#help-49
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its more to present the work for the person grading it.
Of course, I don't think it's too difficult to see that 15 is greater than 1 
But that's pretty much it 
lmao
thank you so much for your patience in helping me understand!!
i really appreciate it 
It's always a pleasure to see and help you
and hopefully that helped 
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I would like some help proving the divisibility rule for 11
A number is divisible by 11 iff the difference of sum of the even digits and odd digits is divisible by 11
Any hints?
We first consider $11 \mid a_1a_2\dots a_n$\ implies 11\mid (11-1)^{n-1}a_1+(11-1)^{n-2}a_2+ \dots + a_n$
[
11 \mid a_1a_2 \dots a_n \implies 11 \mid (11-1)^{n-1}a_1 + (11-1)^{n-2}a_2 + \dots + a_n
]
A dense set(Ping when reply)
ooh
You can write the number as a_n*10^n and so on
yeh, that's what I've done
if you expand doesent that imply $11\mid a_1(-1)^{n-1}+a_2(-1)^{n-2}+\dots+a_{n-1}(-1)^1+a_n$
Skissue ping4response
whats 10 mod 11?
right
1
-1 = 10 mod 11
ah yes
this is what I was trying to arrive at
thanks
then you get a_n*(-1)^n, if n is even then its just summing up a_n if n is odd you subtract it
so you have addition and subtraction alternating
yup got it
thanks
now the opposite direction
if $11\mid a1(-1)^{n-1}+a_2(-1)^{n-2}+\dots+a{n-1}(-1)^1+a_n \implies 11\mid a_1a_2\dots a_n$
A dense set(Ping when reply)
well, this sin't too hard
We add and subtract stuff
that's it
I take that back
what do I do
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Do you need to prove!
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Ik how this works here but I don't understand why doesn't the part labelled Under attention works ? Why can't we js cancel them out
It's a nuance of derivatives. dy, dx, and dt are not variables that you can just cancel out like regular algebraic variables
$\frac{\dd y}{\dd x}$ is all one variable.
SWR
The chain rule does not work because you are cancelling out dt. We just chose a notation that makes it look that way (for better or worse)
And it completely breaks down when you consider the second derivative, or when you consider partial derivatives
So the point the textbook is trying to make is that the chain rule looks like algebraic cancellation, and it can be handy to think of it as such, but that is not what is actually happening
Hmm could you further explain this part if possible? What do you mean by completely breaks down
Hope u cld explain in terms of 2nd derivative I have learnt that not partial derivatives yet tho
If you think that chain rule is just an algebraic simplification, then you may be inclinded to believe that $\frac{\dd^2 y}{\dd x^2}=\frac{\dd^2 y}{\dd t^2}\frac{\dd^2 t}{\dd x^2}$. But that is simply not true
SWR
Js a random qn ig d^2y/dx^2 is d/dx(dy/dx) aren't we technically js expanding them like fractions?
Oh
wdym? Could you explain more, or work out what you mean?
Here we cant treat them algebraically
This is valid, yes, and you can get a sort of chain rule going here, but it's going to like quite different from the first-order derivtive's chain rule
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(I think this one is easy but can't figure it out, I am a beginner when it comes to vectors)
did u draw that diagram?
yes
this is what I tried:
M mid-point of CD
⇒MC⃗=1/2⋅DC⃗
=1/2⋅(DA⃗+AC⃗
MA⃗=MC⃗-AC⃗
=1/2⋅DC⃗-AC⃗
=1/2⋅(DA⃗+AC⃗)-AC⃗
=1/2⋅DA⃗+1/2⋅AC⃗-AC⃗
=1/2⋅DA⃗-1/2⋅AC⃗
=-k/2⋅DB⃗-1/2⋅AC⃗
=-k/2⋅DB⃗+k/2⋅CB⃗
=-k/2(DB⃗-CB⃗)
=-k/2DC⃗
=-kMC⃗
Now if we can show that MC⃗=-k⃗MB , we're done
@vestal moth Has your question been resolved?
Try say A=0 B=1, and calculate the position of all other points, also in your diagram, you have drawn as if k is negative.
If k was positive, d would be between a and b
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how do I prove by induction?
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the horizental asymptote will use that 2
well tbf the 2 is a part of the function, u would have to use it
@river marten Has your question been resolved?
Do I
Multiply it to the numerator?
u can
but that will not help at all
ur given the expanded form of the function and the factored form of the function so that u can determine the asymptotes
and the x intercept(s)
Sooo how do I solve for the Horizontal asymptote then?
- If the degree of the numerator is higher than the denominator, then there is no asymptote
- If the degree of the numerator is equal to the degree of the denominator, then the asymptote is the ratio of the coefficients of the highest degrees
- If the degree of the numerator is less than the degree of the denominator, then the asymptote is y = 0
then apply it
u see that the numerator and denominator have the same degree right?
they both have x² with the highest exponent
u mean cancellation?
oh
they both have same degree 2
so divide the coefficients of x²
thats ur horizental asymptote
dont forget that 2
So 6/1?
I actually know this now
Thank you a bunch ~〰︎~
Non-math question
Is season 3 out yet?
.close
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im not sure aboutb
b
i think a is unconnected
b idk i feel like its unconnected as well because theres no way to acces d
id assume c is strongly connectyed
@carmine hawk Has your question been resolved?
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x <= t <= x+1 and -1 <= sint <= 1
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let $\mathbb{S} = \langle (1,1,1,0),(1,0,0,-1) \rangle$ and $\mathbb{W} = { \mathbf{x} \in \mathbb{R}^4 \mid x_1 - 2x_2 + x_3 + x_4 = 0}$ , $\mathbb{H} = { \mathbf{x} \in \mathbb{R}^4 \mid x_1 - x_2 + x_4 = 3x_1 + 2x_2 - x_3 = 0 }$ Find if possible a subspace $\mathbb{T}$ that satisfies $\$ $dim(\mathbb{T}) = 2$ , $\mathbb{S} + \mathbb{T} = \mathbb{W}$ and $\mathbb{S} \cap \mathbb{T} \subseteq \mathbb{H}$
Renato Chavez
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&286206848099549185>
<@&1280681159495385169>
,, S + T = { \mathbf{x} \in \mathbb{R}^4 \mid \mathbf{x} = \mathbf{s} + \mathbf{t}, , \mathbf{s} \in S, , \mathbf{t} \in T }.
Renato Chavez
,, S \cup T = { \mathbf{x} \in \mathbb{R}^4 \mid \mathbf{x} \in S \text{ or } \mathbf{x} \in T }.
Renato Chavez
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
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@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> <@&1280681159495385169>
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
hm
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
.close
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how can i solve this with limits?
This is just a function, what are you supposed to do with it? Can you post the full context with all instructions?
i just need to know how do i determine the limit
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I have 4 different balls and 3 different boxes.Each box can hold any number of balls.
Find the total number of possibilities.
How to find it ?
well the firsr ball can go into 3 bins, the second can go into 3, and so on
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Stars and Bars
stars and bars?
.reopen
✅
you said any number of balls, does that mean that some boxes can be empty?
yeah
its distinct balls
then you want theorem two here
In combinatorics, stars and bars (also called "sticks and stones", "balls and bars", and "dots and dividers") is a graphical aid for deriving certain combinatorial theorems. It can be used to solve many simple counting problems, such as how many ways there are to put n indistinguishable balls into k distinguishable bins.
Theorems one and two are...
$\binom{n+k-1}{k-1}$
"how many ways there are to put n indistinguishable balls into k distinfuishable bins."
Distinct objects into distinct bins is a type of problem in combinatorics in which the goal is to count the number of possible distributions of objects into bins. A distribution of objects into bins is an arrangement of those objects such that each object is placed into one of the bins. In this type of problem, the objects and bins are distinct....
stars are also different
Melvin Eugene Punymier
(n indeistinguishible objects and k bins)
n is also distinguishable
It's called "Stars and Bars" because you can picture it like lining up some stars and partitioning them with bars
are they? The wiki should be updated if that is so
they are not distinguishible in theorem 1
different balls and different boxes
oh, hm...
wikipedia says "such as how many ways there are to put n indistinguishable balls into k distinguishable bins."
n indistinguishable
ah
3^4?
I think you are right
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thank you
yeah I misread
wait i have a question
cant a box hold no balls too
it is possible
thats still accounted for
and it is considered in 3^4
how
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✅
doesnt 3^4 account for each ball going in either box 1 box 2 or box 3
a box having no balls is possible
yeah
all the boxing containing 0 balls is not possible
because we have to place the balls somewhere
yeah
well?
we do?
i see
making it 4^4
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The red parts should cancel out in theory, but what happens to that absolute value?
(pls ping me when answering @stiff forum )
@stiff forum Has your question been resolved?
How’d they go from the first step to the second?
@stiff forum Has your question been resolved?
I already claimed this channel, u gotta ask in one of the unclaimed ones
<@&286206848099549185>
I got help ty
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i dont understand how they got the first equation from substituing w for a +jb
we know w is a complex number which can be written in the form a+jb
yea
that way we can split the purely imaginary parts from the purely real parts
whered the j go though
|c+jd| = sqrt(c^2+d^2)
magnitude of a complex number is a nonnegative real number
j is the imaginary unit
you people need to stop deleting your messages
you learned something
cool
be glad about it
deleting messages is a cowardly act
i wouldnt go that far
why not c^2 + d^2 ? since j^2 = -1
I would write it as 8j instead of j8 so I was confused. Thanks anyways!
if you draw the complex plane, the magnitude of a complex number is the distance from that complex number to the origin
you can use the distance formula
this one ?
yup
you need to split the real and imaginary parts
they kinda skip a lot of steps, so im gonna break it down
we start with |x/y| = |x|/|y| which we do the first one
then we multiply by the denominators to clear them
oh wait
this gives you 3|w-12|=5|w-8j|
i forgot to multiply 12 by 3
why?
any other steps youre stuck on?
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Prove
I was thinking of proving ab|lcm* gcd
and vice versa
Let the prime factors of a,b be 1,a_1,a_2,\dots, a and 1,b_1,b_2,\dots, b
let the largest common factor be some a_i and b_j
so gcd(a,b) = a_i
or wait
let gcd(a,b)=1
then lcm(a,b)=ab and we're done
let b=ka
then gcd(a,b)= a, and lcm(a,b)=b
so gcd*lcm=ab
let the prime factors of a = 1,a_1,a_2,\dots, a_n
\
Let the prime factors of b be b_1,b_2,\dots, b_m
\
we then have gcd(a,b) = a_1a_2 \dots a_k where thesre are the common prime factors
I'm lost
<@&286206848099549185>
Alternatively, I thought I could prove $lcm(a,b) \cdot gcd(ab) \mid (a,b)$ and vice versa
A dense set(Ping when reply)
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for real number x and natural number n, prove that
topic is induction
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yo is there a math bot here for homeworl?
i dont know
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Let ${E_r}_{r>0}$ be a family of Borel subsets of $\mathbb R^n$. They are said to "shrink nicely" to $x\in\mathbb R^n$ if \
- $E_r\subset B(r,x)$ for each $r$,\
- there is a constant $\alpha>0$, independent of $r$, such that $m(E_r)>\alpha m(B(r,x))$.\
Let $U$ be a Borel subset of $B(1,0)$ such that $m(U)>0$. Then $E_r={x+ry:y\in U}$ shrinks nicely to $x$. How? My attempt: 1) is straightforward to verify, but I struggle with 2). $E_r$ is the translation by $x$ of the set $rU$, so $$m(E_r)=m(rU)=r^nm(U),$$but I don't know how to continue here.
psie
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@inland patio Has your question been resolved?
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We consider the linear system of equations (1st image) We consider the linear system of equations Determine the coefficient matrix and the augmented matrix of this system of equations, check whether it has solutions and determine them if necessary.
My numbers look werid. I would be thankful, if you could look over it.
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I am confused about eigenvectors. Lets say we have the matrix A, which has an eigenvalue -1 (with multiplicity 2). Now, when calculating eigenvectors, both $x_1$ and $x_2$ are free, so we get eigenvectors (1, 0) and (0, 1). This means that for $\lambda$ = -1, A(1, 0) = -1(1, 0), and A(0, 1) = -1(0, 1), (which is true). However, consider any random vector $\in R^2$, for example (8, 5). A(8, 5) = -1(8, 5). So shouldn't (8, 5) be an eigenvector? I understand that because both $x_1$ and $x_2$ are free, for every vector (a, b), A(a, b) = -1(a, b), so then why isn't every vector considered an eigenvector, since it satisfies Ax = $\lambda$x for $\lambda$ = -1?
$$A = \begin{bmatrix} -1 & 0\0 & -1 \end{bmatrix}$$
Ezlanding
they are eigenvectors, too. Maybe you might want to look up eigenspaces
to each eigenvalue, a whole subspace of eigenvectors corresponds to it
it's just that (1, 0) and (0, 1) form a basis for this eigenspace
(excluding (0, 0) which I think is usually not considered to be an eigenvector, but still contained in every eigenspace)
Yes or else any lambda would be an eigenvalue
@left meadow Has your question been resolved?
So span{ (1, 0), (0, 1) } forms all the vectors that Ax = -1x, and eigenvectors are the just basis for these vectors
eigenvectors are all these vectors except 0, not necessarily just the basis vectors
they are $\mathbb{R}^2 \setminus {0}$ while the eigenspace is $\mathbb{R}^2$
rbit
So you're saying the eigenvectors are the vectors such that span${v_1, v_2, ..., v_p}$ are the vectors such that satisfy Ax = $\lambda$x for the specific $\lambda$?
you can ignore any spans, the eigenvectors are just all the vectors ${x \in \mathbb{R}^2, x \neq (0, 0): Ax = \lambda x }$
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it's really just that (1, 0) and (0, 1) are "nice" eigenvectors, because they form a basis for this whole space (if we include (0, 0) again)
So then why isn't every vector the eigenvector (such as (8, 5)) of $\begin{bmatrix} -1 & 0\ 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix}$ rather just (1,0) and (0,1)?
Ezlanding
yes every vector excluding (0, 0) is indeed an eigenvector
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Show $e \mid a \land e\mid b \implies e\mid gcd(a,b)$
A dense set(Ping when reply)
"gcd"
greatest common divisor
for what order, one might ask, standard order or divisibility order?
Doesn't matter, how wonderful
so $a=ek_1; b=ek_2 ]\implies ab=e^2k_1k_2\implies gcd(a,b) \cdot lcm(a,b) = e^2k_1k_2$
A dense set(Ping when reply)
a question set
I'd refer to the definition and see if it doesn't happen to be immediate
gcd(a,b) * lcm(a,b) = ab might be an overkill tbh
yeah in no world did you prove this without proving that first
That was the previous question
but this is still not it
wdym
how does it show that e divides gcd(a, b)?
$gcd(a, b) = \inf{}_| {a, b}$
If you ever encounter this, it might come up one day
That's what it's related to
Bezier
It doesn't
not directly
Well, this tells us $e$ is a common factor of $a$ and $b$
A dense set(Ping when reply)
does this suffice?
oh no
how unnecessarily complicated of a proof for that fact
you think you are
You wont need any fancy theorems for this one
but you still haven't understood what can and cannot pretend to qualify as a proof
go do some lean
Just few defns:
a is a divisior of b iff b = ka for some k
gcd(a, b) is the greatest common divisor of a, b
Lmao
You don't need to go to the axioms every time, but you should be confident that you would be able to trace your proof down to basic theorems and axioms. And if you're not, don't skip the steps
I';m sorry, but when I see ENT, I just short circuit
.. all this while i was thinking e divides a to the power e
and i was confused why you all said its so easy
high schooler encounters logic notation in the wild, freaks out
according to definition of gcd of a and b, if d|a and d|b, then d| the gcd
try to use this
Hmm
that doesnt sound like the most common defn of gcd
that's probably not his definition
oh thats the definition in my book
$e=k* gcd(a,b)+ r \implies (e-r)/gcd(a,b) =k. 0\leq r<gcd(a,b). so r=0
yeah
the standard definition afaik is
"Z is a principal ring so aZ + bZ = dZ for some d > 0. d is unique and is called gcd(a, b)"
Barely into the second month of undergrad
I miss this
Simpler times
The simplest defn is gcd(a, b) is the greatest common divisor of a, b imo ¯_(ツ)_/¯
show it exists
WOP
has a maximum
ok fair
careful, WOP guarantees existence of minimum
not maximum
you actually need it to be bounded from above
also WOP sounds like axiom of choice to me
which WOP doesnt require
That's weird
Does this work?
well ordering principle is kinda like the AOC thing
are you confusing it with WOT?
what's WOP then
Well ordering princple
"N is well ordered" isn't a principle, it's a theorem
We don't do physics here, there are no principles beyond the axioms
hmm
k is gonna be 0
r is gonna be 0
is e 0?
why does k have to be zero
WOP says that every non-empty set of naturals has a minimum
WOT says that every set can be well-ordered
why on earth do you call that a principle
this is where you use choice
Why not
$gcd(a,b)=ek_1+r$
A dense set(Ping when reply)
none of those are even close to "theorem"
I work using this
principle isnt the same as axiom
that puts it on the same level as principles in physics
which are kinda like axioms
that's why I never see the term principle in math
physics can go fuck itself tbh
yes
okay lemme check now
so $gcd(a,b)-r)/e=k$
A dense set(Ping when reply)
fractions rarely lead to anything
really? Why?
what if gcd(a,b) was 2 and r was 1
e\geq gcd(a,b)
e is a common divisor of a, b that is greater than the greatest common divisor of a,b?
not sure
my approach would be different
but i cant say with certainty that yours doesnt work
I'm just not sure how to show r=0
how is gcd(a,b) defined in your book
d \mid a \land d\mid b
greatest common divisor of a,b ig
bruh
Wait is this your defn?
it becomes so simple then
that was the den for integers
for naturals we used a different defn
d \mid a and d\mid b
i mean itll be the same
if e | a and e| b then e \leq d
Btw there is an elementary theorem that uses gcd and that would be extremely helpful
its named after this guy
overkill
ah yes
so did u find the def
ok, now do you realise that the conditions given in the question statement match the property of gcd given by the definition
I think this isnt the defn that was intended by the problem set
yes
because then your task is literally the defn of gcd
prolly just a warmup
1 is an integer. Prove that 1 is an integer
that's literally what the problem would be asking
i mean we can see its important
cus op struggled
the authors of the book are beyond us
No, I'm just bad at number theroy
using bezout is easier, bezout is probably more elementary and I still dont see how you would use that to prove it
ur just a beginner dont be hard on urself
Compare yourself with yourself few months ago
Prime factorisation?
I wouldnt go into that
you would need to define gcd using prime factorization
etc
bezout
the $\alpha a+ \beta b = gcd(a,b)$ one?
A dense set(Ping when reply)
yeah
so you would need to prove that e divides that
Yeah
bezout is a pretty elementary theorem so I think that you can use it here
and bezout is only proved with stuff like induction, euclidean algorithm etc which are like the most elementary it can get
fiar
thanks
I didn't use it because this version of bezeouts was on the next page
but it will fly in the exam
Thanks!
good night!
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The task is:
Determine the coefficient matrix and the augmented matrix of this system of equations, check whether it has solutions and determine them if necessary.
I would be glad if you could help me, because I am not sure about my result. The numbers look ‘funny’.
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Hi there I was tring to do this eccercise . THought of adding the director vector u = 3 4 2 and trying to find another called v = [ x , y , z ) such that u . v = 0 and then i got stucked
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@nova wharf Has your question been resolved?
@gray widget No c como seguir
<@&286206848099549185>
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is the answer A?
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
@stiff terrace Has your question been resolved?
@stiff terrace I'm still reading it fyi
okk thank u
Okay your $\lambda_1=1$ and $\vec{\alpha}$ look good so far
SWR
And your $\lambda_2$ and $\vec{v}_2$ and $\vec{v}_3$ look good.
SWR
So yeah, I would say A is correct
(I do not know if the other options would all be wrong though. I doubt any of the other options would be correct. And even if they were, the problems says to find a matrix, not all matrices, so choosing A should be sufficient)
No. The order will simply determine the order of eigenvalues along the diagonal matrix, but it'll be diagonalized nonetheless
ok 😭
ill try A
omg
it was right phew
thank uu
can u help me with this problem too? im not sure how i should approach it
will take a look in a few min
@stiff terrace $P_3$ is the space of all quadratic polynomials?
SWR
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can someone explain how in the cofunction identity and angle can be negative?
Like this one
how does it make sense for the top angle of the triangle to negative
that would indicate that we are dealing with unit circle trigonometry rather than right triangle trigonometry
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I might be stupid, but why is
not equal to sec(x^4)?
Mind you, both sec(x^4) and 4x^3 * sec(x^4) (the right answer) seem very reasonable, it's just that I cannot pin down why the first one is wrong.
I don't know, it just seems reasonable, is all.
what’s the derivative of x^4
4x^3, granted.
yep
But FTC states that g'(x) = f(x).
i’ll write it for you
f(x) is not 4x^3 * sec(x^4).
$\frac{d}{dx} \int_{h(x)}^{g(x)} f(x) dx = f(g(x)) \cdot g’(x) - f(h(x)) \cdot h’(x)$
perhaps to see why we need the chain rule here it would be best to consider an example
other than the one given of course
how about
$\frac{d}{dx} \int_{0}^{x^2} \cos(x) dx$
let’s save the derivative until after
and first evaluate the integral
lemme change the lower bound actually
sin(x^2), no?
knief
Wait, was it supposed to be pi or 0?
yes but about about the lower bound
i changed it to zero
Ah, gotcha.
You would do F(b) - F(a), hence sin(x^2) - 0, no?
yes exactly
now
let’s take the derivative of it
what’s the derivative of sin(x^2)
Which gives us sin(x^2), which gives us cos(x^2) * 2x, granted.
knief
do you see where the chain rule comes in
I mean, I can see why it is needed, but I am struggling to see how it being needed doesn't contradict the FTC rule of g'(x) = f(x).
that’s only when the upper limit of integration is simply x
FTC is more commonly written as
$\frac{d}{dx} \int_a^x f(t) dt = f(x)$
knief
this is because we’re differentiating with respect to x
yep
indeed
lol
you dont have exams tmrw
nah
i have to hand in homework for one class tomorrow
then i’m off for the rest of the week
then do that now
and finals thereafter
it’s in person
he’s the one professor who wants paper homework
teleport
lmao
By all means, if you have something you need to do, knief, please don't let me keep you from that.
nah i don’t
what are you majoring in?
pure/applied math double major
does this make sense to you
the upper limit is no longer x, it’s x^2 so the derivative with respect to x is no longer 1
Do you mind if I write how I'm sort of picturing it in my head in iMath and then upload the picture in just a bit?
sure
@iron flame
maybe i can mention something else which may give you more of an intuition for this
perhaps it’s because we’re writing x which is very common to use
but for instance we could just as easily write u or x^2
like
$\frac{d}{dx^2} \int_0^{x^2} f(t) dt = f(x^2)$
knief
if we were differentiating with respect to x^2
then yes it would be true
but we’re differentiating with respect to x
not x^2
so chain rule applies
I think I somewhat get it.
the derivative of f(t) from 0 to x is F(x) - F(0). If we take the derivative of that, it is quite clearly going to be d/dx F(x) - d/dx F(0). Assuming F(0) (and therefore it's derivative) is zero, for conveniences sake, the derivative of F(x) will be d/dx F times d/dx x - and should x not simply be x, the chain rule will apply.
Regardless, however, we can still say that F'(x) = f(x), because f(x) does not refer exclusively to f(X^1).
Something along those lines, I think.
F(0) need not be zero
F(0) will always be a constant
hence its derivative will be zero
Hence why I said for conveniences sake, since I did not want to think about it.
but the rest is good
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Here, I wrote a=nk+b
feel that's overkill
so like I got gcd(nk+b,b) ; gcd(b,n)
easy enough to show they're equal
using the definition of equality mod n isn’t overkill
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Help with question 8 please
What do you think?
It is indeed not surjective, since 6^x and 6^|x| are both positive for any x
Now is it injective?
Let's say you're given some value y, like 12.
Can you solve the equation $6^x + 6^{|x|} = 12$?
Azyrashacorki
Try and split into cases
If you solve that equation I just gave and end up finding multiple solutions, then the function can't be one-one
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Indonesia
The first population census was done during the colonial era, 1930. Before that, a non-overall census was already conducted in 1920. After that census was done irregularly. The first census after independence was 1961, followed by 1971. Since 1980 it is conducted regularly every 10 years. In between, there is also economical census (ev...
real
complex
what the actually fuck
Cool
ok.
laylaaa :3
hi swerriee ily 
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ily moree 💞
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guys
help me again
a cicular racetrack has a radius of 100. if a car drives halfway around the circle what is the distance traveled?
is it 50 or 200
or wait no
100
100 pi
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\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1 + \sqrt[n]{n} + \sqrt[n]{n} + \dots + \sqrt[n]{n}}{n}\
😭
$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1+\sqrt[n]{n}+\sqrt[n]{n} +\dots+\sqrt[n]{n}}{n}$
roach
Thanks
is that it though
I don't think this is what you mean though
Yes
what
I mean this is something I wrote
Wait
To solve this (the upper one)
Honestly i have no idea if this is right
I'm tryig to use squeeze theorem
,rotate
replace the 1 with a \sqrt[n]{n} too maybe
?
wait no idk what i wrote there
oh yeah for the LHS just replace every root with 1 since theyre greater and you get n/n = 1
yeah you got sqrt[n]{n} its limit is 1
And by squeeze theorem the middle converges to 1 too right ?
yep
$\lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \left( 1 + \frac{1}{1} \right)^{1} + \left( 1 + \frac{1}{2} \right)^{2} + \left( 1 + \frac{1}{3} \right)^{3} + \dots + \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{n} \right)$
prograce
Why do you believe it converges in the first place?
The first value is 2
Second is 9/4+2
Third is 16/9+9/4+2
Just intuitevely I feel like it convereges to 2 by how it behaves
I'm not sure, Maybe it goes to infinity becayse it keeps getting bigger
->e
Not quite, but that’s sort of irrelevant
What we do know is that it doesn’t go to 0
Okay, yes
Oh
By the way this the lim (the second one) I'm just looking at the denominator for now but this might be a wrong thing to do
Oh you wrote it wrong
This is not the denominator
Ohhh
Of the thing you’re talking about over here
Yes my bad
In any case, yes in that case the terms go to e
But I would not recommend checking it like this
The denominator will indeed diverge
But that might not be a bad thing, since your original problem is the reciprocal of that
Yes in this instance
Maybe, maybe not
You’ll have to analyze it more directly
One possible route is to bound it below and above
Is this really true?
Yes for the RHS that’s in the right direction
Wait
No, sadly you’ve manipulated the inequality inappropriately
The RHS must be smaller the way you’ve written it
So it’s a lower bound
Not a upper bound
Okay
Now since you’ve got 1/e as a lower bound
Try and see if you can find 1/e as a upper bound
Or atleast as the limit of one
Ok I will try
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For polar equations am I supposed to make a table or not
And if I used a table how much is the theta or rsupposed to go up by
can you show what you are trying to solve
Any polar equations
Like this
But some videos don’t use tables so I’m confused
well if you're able to graph it without making a table, that seems fine unless the problem explicitly says to make a table
If I’m using table how much is the theta or r suppose to be going up each time
Like this one is 0,pi/6,pi/3 etc
it's up to you, unless someone asks for a particular step size
whatever helps you to draw the graph properly
if there are trig functions involved and you have to compute by hand then there are only a few angles you can do easily anyway
pi/6, pi/4, pi/3, pi/2 etc
yea except recognize that's in polar coordinates
meaning: radius = 2 and angle = 0
it's not the point (x=2,y=0)
(well in this case it is)
(but in general it won't be)
well consider the last entry in the table: (r,theta) = (-2, pi)
that's not the point x=-2 and y=pi
you have to do the conversion (either explicitly or mentally) if you want to plot the right point
yea, if you wanted to write this as an (x,y) point, i.e. rectangular coordinates, do you know how to do it?
How r these theta with pi graphed on the x axis
Yeah but what if I just wanted to graph it like that
wdym
you mean without converting?
just start at the origin, and mentally draw a line in the direction of angle theta, of length r.. your desired point is at the other end of that line
if r is negative then you go the opposite direction from theta
U mean I just draw these points in random spots?
well pi/6 is the angle
aka 30 degrees
measured counterclockwise from the positive x axis
and sqrt(3) is the length
to get the x y coordinates you would do:
x = r cos(theta), y = r sin(theta)
where cos(theta) = sqrt(3)/2 and sin(theta) = 1/2
So I always have to convert them to Cartesian?
I still don’t know how I would graph those points with the x y coordinates
the same way you graph any x,y points
So I always have to convert them into x,y first before plotting?
that's one way
the other way is to do what i said earlier
start at the origin, and draw an invisible line in the direction of angle theta, of length r
and when you reach the end, that's your point (r,theta)
I don’t understand what that means
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i thought answer was m+nC2 -mc2-nc2
um
namely when we form a triangle we are choosing 3 points not 2 points
so replace your 2 with 3 and this fact is correct
you additionally will have a bit more complicated casework when you include A
oh ye
but the solution is different