#help-49
1 messages · Page 103 of 1
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$\frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a}$
knief
is average rate of change of f over (a,b)
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slope of secant line
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never
💀💀
brother how are you in calculus
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Lock in keno
12th
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Kenzo
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Use talk tuah threorom for this problem
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Lock in wtf man
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Do you skip the tests?
we should just close this
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😭🙏
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You average like 1-4 questions a night
more
Maybe you need to try solving the problems yourself more
Because what is probs happening is
You just blank during test
because knief solves them all for him
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you probably look at a question, don’t know what to do immediately
then go to a help channel
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when you should bash your head into the wall
trying to solve it
for at least 5-10 minutes of no ideas
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And also don’t have the answer book right next to you 😭🙏
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man reads the solutions
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It only gets harder 😭🙏
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brainrot
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nah
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doesn’t matter
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More to life than math is equivalent to like a 90 🙏😭
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A 73 is sleeping through the class
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L mindset
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“I decided before I even got to college that math is too hard”
sure
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Yes
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and this is mean value theorem
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Look at the slope graph and count how many times y=3/5
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funny rock was probably his friend
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Bro acting like he isn’t checking the answer key😭🙏
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😹😹😭🙏🏻
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Bro has to buy a chegg sub now😹😹😭🙏
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legendary set up
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yuh
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they’re building up to it with this question
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u dont need mvt
also mvt doesnt even work
i know
it just guarantees the existence
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This lowkey should be a light problem
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After doing derivatives for like 2 months
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have you been reading our messages
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All you need to know from geometry is trig
Which you learn in precalc
And all you need for algebra 1 is covered in precalc
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huh
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yea but if you never did that your fundamentals are probably just shit
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No you weren’t
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Precalc just strengthens your algebra skills
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Because half the time isn’t not the calc that’s hard
It’s the algebra that messes you up
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Ye you can fix that pretty easily
When you see yourself struggling with something in algebra
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Take 15 minutes to review
You might need it😭🙏😹😭
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In all seriousness can you factor
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Beauty of living in the modern age
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That is factored 🙏😭😹😹😹😹
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youre mad geeked ✌️😭😭
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Closed by @upbeat plinth
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Let ( f : I \to \mathbb{R} ) be a function with the intermediate value property. If for every ( c \in \mathbb{R} ) there exists only a finite number of points ( x \in I ) such that ( f(x) = c ), then ( f ) is continuous.
Halex
what does it mean "only a finite number of points x in I"
how do I express it mathematicaly?
Like how do I use it as an hypothesis
how do I choose a finite number of points in an interval I?
@meager ore Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
so a mathematical way to describe a random number generator within an interval?
idk if its possible to have a function written down that gives u a truly random number without any input from the user
i think there are pseudorandom number generators that can be written down on paper, but it needs a seed chosen by the user
What are you trying to do? Understand the statement above? Prove it?
The idea is that when a function is continuous on an interval, it has the intermediate value property (that's called the Intermediate Value Theorem).
But the converse isn't true, i.e. functions that have the intermediate value property on an interval aren't necessarily continuous.
In particular, the added property above, that the functions only takes any value a finite number of times, ensures that the function is continuous if it has the IVP.
Understand it to prove it
Let $\epsilon > 0.$ For every $c \in \mathbb{R}$ there exists only a finite number of points $x \in I$ such that $f(x) = c$ means that $|x - c| < \delta \implies |f(x) - c| < \epsilon$
Halex
this is not a finite numbers of x tho
Well the hypothesis includes the intermediate value property, so you should expect to use it somewhere.
It won't be a one line proof
I'm not even sure how to express the hypothesis in a mathematical way
Might you help me with the proof?
It's not an exactly easy proof iirc
It would be awesome if you could help me to know how to get started
@meager ore Has your question been resolved?
@meager ore Has your question been resolved?
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Hmm, I think I can do this, but this is just a transformation between two fields
F^n and F^m arent fields
oh right
We preface this by assuming $\mathbf{F}= \R$
\
$T(x_1,\dots,x_n)=T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)$ By the definition of linearity.
\
We then have $T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)=T(1 \cdot x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,1 \cdot x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,1 \cdot x_n)$
\
We know that both $x_i and A_{j,k}$ are scalars, so
\
$T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)=T(A_{1,1}x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,A_{2,2}x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,A_{n,n}x_n)= x_1T(1,0,0 \dots,0)+\dots+ x_nT(0,0,0 \dots,1) $
\
We know that this is a mapping :$\R^n \to \R^m$
\
Thus $T(1,0,\dots,0)= (A_{1,1},A_{1,2} \dots , A_{m,1})$ , so $x_1 T(1,0,\dots,0)=. (x_1A_{1,1},x_1A_{1,2} \dots ,x_1 A_{m,1})$for instance.
\
Repeating this for all the standard basis of $\R^n$.
\
We arrive at the desired result
But its the cartesian product ofi a field, right?
sure
A dense set
Is this proof fine?
We preface this by assuming $\mathbf{F}= \R$
\
$T(x_1,\dots,x_n)=T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)$ By the definition of linearity.
\
We then have $T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)=T(1 \cdot x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,1 \cdot x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,1 \cdot x_n)$
\
We know that both $x_i and A_{j,k}$ are scalars, so
\
$T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)=T(A_{1,1}x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,A_{2,2}x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,A_{n,n}x_n)= x_1T(1,0,0 \dots,0)+\dots+ x_nT(0,0,0 \dots,1) $
\
We know that this is a mapping :$\R^n \to \R^m$
\
Thus $T(1,0,\dots,0)= (A_{1,1},A_{1,2} \dots , A_{m,1})$ , so $x_1 T(1,0,\dots,0)=. (x_1A_{1,1},x_1A_{1,2} \dots ,x_1 A_{m,1})$for instance.
\
Repeating this for all the standard basis of $\R^n$. and then adding them up
\
We arrive at the desired result
A dense set
so you replaced all the 1's by A_ij? why
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
the 1s are transformed to $\R^m$
A dense set
R^m elemennts
We preface this by assuming $\mathbf{F}= \R$
\
$T(x_1,\dots,x_n)=T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)$ By the definition of linearity.
\
We then have $T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)=T(1 \cdot x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,1 \cdot x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,1 \cdot x_n)$
\
We know that both $x_i$ and $A_{j,k}$ are scalars, so
\
$T(x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,x_n)=T(A_{1,1}x_1,0,\dots,0 \dots)+T(0,A_{2,2}x_2,\dots,0) +\dots + T(0,0,\dots,A_{n,n}x_n)= x_1T(1,0,0 \dots,0)+\dots+ x_nT(0,0,0 \dots,1) $
\
We know that this is a mapping :$\R^n \to \R^m$
\
Thus $T(1,0,\dots,0)= (A_{1,1},A_{1,2} \dots , A_{m,1})$ , so $x_1 T(1,0,\dots,0)=. (x_1A_{1,1},x_1A_{1,2} \dots ,x_1 A_{m,1})$for instance.
\
Repeating this for all the standard basis of $\R^n$. and then adding them up
\
We arrive at the desired result
A dense set
.close
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Hi guys
I am new to working with Lambert's W functions and I would like to get my answer checked
this is the question:
$$3^x \cdot e^x = 27$$
Edmund Cloudsley
I shall post my answer here
no lambert W should be needed for this question, standard log will work
yeah I noticed that
but the question specifically asks for Lambert's W for some reason
dunno
why
can you post a picture of the original question
yeah sure
just gimme a sec
This is from a notion page I found online tho
not from a proper author or something
if we were solving this using logs then
$$(3e)^x = 27$$
$$x = \log_{3e} 27$$
Edmund Cloudsley
this should be the answer right?
does this mean chatgpt came up with the question
I got this from a notion page my friend shared with me
But I have no clue where they got it from
could be given that this doesn't required W functions in the first place
yeah that's pretty much it
Closed by @dawn crater
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yup you're welcome
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f(0)= -1
f(2)= 3
there wouldnt be anything in between( 0-2) x values that would get outside of (-1, 3) y values no?
@vagrant crest Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> 
@vagrant crest Has your question been resolved?
.close
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not sure if this is the right place to ask, but when I have a DFA (deterministic finite automata), can I have 2 accepted states?
I forgot nearly all of automata theory but you’ll probably have a lot of luck asking this in #foundations or #discrete-math
yes
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I wish to prove this
Rephrased a bit, this is
Given that $a \in \Z$. $3 \mid (a^3-a)$
A dense set
factor a^3 - a
je sais la, mais merci
It's easy to see that $a^3-a = a(a+1)(a-1)$. We thus have to prove $3 \mid [a(a+1)(a-1)]$
\
It follows that $(a-1)(a)(a+1) = \frac{(a+1)!3!}{(a-2)!3!} = ^{a+1}C_{3}3!$.
\
It's trivial to verify that $3 \mid (3! ^{a+1}C_{3})$.
\
Attentive readers will notice that this proof is only valid for $\mathbb{W}$.
\
but we have a trick up our sleeve .
\
if $a^3-a<0$, we simply re-write it as $-(a-a^3) = -(a(1-a)(1+a)$.
\
After which the proof is identical, we should note that we've used a previously proven result here.
\
that $b \mid a \implies b \mid -a$
It thus follows that , given $a\in \Z$, $a \equiv a mod(3)$
A dense set

weird proof but ig it’s fine for a >= 2 yes
It's easy to see that $a^3-a = a(a+1)(a-1)$. We thus have to prove $3 \mid [a(a+1)(a-1)]$
\
It follows that $(a-1)(a)(a+1) = \frac{(a+1)!3!}{(a-2)!3!} = ^{a+1}C_{3}3!$.
\
It's trivial to verify that $3 \mid (3! ^{a+1}C_{3})$.
\
Attentive readers will notice that this proof is only valid for $\mathbb{W}$.
\
but we have a trick up our sleeve .
\
if $a^3-a<0$, we simply re-write it as $-(a-a^3) = -(a(1-a)(1+a)$.
\
After which the proof is identical, we should note that we've used a previously proven result here.
\
that $b \mid a \implies b \mid -a$
It thus follows that , given $a\in \Z$, $a \equiv a mod(3)$
A dense set
oh true
rather than say “attentive readers will notice…” after the fact, why not just say “suppose a >= 2” first
wdym?
A dense set
A dense set
but yes it would be better to write something that doesn’t involve cases
A dense set
induction would be very unnatural here
Or I could prove that the product of any $n$ whole numbers is divisible by 3
A dense set
and then use the fact that if $b \mid a \implies b \mid |a|$
A dense set
eh?
if$b \mid a \implies b \mid -a$
A dense set
what does this mean
consider 3 consecutive wholes , $n,n+1,n+2$. We wish to prove $ 3 \mid [(n)(n+1)(n_2)]$. if $n \geq 1$, we can re-write this as $\frac{(n+2)!3!}{n-1)!3!} = ^{n+2}C_{3}3!$.
which is divisible by $3$, If $n,n-1,n+1 =0$, then we have $3 \mid a^3-a$ trivially.
\
We now consider the case wherein $n, n-1,n+1 <0$.
\
In this scenario we consider n(n+1)(n+2). But we've already proven $3 \mid |(n)(n+1)(n+2)|$, thus $3 \mid (n)(n+1)(n+2)$.
A dense set
Is this fine?
your cases are weird
what does this mean?
should this just say “if n = 0 then 3 | n^3 - n”
i also don’t know what’s going on in the last case
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
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"in how many different ways can the 9 letters of the word TELESCOPE be arranged so that there are exactly two letters between the T and the C?"
guys, i only know 7!/3!, i don't know what to do next
try grouping as (T??C) ?????
so the bracket is 1 object, so 1 object + 5 other letters = 6 objects and hence 6!
you could also have C??T
ah wait there are repeated letters
yes
hence I don't want to participate
I say while working on a combinatorial problem
it's an A level question, found the paper
I didn't say I can't do it, I merely said I'm not interested
You should first arrange the letters with a condition
In this case T and C
ohhh
yes 😦
ure right i am in the cambridge curriculum
okiee
you have two choices for whether T comes before or after C, and you have 6 choices for placing whichever letter comes first
after that, it's about ordering the remaining letters from left to right the way you want...
I think you need to split into cases, so there can be 0 Es, 1 Es, or 2 Es in the bracket
or yeah that's easier
E is repeated
But you can just do /3! So yeah
so the number of orderings of the remaining letters will be found accordingly
Cases will be harder lol
@fair kayak any progress?
Show your working
the same Es
you just need to divide by 3! as you said at the beginning
the first 2! is for the position of T and C
like it can be TxxC or CxxT
Yup correct
and the xx can be xx 
Hmm that is actually handled in the 6!
not completely no
Yes it would become 7 but yeah it is
you didn't even choose which letters go in between T and C
oh 😭
how to do that
and still missing something
and another times 6
after placing the T and C
just view placing the remaining letters as in a straight line
like if you have T__C_____
there are 7 letters to arrange in the empty spots
thankyouthankyou!!
what is the times 6 for?
I was wondering that too
yes
but it is correct based on the mark scheme

The into 6 is correct?
yes
you can't place the T and C anywhere you want, since they need to FIT
2 choices for whether T or C is first
6 choices for placing letters T and C
and 7!/3! choices for the other letters
@fair kayak
Ohhh
@fair kayak Has your question been resolved?
ohhhh
alrighttt thank you so so much
@fair kayak Has your question been resolved?
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Hi!
I was trying to use proof by contradiction to proove that [\lim{n \to \infty } \sin(n)] does not exist. I saw some proofs online that started out by stating: [\lim{n \to \infty } \sin(n) = g] => [\lim_{n \to \infty } \sin(n+1) = g]. What is the reasoning behind that implication? Is it that if n approaches infinity then if we increment the argument of sin we still get a sin of an infinitely large number so the limit stays the same? Is there a way to prove it using trig identities?
It basically follows from the definition of limit
How so? Later on in the proof i got: [\lim{n \to \infty } \cos(n+1/2) = 0] and I implied that [\lim{n \to \infty } \cos(n) = 0]. My professor told me that I need to reason that implication for the proof to be correct
@sterile stream Has your question been resolved?
Sin(x) approaching inf will be just oscillating between 1 and -1
i know that but for the sake of the proof i assumed that the limit does exist to later come to a contradiction proving that the limit does not exist
@sterile stream Has your question been resolved?
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can someone explain to me why if G is the center of gravity of a triangle vector(GA) + vector(GB) + vector(GC) = vector(0)
thats the definition, so huh
uhm well the definition i have is that it is the point of intersection of the medians
well for a triangle, yes it is
yes but how is the litteral definition equivalent to the vector definition
<@&286206848099549185> pls ?
welp idk
<@&286206848099549185> 😢
@elder zephyr how do I get the role that “does nothing”?
mind helping me out here pls
Oh yeah right mb
Might not be very helpful rn tho
My brain is fogged up
Yeah I can’t help sorry
Gl on ur quest for knowledge
@umbral scroll Has your question been resolved?
@umbral scroll Has your question been resolved?
for any two of three vectors, you can add eachone with half of edge which opposite to rest vector, and then add them up. because those two temporary added vector are contrast on orientation and same with length, so the result will be same as just add these two vector up. Result vector will be double on the extension of rest vector to appositive edge. Since we know that this part's length is half of rest vector, so the final result adding them up will be zero vector.
if you're searching for how to get vector definition from medians definition.
oh it's the bot nevermind
@umbral scroll Has your question been resolved?
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is that some sort of problem to you ?
it's a username i made long time ago
before i had the mental abiliy to make a username that is not stupid
oh nah it's my discord username
i didnt make it specially for this server
but why is the channel name your username
have you ever been in this server ?
no Im new
you should take a look at other channels
help channels
and i didnt quite get it when you said nevermind it's the bot
I wrote a message before that I deleted I thought the bot name was that
doesnt matter tho I was just curious sorry if I bothered you
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i cant find any function which satisfies these conditions
are there any? if there are not how do i prove it? do i suppose that a function adheres to all of these and use the definitions to prove that a contradiction arises?
what have you tried
I would try to sketch the curve
and looking for the function which is similar to the curve (Note that the curve needs to obey the properties)
1/x and ln(x) etc
but last condition always a problem
why is it clear?
none, this is a a calculus one course. i either have to state the function and explain why it follows the condtions (doesnt need to be rigorous). if i need to disprove it my idea is to assume a function f satisfies all confitions and show that there is a contradiction
using the defintions of the properties
i think i have a counterexample
it's a bit crazy
$$f\left(x\right)=\frac{1}{x\left(\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)+1\right)}$$
locally ringed klein bottle
ill graph it
that is a slightly insane graph
but it wouldnt satisfy the third condition because of vertical tangent lines
the derivative switches signs but gets larger in magnitude
so doesn't actually approach + or - infinity
the idea is basically ur approaching infinity but going up and down as u do
i misunderstood.. it's differentiable
fuck
it's not defined everywhere
yep
anyways i'm sure the answer is yes
i can imagine such a function
i cant becuase i dont know how differentiating a function changes it from a visual perspective much. im just spamming random examples but not getting anywhere
$$f\left(x\right)=\frac{1}{x}-\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$$
locally ringed klein bottle
slope of tangent
oh right
this is a good question tho
@last slate Has your question been resolved?
why unanswered
was the above function your answer?
yes
it has a vertical tangent line so it isnt differentiable at all points
like at which point
this is defined for all x>0 and is differentiable
getting closer to x=0
buddy
the tangent is never vertical
it's just approaching infinity
that'd be like for g(x)=sqrt(a^2-x^2) which is a semicircle of radius a, so it's actually defined at x=a and has a tangent line at x=a that's vertical.
I think that's a bit different than having an asymptote at a point where it's undefined
hm okay
do you agree this is defined for all x>0
yes
do you agree that it's differentiable for all x>0
thinking about merosity explanation because of the vertical tangent line thing
but youre 99% correct so i can mark as solved, i dont mind . i can continue thinking
true but it tends towards infinity
try $$f\left(x\right)=\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$$ if u want
locally ringed klein bottle
what tends to infinity
derivative of the function
im wrong nvm
i get it now, thanks
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hi, im confused on one of the steps to the solution of this problem
All 4 points lie inside the circle?
Only A doesn't lie in the circle
on the same circle (they created another cirlce)
I think u must draw another circle
yeah
But idk I GTG sorry I couldn't help
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We first prove that if $T$ is a scalar multiple of the identity, then $ST=TS \forall S \in \mathcal{L}(V)$
\
We now attempt to prove $IS=SI$
\
$IS(v) = (I \circ S)(v)=S(v)$ by definition
\
$S(I(v))= (S\circ I)(v)= S(v)$
\
This means that $T= \lambda I ; \lambda \in \R$.
\. However, $TS=ST$. so $\lambda IS= \lambda SI$.
A dense set
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
I'm not sure I understand how the map is defined
Basically no element in $U$ maps to $0$?
A dense set
this is not a correct proof for the exercise
Hmm, what's wrong
you haven't really proven anything
oops
I deleted my OG proof
We first prove that if $T = \lambda I$ then $ST=TS$.
\
$\lambda (IS) =\lambda (SI)$
\
But $SI=IS$
Thus they are the same
A dense set
you can't begin with your second line
It's an iff , right? Can't I prove any direcition first
no but i'm saying that your proof of the <= direction is logically wrong and poorly structured if you begin with the second line ehre
a proof that TS = ST for all S when T = λI needs to show the equality TS = ST
you start out by writing down an equality that you haven't yet shown, and the equality is not even in the form TS = ST
so I first have to prove IS=SI
well we can take that as a given
that's fine
but you should show equalities just as in every other proof
show that LHS = RHS
so for example here, you might begin like
TS = (λI)S = λ(IS) = ...
and it doesn't hurt to note why the equality (λI)S = λ(IS) holds as you're doing this
$(\lambda I)(v)= \lambda(I(v))
$ by definition
i mean you don't have to go to that level to show it, there are surely plenty of theorems available to you about compositions of linear functions
okay so axler doesn't prove this outright that's a shame
the equality is certainly true but requires a small amount of thought into it
yes but it's not an immediate consequence that you should have things like (λT)S = λ(TS) = T(λS) just from that definition alone
these at least need a small calculation to verify
hmm
I'm not sure how I'd go about this
The best I can do is $(\lambda T)S = \lambda(T)(S) = \lambda(TS)$
A dense set
i'm not sure what the middle thing is supposed to mean
I'm honstly not sure how to do this
I've never verified such properties for functions tbh
,, ((\lambda T) \circ S)(v) = (\lambda T)(S(v)) = \lambda \cdot T(S(v)) = (\lambda (T \circ S))(v)
here's one
I see
so similarly $T \circ ((\lambda S)(v))= T \circ (\lambda (S(v) ) = \lambda (T \circ S) (v)$
you aren't bracketing things correctly
A dense set
you only get to abuse notation like this when you're comfortable with all the properties
at this point, i wouldn't accept this notation
hmm
Okay, so what I have to prove is
\
$(\lambda I)\circ S(v) = T \circ (\lambda I (v))$
A dense set
,, ((\lambda I) \circ S)(v) = (S \circ (\lambda I))(v)
proving this is an exercise in understanding the notation and definitions, knowing what you can and can't do
the result itself is not very deep
$((\lambda I) \circ S)(v) = (\lambda I) \circ S(v) = \lambda \cdot I \circ S(v) =\lambda ( I \circ S(v))$
A dense set
But $I \circ S(v) = S \circ I(v)$
A dense set
$((\lambda I) \circ S)(v) = (\lambda I) \circ S(v) = \lambda \cdot I \circ S(v) =\lambda ( I \circ S(v))= \lambda (S \circ I(v))$
A dense set
no i have no idea what you're two middle things are here
$(\lambda I (S(v))$
write it with the proper notation
A dense set
I have to go for therepy now, will continue this for sure once that's over
sorry
tahnks

Ok, I'm back
damn
$(\lambda(I(S(v))))$
A dense set
is this notation fine
From this notation, and the definition of the identity function, it follows this is $\lambda(S(v))$
A dense set
$S(\lambda I(v))= \lambda(S(I(v))$ by the definition of linearity
A dense set
ye
However, $S((I(v)) = S(v)$. So this is $\lambda S(v)$
A dense set
Is this fine?
everything you've said so far is true
So this proves the implication in one directiopn
Espescially as I don't have matrices on hand yet
yeah
Hmm, I want to prove if $ST=TS$ then $T = \lambda I$
A dense set
Neither do I have inverse functions on hand , I suppose
you need to choose specific S to test the properties of T
I don't even know from which vector space to which vector space this is
so I can't
no?
so you can just construct a few S
A dense set
A dense set
what am I doing wrong
well these are certainly true statements
but you've just picked S = αI, which we already know commutes with every other linear function
so this choice of S doesn't tell us anything useful
Well, $S$ ia linear function
A dense set
and every linear function from $V \to V$ is of this form
A dense set
thats false
wait
right
the basis can be transformed in different ways
let the basis of $V$ be $e_1,e_2, \dots, e_n$
\
we have $S(v) = \alpha_1e_1+\alpha_2e_2 + \dots+ \alpha _n e_n)$
\
So $T(S(v)) = T(\alpha_1e_1+\alpha_2e_2 + \dots+ \alpha _n e_n)$
\
And $S(T(v)) = \alpha_1T(e_1)+ \alpha_2T(e_2) + \dots \alpha_nT(e_n)$
A dense set
Is this fine
real numbers
thats not the point of the question
Is the idea right though
im asking you what they are because you just wrote down this expression
and you haven't told me how the alphas and the v relate at all
are the alphas constants? do they vary with v?
let the basis of $V$ be $e_1,e_2, \dots, e_n$
\
The transformation can be described by just following where the basis vectors end up
\
so we have $T(e_1)+T(e_2)+ \dots + T(e_n)$
\
This is $\alpha_1e_1+\alpha_2e_2+ \dots+ \alpha_ne_n$; \alpha_i \in \R$
A dense set
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hmm
like
i can see that you're trying to express the function using a basis, but this isnt the right way to express it
ill give you a starting point
let $e_1, \dots, e_n$ be a basis of $V$, and define $S$ in the following way:
[ S(\alpha_1 e_1 + \dots + \alpha_n e_n) = \alpha_1 e_1 ]
we can also write
[ T(e_i) = \beta_{i, 1} e_1 + \dots + \beta_{i, n} e_n ]
for numbers $\beta_{i, j}$ because $e_1, \dots, e_n$ form a basis.
\medskip
we have
[ T(S(\alpha_1 e_1 + \dots + \alpha_n e_n)) = T(\alpha_1 e_1) = \alpha_1 \beta_{1, 1} e_1 + \dots + \alpha_1 \beta_{1, n} e_n ]
on the other hand, we have
[ S(T(\alpha_1 e_1 + \dots + \alpha_n e_n)) = S \parens [\bigg] {\sum_{i = 1}^n \sum_{j = 1}^n \alpha_i \beta_{i, j} e_j} = \sum_{i = 1}^n \alpha_i \beta_{i, 1} e_1 ]
why are you describing it to be a multiple of just a single vector
*single basis vector
im defining S
A dense set
let ${e_1,e_2,\dots, e_n}$ form a basis of V
We then define
$S(e_i) = \sum_{j=1}^{n} \beta_{i,j} e_j$..
\
We define $v\in V$ to be $\sum_{i=1}^{n} \alpha_i e_i$
\
We thus have $S(v)= S( \sum_{i=1}^{n} \alpha_i e_i) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} \alpha_{k} \beta_{k,j} e_j$
Something feels off about the notation I've used
This feels better
A dense set
what am I doing wrong here
let ${e_1,e_2,\dots, e_n}$ form a basis of V
We then define
$S(e_i) = \sum_{j=1}^{n} \beta_{i,j} e_j$..
\
We define $v\in V$ to be $\sum_{i=1}^{n} \alpha_i e_i$
\
We thus have $S(v)= S( \sum_{i=1}^{n} \alpha_i e_i) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} \alpha_{k} \beta_{k,j} e_j$
\
\
We now define $T(v)= T( \sum_{i=1}^{n} \alpha_i e_i) = \sum_{l=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} \alpha_{l} \beta_{l,j} e_j$
\
\
We now look as $T(S(V))= T(\sum_{k=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} \alpha_{k} \beta_{k,j} e_j)$.
\
We can define
$S(T(v))=. S(\sum_{l=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} \alpha_{l} \beta_{l,j} e_j)$
How do I look at $S(T(v))$
A dense set
feels like it wiil be very cumbersome
A dense set
Now what
Can I have some help , pelase
okay, gtg for my class now

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ok so i asked a question about the rule of fifteenths for predicting tidal heights and was told that it follows the same general rules as the rule of twelfths. i was wondering what pattern is follows/what fractions it uses each time frame.
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
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$T(v)=\begin{cases} S(v) & v \in U \ 0 & v \in V \land v \notin U\end{cases}$
A dense set
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
We assume $t \in U$ and $r \in V \setminus U$. We now have $t+r=p$ say. where $t,r,p \neq 0$
\
We now have two choices for $p$.
\
Case 1:- $p$ is in $V \setminus U$.
\
We then have $T(r+t) =T(p)= T(r)+T(t) =T(p)$. This implies that $S(t)=0$.
\
A dense set
Did you assume T is linear?
This is however a contradiction, as $S \neq 0$
A dense set
Yes
oh wait
That was a mistake
was it not?
My contradiction is $S=0$, but that does't prove $T$ isn't a linear map
A dense set
I assumed t \in V \setminus U
do you mean r?
A dense set
Let $r \in V \setminus U st T(r+v) \neq 0$
A dense set
can I assume atht
yes
and if you want to, you can let r be in V \ U
because you know it's non-empty
yup
this wasnt entirely wrong btw, it's just missing one case and the implication in case 1 is unclear. But that doesnt mean it cant be made clear
Let $v \in U$ st $S(v) \neq 0$. We also assume $r \in V \setminus U, $ so $T(r)=0$.
\
We now assume $r+v= p $ ; $p \in V \setminus U$.
\
We then have assuming linearity
\
$T(r)+ T(v) = T(p)$.
\
We thus have
$S(v)=0$.
\
but this is a contradiction, as we know there is atelast one $v \in U$ st $S(v) \neq 0$
\
Thus clearly such a p can't exist in $V \setminus U$
it's a contradiction bc S(v) != 0
A dense set
the fact that there is at least one v in U with S(v) != 0 was used when you said "Let v in U st S(v) != 0"
the contradiction arises just because of this
or that T is non-linear...
you are nesting too many assumptions in an order, that makes it really hard to follow
\
We now assume $r+v= p $ ; $p \in V \setminus U$.
\
We then have assuming linearity
\
$T(r)+ T(v) = T(p)$.
\
We thus have
$S(v)=0$.
\
but this is a contradiction, as we know there is atelast one $v \in U$ st $S(v) \neq 0$
\
We now let P \in U$.
\
thus $T(v)= T(p)$
\
This would mean $T(v-p)=0$
you essentially proved that either T is non-linear, which would close the proof, or that p is in U, which is a case you have to deal with
A dense set
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you're not far from the end, the other case is quite easy to deal with
you can finish this later
therapy? what?
i won't ask
what?
forget it
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
Counselling
okay
so I have $T(r)+T(v)=T(p)$
\
I however, know that T(r)=0
\
We thus have $S(v)=S(p)$.
\
We thus know that $S(v-p)=0_v$
\
It thus follows that $v-p \in Ker(T)$
A dense set
This is way too complicated
the other case is
v + r is in U
v is something in U, r is something not in U
it's kinda similar to saying that rational + irrational can be rational
you wont need anything other than this to reach a contradiction
This would mean that $r \in U$
A dense set
Yes, but why?
as $r$ is in span (v,p)
A dense set
yeah, that works
or you can simply add -v to v + r
and by closure under addition, you get that r is in U
and this is a contradiction
Now just try structuring the proof in such a way it's readable
and note that this 2nd case was so simple, that you could start by proving that r + v can't be in U, and then doing the 1st case to reach a contradiction
so the proof doesnt even have to be broken down into cases
yeah, it is
Let $v \in U$ st $S(v) \neq 0$. We also assume $r \in V \setminus U, $ so $T(r)=0$.
\
We now assume $r+v= p $ ; $p \in V \setminus U$.
\
We then have assuming linearity
\
$T(r)+ T(v) = T(p)$.
\
We thus have
$S(v)=0$.
\
but this is a contradiction, as we know there is atelast one $v \in U$ st $S(v) \neq 0$
\
We now conisider the case where $ p \in U$..
\
It $p \in U$, it follows that $r \in span(v,p)$, which is a contradiction to what we assumed.
\
Therefore $T$ is not a linear map
A dense set
It's less readable tho
wdym
you made 2 assumptions
how do I know which one gets contradicted?
and then you mention "the other case"
when no cases were mentioned before
Ah
It could be made more readable in 2 ways:
- first proving that r + v is in V \ U and then doing case 1 without that one assumption
- moving the assumption of linearity above the assumption of p in V \ U (and explicitly mentioning case 1 and case 2)
Okay, will do
and also, I'd replace the assume on first line with let
because there certainly is such r, you just need to pick one to perform the proof on it
and it's also the first time you mention r
so you are essentially bringing it into existence
This first case doesn't make sense to me
first pointer
Let $v \in U$ st $S(v) \neq 0$. We also assume $r \in V \setminus U, $ so $T(r)=0$.
\
We assume linearity throughout this proof by contradiction
\
Case 1
\
We now assume $r+v= p $ ; $p \in V \setminus U$.
\
We then have assuming linearity
\
$T(r)+ T(v) = T(p)$.
\
We thus have
$S(v)=0$.
\
but this is a contradiction, as we know there is atelast one $v \in U$ st $S(v) \neq 0$. Thus either there is no such $p$ or the transformation isn't linear
\
Case 2:-
We now conisider the case where $ p \in U$..
\
It $p \in U$, it follows that $r \in span(v,p)$, which is a contradiction to what we assumed.
\
Therefore $T$ is not a linear map
A dense set
Let $v \in U$ s.t. $S(v) \neq 0$. Let $r \in V \setminus U$.
Then $v + r \not \in U$, lest $v + r - v = r$ would be in $U$.
For sake of contradiction, assume that $T$ is linear. Then $0 = T(v + r) = T(v) + T(r) = S(v) + 0 = S(v)$, which is the wanted contradiction.
MæthIsAlwaysRight
this is what I meant
this has poor wording overall
This is not wrong, there is just so many assumptions that it's hard to read
And also it's not clear how T(r) + T(v) = T(p) implies S(v) = 0
this has good wording
Let me rewrite it
A rule of thumb is to not make assumptions, unless it's necessary
and when you need to make them, do it one by one
This has 2 proofs by contradiction, nested in each other in a weird way
This also has 2 proofs by contradiciton, that however follow one by one. And one of them was even reworded to just a simple "lest..."
- define v and r, as previously. Also say what p is, don't delay it until case 1. You'll use it in case 2 as well
- For sake of contradiction, assume T is linear
- Case 1: p is in V \ U. Reach a contradiction
- Case 2: p is in U. Reach a contradiction
- Conclude the proof
this would also be a fine schema
We now wish to prove that the mapping that $T$ describes isn't linear. We wish to use proof by contradiction for the same.
\
Let $v\in U$ be a vector such that $S(v) \neq 0$. Let $ u \in V \setminus U$ We also assume $v+u=p$
\
For the sake of contradiction, we assume that $T$ is a linear map
\
Case 1: $p \in V \setminus U$
\
We then have $T(v+u)=T(p)$
\
By linearity
\
$T(v)+T(u)=T(p)$
\
$S(v)+0=0$
\
$S(v)=0$
\
However, $v$ was chosen such that $S(v)$ would be non-zero. However if $p \in V \setminus U$, such a construction is clearly not possible.
\
\
alternatively , if $v+u=p$, it follows that $v \in V \setminus U$, which is clearly a contradiction
\
\
Case 2- $p \in U$.
\
If this were the case $p-v=u$
\
From this it is evident that $u \in span (p,v)$
\
Which clearly isn't possible as the sets we've declared $u$ and, $p,v$ to belong to ,only intersect at ${0}$.
\
Therefore as $T(v+u)$ isn't defined when $v,u$ come from different subspaces of $V$, This isn't a linear transformation
A dense set
How does this look?
u in V \ U sounds kinda strange lol
but why not
I'd change "We also assume v + u = p" to "Let p = v + u"
but that's a minor detail
I also don't see what you mean by this
S(v) = 0, boom, contradiction, case concluded
you can move to case = 2
this is false
it doesnt follow that v is in V \ U
Oh, I have to explain it
i actually think it's false
if you clip whole that out and replace it with something that says "Hey, look, contradiction", case 1 will be fine
they dont intersect at all
U intersection V \ U is empty
T(v + u) is defined for all vectors in V
also V \ U is not a subspace (e.g. bc it doesnt have the 0 vector, and it usually fails to satisfy the remaining conditions as well)
I don't follow
This whole alternative approach seems to be wrong
I agree with v + u = p, that's how p was defined. How does it follow that v is in V \ U though?
you probably assued that V \ U is a subspace and it's closed under vector addition
which it's not
$v = p-u$ thus $v\in span(p-u)$
A dense set
v is in span(p, u) you mean?
ye
okay, and?
p is in V \ U and u is also in V \ U. That doesn't mean p - u is in V \ U tho
A dense set
How did I miss that
e.g. this is wrong, V \ U isn't a vector space, it doesnt have the 0 vector
the intersection is empty
We now wish to prove that the mapping that $T$ describes isn't linear. We wish to use proof by contradiction for the same.
\
Let $v\in U$ be a vector such that $S(v) \neq 0$. Let $ u \in V \setminus U$ We also assume $v+u=p$
\
For the sake of contradiction, we assume that $T$ is a linear map
\
Case 1: $p \in V \setminus U$
\
We then have $T(v+u)=T(p)$
\
By linearity
\
$T(v)+T(u)=T(p)$
\
$S(v)+0=0$
\
$S(v)=0$
\
However, $v$ was chosen such that $S(v)$ would be non-zero. We've thus arrived at a contradiction, which arises from the assumption that the function is linear
\
\
Case 2- $p \in U$.
\
If this were the case $p-v=u$
\
From this it is evident that $u \in span (p,v)$
\
Which clearly isn't possible as this means that $u \in U$. But that's not true by assumption.
\
this contradiction arose from the assumption $p$ could lie in $U$
\
\
Thus clearly our initial assumption that the transformation was linear is wrong, and this transformation isn't linear.
I also don't get the sentence "However if p in V \ U, such a construction is clearly not possible"
what construction?
This construction
that's not really construction
and existence of v is guaranteed
the contradiction arises mainly because it was assumed that T is linear
while you make it seem like it arises because p is in V \ U
just remove that sentence as say "so we get a contradiction" or sth like that
okay, this looks better
you dont have to mention "which arises ..." but why not
case 2 looks slightly broken now
u is in span(p, v) and thus also in U
A dense set
Is this better?
We now wish to prove that the mapping that $T$ describes isn't linear. We wish to use proof by contradiction for the same.
\
Let $v\in U$ be a vector such that $S(v) \neq 0$. Let $ u \in V \setminus U$ We also assume $v+u=p$
\
For the sake of contradiction, we assume that $T$ is a linear map
\
Case 1: $p \in V \setminus U$
\
We then have $T(v+u)=T(p)$
\
By linearity
\
$T(v)+T(u)=T(p)$
\
$S(v)+0=0$
\
$S(v)=0$
\
However, $v$ was chosen such that $S(v)$ would be non-zero. We've thus arrived at a contradiction, which arises from the assumption that the function is linear
\
\
Case 2- $p \in U$.
\
If this were the case $p-v=u$
\
From this it is evident that $u \in span (p,v)$
\
Which clearly isn't possible as this means that $u \in U$. But that's not true by assumption.
\
this contradiction arose from the assumption $p$ could lie in $U$
\
\
Thus clearly our initial assumption that the transformation was linear is wrong, and this transformation isn't linear.
Is this better
A dense set
yeah, this is better
Closed by @twilit field
Use .reopen if this was a mistake.
Sorry, need to get a shave at the barber, I'm done with this, so I closed it
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