t, but yes you do need to use that T(0) = 0.
it is not hard if you consider that 0 = 0 + 0
and the defn of linearity
Do you have any information about T? If T is one-to-one, then you can use that.
this start is a bit sus though tbh
oh i see
nope
Why do you think this is true?
T is linear and from V to W
Try to find a counter example.
so it's not always true?
i mean i think OP needs to be clear on what exactly his assertions and goals are for this proof
cause right now the beginning's kinda sloppy and the logic is, for lack of a better word, clouded
I claim you can always find a linear transformation that will map any independent set to a dependent one.
@vague crag , try to think of a simple example of a linear transformation T where you end up with a depdendent set.
this is a "prove or disprove" question btw right @vague crag
yeah
hmm
that's a context that you have to give
always without exception
also yes it pays to try and think of the simplest, dumbest linear map that could possibly exist.
why the unamused react?
wait lemme think
so basically it fails if ker(T) doesn't equal 0 or not injective. So maybe a T where it maps all vectors to the 0 vector?
"So maybe a T where it maps all vectors to the 0 vector?" You tell me, is the set with just the zero vector a dependent set?
ye
So, in particular, if you apply T to a independent set you'd get a dependent set.
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I need help solving this ITF question
tried converting to tan
but in the end this comes
wait, this identity doesn't seem true? 
this is true
Yes, the inputs for the second arcsine go from 1 - 1 to 1 + 1.
sus
for further help i used the solution but it confused me even more
It's false for x = 1, for example.
perhaps the question was to show that there exists only one real solution
,calc asin(1) + asin(1 - 1)
Result:
1.5707963267949
,calc acos(1)
Result:
0
okay
It gets two solutions in the end, so it's not an identity.
thats sesrching for solutions
what happened in 4th step?
sin(sin^-1(x))=x
sin(pi/2 - x) = cos(x) for the right side.
No problem.
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anyone know why part b might be wrong
@twilit lodge Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Isn't there a formula for p?
Umm i honestly just plug everything in ti84 for these problems
But let me check I don’t think you can solve without technology
Yea no I looked it up and it’s pretty much only done using technology and I seem to have followed the steps correctly
It’s probably just an error
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I'm reading a proof of the fact that a set $\mathcal C$ of commuting linear operators are simultaneously diagonalizable (the other direction is also true and a bit easier). They proceed by induction on the dimension of the whole space. When the whole space has dimension $1$, they say that every linear operator is diagonalizable by the standard basis. This phrasing confuses me, as the whole space is just an arbitrary vector space. It does not necessarily have "a standard basis", or?
psie
ummm... why wouldnt theree be a standard basis?\
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you can prob prove it also direct but whats the step you stuck
To show it's increasing, we perform induction.
\
$a_{n} - a_{n-1} ≥0$
\
so
Now inducting $a_{n+1} - a_n = 3 - \frac{1}{a_n} -a_n$
\
Showing that it is increasing and a_n < 3 for all n should be two things you handle separately
What a wonderful world !
I'm doing that
Well, it's more logical to perform induction on the a_n < 3 for all n case
let $a_n<3$
What a wonderful world !
aw it's a heart <3
We then have $a_{n+1} = 3 -\frac{1}{a_n}$. but $\frac{1}{a_n}>\frac{1}{3}$
What a wonderful world !
indeed
so $\frac{-1}{a_n}<\frac{-1}{3}$
What a wonderful world !
What a wonderful world !
yup
Now to prove it's increasing
for that I have to show 0 isn't possible
Not too sure
😔
I did try that earlier
here
Apply definition of a_n
yeah
I have...
you'll get 3 - 1/an -3 + 1/a_n-1
yes, so 1/a_{n-1} -1/a-n
yeah
but I already know that that's positive ( by inductive hypothesis), I suppose?
yes
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why -1.175?
shouldnt it be positive
cuz the z sign is > and the value next to z is negative
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can someone help me qith this question? like the formulas to use and making sure i do i correctly (but also letting me do the qork instead of doing it for me type of thing?
please ping me as qell
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
i quiteliterally asked for the formulas so that eould indicate i dont knoe the formula to even start?
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the first one is simple and compounded yearly
the second one is continuous compounding
thank you
couldyou type the forumlas outso i dont go through the video looking for it?
i feel itd be easier to do that than
looking for videos but
actually nevermind
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$SI = P \times r \times t
A = P(1 + r)^t
A = Pe^{rt}$
wawit
$
[
SI = P \times r \times t
]
[
A = P(1 + r)^t
]
[
A = Pe^{rt}
]$
mia
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I have close the channel
oh
Please leave me alone.
um okay
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i am having trouble getting my head around this
how did $csc^2 x$ disappear
Lavandula
i am not familiar with cscx cotx integration
do you know the derivative of cot(x)?
not rly
They did a $u$-substitution by taking $u = \6\cot x -1$ before applying integration by parts. Then you can refer to what ramonov said
Aero ݁˖ ❀ ⋆。˚
i only know tan(x) derivative is sec^2 x tho
It's not particularly hard to derive. Do you know the quotient rule for derivatives by any chance?
yes
So, knowing that [
y = \6\cot x = \4{\6\cos x}{\6\sin x},
]
use the quotient rule to find $dy/dx$
Aero ݁˖ ❀ ⋆。˚
you can put a \ before the - to disable that
Anyways you're right
That's it
Do you see how and why it cancelled now then?
ohh
r there any others
i only know derivatives of sinx, cosx and tanx
regarding the ones angle-related
I mean I wouldn't say you need to memorise them, as they're clearly easy to derive if you know the derivatives of cos and sin
But it's generally good to know like, cos, sin, tan, sec, csc, cot, arcsin, arccos, arctan
Yeah just Google it
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So first I use the root test to find that $0≤ \sqrt[n]{\abs{c_n}}< \frac{1}{4}$
Now checking $c_n (-4)^n$ for absolute convergence
$
What a wonderful world !
$\sqrt[n]{ \abs{ 4^n c_n} } = 4 \sqrt[n] {c_n}$
What a wonderful world !
this is betewen 0 and 1/2 with the root test , so it converges
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
uh
first of all
how did you find that series of c_n(-4)^n is absolutely convergent?
and also why is this true
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
(and ideally, that isn't the way to go about it either!)
So what converges?
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can someone explain what happened at this point? i understand everything else
especially in the denominator, why did sin get squared?
its not supposed to be squared
it was a mistake
so whats the real solution
cuz i get
how 1 - sin^2x turned into cos^2x
but even so, how does sinxcosx turn into just sin x
and the cos^2x goes where?
just remove the square in that one step
they cancelled the common factor from the numerator and denominator
so cos^2x gets cancelled out once
by the cosx in the denominator
leaving just
cosx over sinx?
yes
okay thank u

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(Source: IOQM 2024)
I'd just try to label the sides and apply similarity and perhaps pythagoras
It is known that hypotenuse >= the corresponding height / 2
AC >= 24
Because we can draw the right angled triangle in semi circle of radius AC/2 and then get that the maximum value of h as the sides vary is R = AC/2
i think you can make a rather elegant solution to this if you consider that triangles ADB and BDC are similar and in so doing get a relationship between AD and DC
AD * DC = 144
AD + DC = integer
min(AD + DC) = 24
AC = 24 is not possible due to Fermat's last theorem.
AC = 25 is possible.
Done?
In this case wouldn't the triangles just be congruent if they were similar?
AC = 24 is not possible due to Fermat's last theorem.
you're joking right
what's fermat-wiles gotta do w/ this
you could have just said "they can't both be 12 bc then the perimeter would be 24 + 24sqrt(2)" or something
What?
How?
i dont think they'd necessarily be congruent
Oh. I didn't know! Thanks!
was that sarcastic or genuine?
This essentially works, doesnt it? If you change the reasoning from fermat's last theorem to what Ann said
Oh yea there is 1 counter case which is when $\angle A = \angle DBC$, otherwise they're congruent I think
@exotic stratus
they are almost never congruent
Lol.
If $\angle A = \angle C$ then they're congruent by ASA rule
@exotic stratus
Mhm. We're lucky.
What do you mean by this though?
And this
you can have sth like this
I was just thinking since $\bar{BD}$ is common between $\triangle ABD$ and $\triangle BDC$, $\angle D = 90^{\circ}$ (both of them) if $\triangle ADB \sim \triangle BDC$ it may imply $\triangle ADB \cong \triangle BDC$
@exotic stratus
May?
BD is common, but it corresponds to different kind of side in each case
Yes
It was a thought
Yea that's the conclusion I ended up with
e.g. here BD is the longer leg of smaller triangle and smaller leg of larger triangle
I found the contradiction lol no worries
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im studying SVD right now, and noticed that A*A^T has the same eigenvalues as A^T*A--aside from the multiplicities of their zeroes and typically you choose to find the eigenvalues of A^{T}A, but that matrix may be larger than the former.
so id like to pick the smaller square matrix of the two to speed up computations since i have an exam on this topic.
im just curious whether this is valid in all cases. im aware of the proof for eigen(AA^T) = eigen(A^TA). i just need to ask if theres any picky considerations i should be aware of with using this strategy
@cosmic epoch Has your question been resolved?
00100000
then, $AA^TAx=A(\lambda x)$
00100000
so $AA^T(Ax)=\lambda (Ax)$ for eigenvector $x\neq0$ of $\lambda$
so, you're right
00100000
which actually kind of surprised me. definitely would mess around with multiplicities tho, since the matrices aren't necessarily of the same size
@cosmic epoch Has your question been resolved?
the multiplicities can be found easily right? via knowing the rank
if eigen(AA^T) = l1, l2, l3, .... where AA^T is (mxm)
then eigen(A^TA) = l1, l2, l3, ..., 0, 0, 0, ... until we hit the rank of the matrix
use integration
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- looks like you will have to solve a quadratic in k
wdym?¿
Okay, so can you extend the distance formula to 3D? Also, can you set up the formula?
oh this is for 2D, I am working in 3D
how?
Try to think of a rectangular prism.
How would you find the long diagonal connecting the opposite points?
pythagoras ig, idk
Perfect. So try it out. And if you feel more comfortable talking in Spanish, that’s alright.

time will reveal
I prefer english so the ppl can understand us hehexd
Alright then, just apply the formula.
- looks like you have to construct a right triangle at B
-
Determine all values of ( k \in \mathbb{R} ) such that
[ d(A, B) = 5, \text{ where } A = (-1, 0, k) \text{ and } B = (3, k, 3).] -
Given
[ A = (1, -2, 3), \quad B = (2, 3, 5) \text{ and } P = (4, a, -1), \quad \text{find } a \in \mathbb{R} \text{ such that the triangle } ABP \text{ is right-angled at } B.]
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
so AB and BP must be orthogonal if yk
||Dot product||
interesting, let me finish 1) first
hopefuly it wont finish you
lmfao
grammar finished me
apparently i understand spanish
,, A = (x_1, y_1, z_1) \ B = (x_2, y_2, z_2) \ d(A,B) = \sqrt{(x_2 - x_1)^2 + (y_2 - y_1)^2 + (z_2 - z_1)^2}
I also have a question about translation but we can do this after
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
the values are missing
that's literally here
i see, you took care of k already
no you skipped to 2.
usually you start with 1
i see
A = (-1,0,k)
B = (3,k,3)
,, A = (x_1, y_1, z_1) \ B = (x_2, y_2, z_2) \ d(A,B) = \sqrt{(x_2 - x_1)^2 + (y_2 - y_1)^2 + (z_2 - z_1)^2} \\ A = (-1, 0, k) \ B = (3, k, 3) \ d(A,B) = \sqrt{(3 + 1 )^2 + (k - 0)^2 + (3 - k)^2}
and d is also equal to something
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
,w sqrt(16 + k^2 + (3-k)^2)
what?
oh ok
and solve the quadratic in k dear
,, 5 = \sqrt{(3 + 1 )^2 + (k - 0)^2 + (3 - k)^2}
938c2cc0dcc05f2b68c4287040cfcf71
no
ok
the inside is always nonnegative here
Result:
9
time revealed
0 = k^2 + (k^2 + 6k + 9) - 9
0 = 2k^2 + 6k
zero product property
0 = k(2k + 6)
- k = 0
- 2k = -6 ==> k = -3
k = {0, -3}
mistake
-6k
my god
0 = k^2 + (k^2 - 6k + 9) - 9
0 = 2k^2 - 6k
0 = k(2k - 6)
- k = 0
- 2k = 6 ==> k = 3
there you go
what about it
ok
AB = B - A = (2,3,5) - (1,-2,3) = (1,5,2)
BP = P - B = (4,a,-1) - (2,3,5) = (2, a - 3, -6)
,w (1,5,2).(2,a-3,-6) = 0
embodiment of lazy 🦥
this is why you should draw a picture
draw the 3 points A,B and P
you want at B a right angle
well B can only be connected to A and P
so you get two segements
that need to be perpendicular at B
it does not need to be perfect but yea
wdym?
the drawing
now imagine you connect red with blue and blue with green
you then get vectors in space floating around, but now you want them to be perpendicular, so they make a right triangle
thats the idea behind
nah you are making stuff up now
L : X = a(0,1,0) + (4,0,-1)
a is not a parameter but a constant
oh ok
it's an arbitrary point you move around in space
a=5 happens to be the value where you get the right triangle
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Is there a way to find the answer by jus looking at it
Knowing what the origional graph looks like
Nvm forget thay
Can i get help wid dis
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Trying to find $\pdv{z}{s}$and $\pdv{x}{t}$
We start with $\pdv{z}{s}$
What a wonderful world !
$\pdv{z}{r} \cdot \pdv{r}{s}+ \pdv{z}{\theta} \cdot \pdv{\theta}{s}$$
What a wonderful world !
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So that gives us $e^rcos(\theta) \cdot t -e^r \sin(\theta) \cdot \frac{ s}{\sqrt{s^2+t^2}}$
What a wonderful world !
is this right
What a wonderful world !
is that the final answer? i thought its gonna continue further
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
It is yea
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Now I know I can just expand this
but is there no other way
$\pdv{z}{r} = f_x(x,y) \cos(\theta) + f_y(x,y) \sin(\theta)$
What a wonderful world !
$\pdv{z}{\theta} = -f_x(x,y) \cdot r \sin(\theta) + f_y(x,y) r \cos(\theta)$
What a wonderful world !
Guys, I can't solve this question, I didn't understand about centroids and everything, and this is one of the last questions I need to finish from the list that I have to submit today. Please help me, I'm in high school and I entered this math olympiad to challenge myself because I enjoy it, but I think it's too much for me with so little time to complete a list at this level along with other questions.I know that these concepts will be used, because I was recommended to read a very dense material about it, but I understood very little, especially about barycentric coordinates, because of that, I can't move forward to apply Ceva's Theorem.
ADVANCED LEVEL
!occupied
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Open a new channel.
THANKS
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Prove that a tangent is perpendicular to the line joing the point of tangency to the centre.
angle CDB is always 90 deg.
As D gets closer to the point of tangency B, it basically falls on the tangent! And that will be when it is coincident with B. And that will be when angle DCB = 0 deg. So angle CBD will be 180-(0 + 90) = 90.
Is this a correct ||proof||?
was there any reason for spoiler-tagging the word "proof"?
anyway, no. i'd say it's an ok thing for intuition but i would not consider it a rigorous proof at all.
Yes, to shock the helper.
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........
oh yeah because shocking the helper is such a good thing to set up on purpose.
(/s)
/s = sarcasm?
Yes /s = $\sum_{i = 1}^{sarcasm} i$
@exotic stratus
yes
this joke was supremely unfunny.
||un||funny
can you please not?
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$\int(lnx)^2dx$
prograce
what method
ibp i reckon
What is u and what is v' ?
differentiate (ln(x))^2 and integrate 1
after 1 iteration you will realise
Or u sub x=e^y if you fancy. Still have to use ibp, but it makes it a bit easier
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$\int_{0}^{1}\frac{ln(1+x)}{x^{\frac{3}{2}}}dx = \lim_{\epsilon \to 0^+}\int_{0-\epsilon}^{1}\frac{ln(1+x)}{x^{\frac{3}{2}}}$ ?
help
missing } just before the last dollar
prograce
lower limit should be just epsilon not -epsilon
also missing dx also missing \ln command
Classic integration by parts
I thought I could use taylor series for ln(1+x) and then calculate integral for polynomials
o ok
\[
\int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1+x)}{x^{\frac32}}\,dx = \lim_{\epsilon \to 0^+}\int_\epsilon^1\frac{\ln(1+x)}{x^{\frac32}} \, dx
\]
Aero ݁˖ ❀ ⋆。˚
This is what she meant I believe
Overcomplicated. No need
$\ln(x)$ and not $ln(x)$
Ann
btw do you need to calculate the integral or just test it for convergence?
This one test convergence
I feel like now you mentioned it that what I'm doing trying to calculate the integral is a bit useless and there's another way?
I'm a bit stuck now too
if you only want to test for convergence
just try to compare ln(1+x) with an easier function to work with
only after we established convergence can we start manipulating the integral to find its value
Like x?
like x
then its just 1/x^1/2 and since the power is less than 1 then it converges
since integral is between 0 and 1
right?
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did I do something wrong? or answer is given wrong?
aha nvm found it
it would be root w
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Find all integer solutions to (5^a - 2^b)^2 = 1
So every power of 2 which is either 1 above or 1 below a power of 5
Trivial examples are a=0 b=1 and a=1 b=2
Minus. Clearly, it can't be positive.
Why not?
modules could help u find a solution
@cursive swan Has your question been resolved?
5^a - 2^b = -1 has a lot less solutions than 5^a - 2^b = 1, or so one would think.
wow ok the strikethrough completely obliterated the minuses.
5^1 - 2^2 = 1
1^2 = 1
Not sure if maybe there's a misunderstanding about what was meant here
The question is:
Find all integer solutions to (5^a - 2^b)^2 = 1
I understand the question
Someone offered the observation that this means the quantity in parentheses must equal 1 or -1
Yes, that is, |(5^a - 2^b)| = 1.
Because there could be some pairs that satisfy 2^x - 5^y = 1, where x > y. That is why I squared it.
I found no solutions for 0 <= a, b < 100.
@cursive swan Has your question been resolved?
(a, b) = (0, 1)
(a, b) = (1, 2)
those are 2 solutions with 0 <= a, b < 100
I mean there are not more than (0, 1) and (1, 2)
For even x:
2^(2x) - 1 = 5^y
(2^x + 1)(2^x - 1) = 5^y
this would mean that both 2^x + 1 and 2^x - 1 are powers of 5, which is clearly impossible
5^(2y) - 1 = 2^x
(5^y - 1)(5^y + 1) = 2^x would mean both are powers of 2, which is also impossible
Oh wait
2^n - 1 will always be divisible by 3
or maybe im stupid
i honestly dont know
yeah, im stupid
it will only be divisible by 3 for even n
or maybe
no
5^n - 1 is divisible by 6 for even n
and always by 4
yes, by 24
just brainstorming
i honestly have no idea on how to approach this
if only 4 wasnt a power of 2
for odd n, the other factor will be
5^n + 5^(n-1) + .. + 1
5^n + 1 will often be diviisble by 3
by 6
ohhh
namely when n is even
oh..
damn it
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Help
Is the answer for the first one 16? How do i do the rest?
@west bay Has your question been resolved?
I'm getting 16 for a as well
But the other ones are just elaborate lines, they don't contain regions of points as such
So I'm getting 0 for those
No wait mb I'm massively misreading that
Do each of these with cases, depending on which quadrant the point (x,y) is in
These are still collections of (geometric 1x1) squares, but you need to determine which squares
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Let <x,y>=xAy* be an inner product on C^2, with A={{1, i} , {-i, 2}}. Why does the conjugation overline become a conjugate transpose?
psie
it's a 1x1 matrix which makes it automatically symmetric
right, I agree that it's a 1 x 1 matrix, but shouldn't the inner product be a scalar?
in linear algebra we tend to implicitly use the isomorphism between 1x1 matrices and scalars by treating them interchangeably
ok, that makes sense
@inland patio Has your question been resolved?
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What's the actual difference between the pigeonhole principle and it's generalized form?
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Let $x_1,x_2\in\mathbb C$. Consider the expression $$|x_1|^2+2\Re(ix_1\overline{x_2})+2|x_2|^2.$$ How can I convince myself this is positive for $x_1$ or $x_2$ not equal to $0$? If one them is zero and the other isn't, it's obviously $>0$. However, if both of them are not equal to $0$, I don't see how to motivate that the expression is $>0$.
psie
the inner product is only guaranteed positive if you take the inner product of a vector and itself
Yes, in my example we had $$A=\begin{pmatrix}1&i\ -i&2\end{pmatrix},$$and we were considering $\langle x,y\rangle=xAy^\ast$. Now I'm trying to show that $\langle x,x\rangle >0$ if $x\neq 0$. If $x=(x_1,x_2)$, then $xAx^\ast$ reduces to the expression above.
psie
well in the worst case scenario you would have 2Re(ix1 x2bar) = -2|x1||x2|
how do you know that 2Re(ix1 bar(x2))< -|x1|^2-2|x2|^2? I don't see it.
well it's greater than that
and that's the only part which can be negative
so we need to convince ourselves that the parts that must be positive will necessarily be bigger than the parts that could be negative
right, and I can't see why 2Re(ix1 bar(x2))< -|x1|^2-2|x2|^2 is false
well at this point we can just replace the magnitudes entirely with real numbers
so we want to convince ourselves that x^2 - 2xy + 2y^2 > 0 for real x,y (equality if both are 0)
so if |x1|=x and |x2|=y, how do you know Re(ix1bar(x2))=xy? That is what I gather from your reasoning.
Re(ix1 x2bar) >= -xy
the magnitude of ix1 bar(x2) is xy, so -xy <= Re(that) <= xy
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✅
It's been a little while since I've done anything with torque. To verify, do I set the rotational axes at the ends of the ladders, calculate the torque generated by the person and the ladder, then calculate from that the force the wall/floor has to exert to keep it in equilibrium?
For this, I don't really know what to do
@green mesa Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
the rotational axis in this case is the point on the ladder on the pavement
(since it's kept in place)
so what do I do to find the force on the ladder from the wall?
well you can see the wall's only purpose here is to balance the torque for the ladder by pushing back on it
wait
I meant how do you find the force from the pavement
I got the wall, rotational axis floor, torque equals torque from wall
but what about the floor?
no
well
gravity would be one of the forces
acting on the ladder at the floor
what's the other
(horizontal one)
normal force from the wall
so the torque from the normal force equals the torque from the weight of the ladder and person. But how do I calculate the force from the floor?
oh
friction
yes
what is friction cancelling out in this case
(the only other horizontal force)
not normal force fromt he wall?
it is the normal force from the wall
that's what the frictional force will be equal to
you have the wall force right
Not yet
oh
I haven't calculated anything yet
I've been doing other homework, and I'm tired of the numebrs lol
fair
I'm taking a break and just planning this one
well id find the wall force first
okay
It's kind of confusing, though, because it implies that there's only one force acting on the ladder from the floor
maybe I should ignore the weight?
there's 2
1 net force
So do you think I should find the magnitude of the net force?
yes
okay
and how do I calculate the weight? I assume it's not mass times gravity because of the wall
unless the question specifically asked for like the magnitude of the friction
the wall doesn't matter
okay, so just normal weight calculation
the weight force is always equal to an object's mass times gravity
pointed straight down
that should do it for the first one, thank you very much for your help
I'll go back and look at this later
Any tips for number 2?
I haven't got an idea of how to do that one
well it definitely will involve torque
do you know what the "pivot point" in this case would be
It's just one?
yes
yep
okay
What can I calculate from the angle of the strings?
all forces can
So I can use the angle of the torque somehow to determine distance?
The torque would have to be equal, right?
well not necessarily
But in this case?
the sum of both tension x components will equal 0
yes
and remember the torque exerted by each tension force is just the y component times r (dist from center of mass)
from what it looks like you never actually have to solve for tension
youre just using it to relate equations to actually solve for x
would it also work if you did the magnitude of the tension times sin of the angle between the cables and the beam, and the distance from the center of mass?
Is that the same as the y component times sin 90 times distance?
yes
T_1 and T_2 would represent the magnitudes of the ropes
(for example)
you can use mechanical equilibrium to solve for x from component forms of the tensions
(eg. T_1 * sin(theta))
you want to rearrange for two expressions equal to T_1/T_2 (or the other way around)
then you'll be left with x as the only unknown
which you can solve for
(based on how i believe the problem would work out)
