#help-49
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You missed the 2 on the last term
A[2][2]*B[2][2]?
Yeah
I accidentally but B for the second one
But on the scrap paper I didn't make that mistake
It's ok no worries
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Wouldn't this be true only sometimes?
my logic is results could be -1, 1
So it cant always be -1 cause it could be 1
it cant never be -1 cause -1 is viable
but it could sometimes be -1, and other times be 1
Or would 1 maybe not be applicable?
you are correct
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Can someone check this answer for me?
its right
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could I have this verified please
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trey
@split gust Has your question been resolved?
@split gust Has your question been resolved?
@split gust yes, imagine if included any a^n with n>=d. Then you could use the polynomial to reduce your a^n terms into smaller terms.
Like if you had x^8 - x^2 + 1 as your polynomial, then you know, because a^8 - a^2 + 1 = 0, that any time you have a^8 you can replace it with a^2 - 1
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ideally i would do A^nB times (x,2x) = (x,2x)?
But that means 2^nx = x? or did i do smth wrong
Where are you getting 2^nx = x from
Then yes, you did something wrong.
what did i do wrong?
I don't know, for one, that is not the product of A^nB[x,2x]^T and even if it were, you didn't show any work to indicate how you would go from that to 2^nx = x.
why is it not the product of A^nB[x,2x]^T? if the 2nd column is 0 0
<@&286206848099549185>
When the question says y = 2x is invariant under the transformation, I believe it means all points on the line are mapped to other points still in the line
The equation you have would be the case of a line of invariant points rather than an invariant line
@ionic thicket Has your question been resolved?
You want to ensure that the new vector $\binom{\left(2^n \right)x}{\left(2^n + 32 \right)x}$ lies on the line $y = 2x$, or in other words $\left(2^n + 32 \right)x = 2\left(2^n \right)x$ for every $x \in \mathbb{R}$. Just solve for $n$ now.
PowerUp
ohh
so basically i compare the top (x) and bottom (y) components of the matrix?
is that the essence of "invariant line"
"Invariance" here means that, given any point on the given line, the image must also lie on the line. So in this case, $A^n B \binom{1}{2}$ must equal $\binom{x}{y}$ satisfying $y = 2x$ because $\binom{1}{2}$ lies on the line as well.
PowerUp
So your goal must be to find the value of $n$ that makes this possible.
PowerUp
And it should not only be true for $\binom{1}{2}$, but also for ANY point on the line.
PowerUp
ohh i see
thank you
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Numbers between 200-800 which are not divisible by 5 and7
200/5 =40
200/7 = 28
200/35=5
62 numbers 1-200 which are divisible ny 5 and 7
Now 800/5 =160
800/7=114
800/35=22
274-22=252
251
Now 251
What’s with the subtracting 1
Because we want not to unclude 800
5 divides 800 so
@ruby sapphire
251-62=189 numbers
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Find the limit of In as n approaches infinity.
On the interval 3 4 the function decreases from 1 to 0 . Is the min value 0 enough to show that the limit is 0?
ill post my work in a sec
the functions becomes sqrt(-x^2+6x-8)
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can someone check this for me? thanls
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<@&286206848099549185> pls thanks
is saying ACXB is cyclic enough to say that X lies on (ABC)?
i read online they said no idk if that's right
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If, for example, lim(x→7) a^x = 10, is a⁷ = 10?
Probably a bit of a dumb pointless question, but still, it does confuse me a bit
When is the value found with the limit different from the real answer?
if you have a discontinuity
no
for example $f(x)=\begin{cases} x + 2 \text{ if } x\neq 3 \ 9 \text{ if } x=3\end{cases}$
artemetra
$f(3) = 9$, but $\lim_{a\to 3} f(a) = 5$
artemetra
Ohhh makes sense yeah
Both lateral limits point to the same value (so the limit exists), but in this function the real value is different
Right?
And in the cases like f(x) =
1/x, if x ≠ 0
0, if x = 0
Does it have a name?
When you force it to be continuous
it's not continuous
Oops
it's just defined for all reals now
Yeah, wrong example
maybe it does but to be honest i don't know. note that the limit as x goes to zero doesn't exist
Yeah
non-removable discontinuity i guess lol
Lol
bro's cooking something
So I was kinda struggling to get why 0,999... = 1
I get that lim(n → +inf) 0,[n digits of 9] = 1
So that's why I asked you if the limit is equal to the real value. So that is a valid way of thinking of that 0,999... = 1, or nah? Or is there some discontinuity that makes the limit different from the actual value??
I was just confused on wording and also talking about random things with the ppl around me 😂
no, there is no discontinuity, although dealing with the "0.[n digits of 9]" things may be unrigorous
Idk if my train of thought is making any sense to begin with lol
There are probably more mathematical correct ways to express that
But I don't think I have learned them yet?
quick and easy proof of this\
consider the sum\ $0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + \cdots = 0.9 + 0.9 * 0.1 + 0.9 * 0.1^2 + \cdots$\
this is an infinite geometric series, with first element 0.9 and ratio 0.1\
so using the infinite geometric series formula we get\
$\frac{0.9}{1-0.1} = \frac{0.9}{0.9} = 1$
artemetra
what i wrote is an example of a more rigorous proof
go for it
So I get that some infinites are larger than others. Is it possible to quantify that difference in some cases?
Ex1:
x = +inf
y = x + 5
(by consequence) y = +inf
Is it correct to say:
- Although both are positive infinites, infinity y is exactly 5 units larger than infinity x.
Ex2:
(informally) We know that for every natural number (except 0) there is exactly one negative counterpart.
Be n the number of elements in the set of the natural numbers (N)
And z the number of elements in the set of the integers (Z)
Is it correct to say:
- Although both are positive infinites, z is exactly twice as much as n, minus one. That is: z = 2n - 1
ex1: sorta!
ex2: nope
Why? Especially ex2
okay i'm going to try to be brief but it's a topic on which there are hundreds of videos on youtube
No problem
Even 1 is kind of nope
with ordinal arithmetic it's sorta doable
Oh yeah, I was thinking we are using the extended reals
there are two types of numbers commonly considered, cardinals and ordinals
cardinals are numbers that measure sizes of sets: 1 apple, 2 banas, 5000 fighting jets, etc.
ordinals are numbers that represent the position of something: 1st, 2nd, 5000th
Hm yeah I'm aware of that
with finite numbers there's a direct and one-to-one correspondence between cardinals and ordinals, they are basically the same thing
the moment we start dealing with infinities they become different things
(i will not go into the reason why)
so your statement in ex1 is actually doable within ordinal arithmetic, but not cardican arithmetic
the smallest infinite ordinal is called omega ($\omega$)
artemetra
the smallest infinite cardinal is called aleph-zero $\aleph_0$
artemetra
within ordinals $\omega$ and $\omega + 5$ are distinct things: indeed, if we have something (somehow) at the $\omega th$ place, the next thing after would be on the $(\omega+1) th$ place, they are clearly distinct
artemetra
that is not the case though for cardinals: $\aleph_0 + 1 = \aleph_0$
artemetra
if we consider the set of all positive integers $({1,2,3\cdots})$ and add $0$ as another element, we get ${0,1,2,3,\cdots}$
artemetra
do these two sets have the same size (cardinality)? yes!
why?
the very definition of two sets having the same cardinality is if there is a bijection between them: basically a way to map each element from one set to a unique element in a different set
i.e. pair them in a one-to-one correspondence
we can do that with the aforementioned sets:
we can map 1 to 0, 2 to 1, 3 to 2 and so on to infinity
each number from set will be associated with another number in the other set, and vice versa - so we used up all of them and managed to use each element just once - this is only possible if these two sets have the same cardinality
a similar proof can be constructed to disprove the claim in ex2: there is a way to uniquely associate every number in N with a number in Z, and every number in Z with a number in N
so they are both of the same cardinality, namely aleph-null
@bleak hawk i know it was a lot so if anything ask lol
although i don't know if i will reply, it's 2 am here
@fresh sparrow It is more complex than I imagined, but I think I got a part of it at least
there's a great vsauce video on this
i think it was called "how to count past infinity", probably more digestible than what i wrote here
Out of curiosity, what area of mathematics studies this type of things? The only math classes I have taken in college (for now) is Calculus I and Discrete Maths
logic and set theory
Gonna watch it later then
i don't know if people study this in college
Hm probably not in computer science lol
Maybe in math
Anyway, thanks a lot for the attention and explanations 😄
oof most likely not
Have a good night
you too
Yeah lol 😂
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hello, im doing #8
not sure what im doing wrong
i chose 2 points in Plane 1
then found the vector connecting them
can you show any working out?
From what I remember
im using the formula $d(A,P) = \frac{\vec{QA}\vec{n_2}}{||n||^2}\vec{n}$
to show two planes are parallel you find their normal vectors
yes i did that
but i have trouble with the second part
my teacher told us, to find the distance between 2 planes, u take one point on any of the planes and find the distance using the formula i gave
if I remember correctly there are two ways to find it
you can either find two corresponding points on each plane and find the distance between those two points
or you can find the distance of each plane from the origin and then posit that since each plane is parallel, the distance from the origin will give you the distance between each plane
apologies, let me revise this: You find one point on one plane then find the distance from point to the other plane
my fault
yes thats the method im using
the problem is in the formula
theres 2 points
Q and A
and im confused
do i take 2 random points?
so n should be of plane 2
Well think about how you would find the distance
the point of the process of picking one point from the plane is because you know the planes are parallel
so the distance should be equal from any point
yes
as such you take the point and find the distance from the point on one plane to the other plane
yes
for parallel planes?
but both should be the same
the formula should function regardless of whether the planes are parallel or not
because it is the shortest distance from a point in space (which we assign one point on our first plane to be this point) to a plane
think about it like this diagram
ive never seen that formula
I believe it should relate to this formula (admittedly I have not seen this)
I'm not sure what your formula directly denotes unfortunately
my teacher gave us this formula to find the distance between a point A and a plane
and so Q is a random point
what does A, P and Q refer to here?
P is the plane
oh
Q is a point on the plane,
then this should be equivalent to
and P is the plane
this
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Please only ping Helpers after 15 min
@uncut plume Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
this image is wrong
@uncut plume Has your question been resolved?
circle is a bit wrongly made
you can have a look at the original question
@uncut plume Has your question been resolved?
@pearl idol can you help plz
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oh thank you but I think we need similarity and construction here
@uncut plume please do not DM me unless I request it.
if you look at the line AB and knowing the centers are in distance of 1 and 2 from A and B respectively it follows that the distance between centers of two small circles is 2
which means that center of the circle with radius 1 lies on the second circle
then you get sth like this and if i didn't make a mistake then you can get y and z from this
by using pythagorean theorem
rest is quite easy
is it x next to 1 ( next to the other x)
the little one between 1 and x is z
oh what is that
it's the distance from center of circle 1 to the PQ line
y is distance from center of circle 2 to PQ line
yea got it thanks a lot I will try solving it and inform you
i got these but the prob is that there are 3 variables now
yup, but you know that y+z = 2 right
it's a bit tricky but if you subtract the two lines it should be more evident
oh i got z=1/4 I think now it has become much easier
that's what i arrived at too
if we assume ab bisects pq then as per my calculations half of pq is √5.6
i can dm you later if it's correct as someone called me just now
yes sure thanks a lot
@uncut plume Has your question been resolved?
how?
Ok PQ =✓21
For solving this u have to use a little geometry,u will get that the circle omega2 passes through the centre of small circle hence u can find the distance between A and intersection of AB by PQ
By using this u can calculate the distance between intersection of AB by PQ and the centre of big circle ohm
Then apply Pythagoras theorem and solve @uncut plume
is the final answer 2.1
what is 9-10
11
It is √21 not 2.1 ,u can check this answer because calculation mistake happens
it's √75/2
very close to your answer
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in the solution of the question, why are a^2 and b^2 replaced with 4^x and 4^y?
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sorry but i dont understand the handwriting
oh sorry, didn't see you closed it
What is wrong @craggy phoenix in big letters?
nothing wrong, but i really cant understand what you wrote. thats all
You can not read it or you are not understanding what method i used?
cant read
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For part a:
I did it as remainder theorem a=3,b=-1 and then I did
(-1/2)a + b, which is -2.5, but the answers are 2.5
did I do smth wrong?
@drifting root Has your question been resolved?
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oh sorry for a
the answer is -2.5. you are right
you're welcome
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using the definition of a definite integral prove that $\frac{1}{n+1}+\frac{1}{n+2}+\dots+\frac{1}{n+n}\le\log\left(2\right)\le\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{n+1}+\dots+\frac{1}{2n-1}$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{r=1}^n\frac{n}{n+r}\le\log\left(2\right)\le\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{n+1}+\dots+\frac{1}{2n-1}$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
$\int_0^1\frac{1}{x+1}\le\log\left(2\right)\le\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{n+1}+\dots+\frac{1}{2n-1}$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
right so far?
the finite sums is an inegral only in the limit as n goes to infinity right?
if i am not wrong
yeah
ah okay
I'm assuming n tends to 0
not infinity???
the partition must tend to zero, no
i think the goal is to find integral(s) whose riemann sum should be equivalent to the lower bound sum and upper bound sum
if its not this then probably euler-maclaurin formula
what now
uhhh try finding something similar for the upper bound and then work it back from those integrals for the actual proof. Also pretty sure if the limit holds to infinity, in this case, it will hold for some finite constant as well, so then ur proof would be done
altho i cant really remember why it'll hold for n constant in this case
its not that tough - 2n-1 - (n+1) = n-2, so just take the sum till there
yeah, I know
oh wait I am so god damn dumb, u gotta prove log 2 >= or <= than those integrals 🤦♂️
trying to figure out the bounds of the integral
basically the squeeze theorm
sort of
yeah
the integral of 1/(x+1) = ln|x+1| + C. so just to definite integration on that
we're just using the defn of the definite integral
yes
I'm trying to learn the defn by solving problems as this isn't a proof based book, is that a bad idea?
pret sure this holds for finite n as well, which follows from the fact that a finite riemann sum will always be <= than an infinite riemann sum ie def integral
that's false
not really, tbvh i still cant recognise riemann sums. My brain cant ever see it, and its probably due to less practice
why?
a riemann sum for something like x^3 - x could go either way
ur adding on a positive quantity (atleast in this case)
oh right
the position you choose to evaluate the point matters
its n >= 0 it seems so it holds
no it's just false in general
$\int_0^{1^+}\frac{1}{x+1}\le\log\left(2\right)\le\int_0^{1^-}\frac{1}{x+1}$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
pretty sure i've messed this up somehwere
hes trying to prove something using definite integrals
I feel like the signs should be reversed though
have you seen the darboux sums?
no
its false in this case too btw? for n >= 0
it isn't atleast explicitly mentioned in my book thusfar
well have you even defined integrals so far
what's the definition that you're working with
The definite integral of f betwnee a and b is the unique number which is greater than or equal to every lower sum and less than or equal to every upper sum
those are the darboux sums
you need to pick a partition of [0, 1], and apply the definition
hmm, so I could take a partition of 1/n in both cases
no you dont need "n tends to infinity"
The definite integral of f betwnee a and b is the unique number which is greater than or equal to every lower sum and less than or equal to every upper sum
it doesnt say anything about n tending to infinity here
ok, yeah
so what are the points of the partition
no
there are n points
tell me the points
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
if you want to evaluate the integral
[ \int_0^1 \f 1 {x + 1} \dd x, ]
you are partitioning $[0, 1]$
the partition is a sequence of points
[ P = (0 = x_0 < x_1 < x_2 < \dots < x_n = 1) ]
so 1/n,2/n
write out the definition
$\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}f(a)((x_{i+1} - x_i)$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
where a is the point at which the function attains its minimum in a given interval
okay so
apply this to our current partition
,, L(f, P) = \sum_{i = 0}^{n - 1} \min_{x \in [x_i, x_{i + 1}]} f(x) \cdot (x_{i + 1} - x_i)
okay, I don't see how the helps here though
,, \map L {\f 1 {x + 1}, P = (x_j = \tf jn)} = \sum_{j = 0}^{n - 1} \min_{x \in [\f jn, \f {j+1}n]} \f 1 {x + 1} \cdot \parens [\bigg] {\f {j + 1} n - \f jn}
this is a literally rewriting of the definition, with everything plugged in
hmm,ok
and the upper sum would be ,, \map L {\f 1 {x + 1}, P = (xj = \tf jn)} = \sum{j = 0}^{n - 1} \max{x \in [\f jn, \f {j+1}n]} \f 1 {x + 1} \cdot \parens [\bigg] {\f {j + 1} n - \f jn}
right?
$\map L {\f 1 {x + 1}, P = (xj = \tf jn)} = \sum{j = 0}^{n - 1} \max{x \in [\f jn, \f {j+1}n]} \f 1 {x + 1} \cdot \parens [\bigg] {\f {j + 1} n - \f jn}$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
TeX fail oops
yeah ive got quite a couple of macros in here
,, \map U {\f 1 {x + 1}, P = (x_j = \tf jn)} = \sum_{j = 0}^{n - 1} \max_{x \in [\f jn, \f {j+1}n]} \f 1 {x + 1} \cdot \parens [\bigg] {\f {j + 1} n - \f jn}
here you go
so this would be the right hand side of the inequality, right?
what we know for sure is that
[ \map L {\f 1 {x + 1}, P} \le \int_0^1 \f 1 {x + 1} \dd x \le \map U {\f 1 {x + 1}, P} ]
yeah so hopefully what ive just written here ^^^ will be exactly the inequality you're looking for
after you expand out the definitions and the dust settles
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I dont understand why pi is 180 when its in an angle of a trig function
By definition, 2pi radians is 360 degrees. Therefore pi radians must be 180 degrees
We define radians to act like this
I thought angles are supposed to be in degrees
Like sin(70) that 70 is in degrees
No degrees is a unit, same with radians
Radians is a much better unit
Which is why we ditch degrees altogether after a point
So why sin(pi 70) is sin( 18070) like why did we turn pi in degrees to pi in radians
Hmmmmm
Because pi radians and 70 degrees are two different units, so it's not compatible to do the calculation like that so you have to convert one of the values
So pi radians = 180 degrees
It's similar to ft and inches, if you wanted to find area, you don't do 1 ft times 12 inches because the units are different
You'd convert the units first
Ooooh so 180 is pi in degrees not radians…
Ok that makes sense
But still- why do we assume that pi in an angle is in radians not degrees
Like sin(pi) why did we assume that its sin(180) not sin(3.14…..)
$180^\circ=\pi^c$
kheerii
Because as I said, after a point we completely ditch degrees
I see
It’s much more convenient to think of angles in radians
Because the input for trig functions is either units of radians or units in degrees. Most of the time, when you see pi involved, it's radians
They connect very nicely to how we define trig functions using the unit circle
Radians are rlly small and i hate their formula
Like
X/180 = theta/pi
I remember this
You’ll get used to it eventually
It’s a bit hard in the beginning
Uhh, yeah
I think that’s right
X is the angle in degrees and theta is in radians
Yes!
Yeah that makes sense
Well ty sir nova and kheerii
I have another question
There was a formula for the angle between two straight lines
Tan(theta)= absolute value of
M1-m2/m1+m1m2 smth like that
M is the slope of each line
All your formulas remain the exact same
It’s just that you need to calculate theta in radians instead of degrees
So- why cant an angle be negative? Why do we take the absolute value
No its a completly different wuestion
Oh
The angle between two lines is defined to be the ACUTE angle between the two lines
Whenever two lines intersect, they describe two angles
One will be acute and one will be obtuse (except for the case when both lines are perpendicular, in which case both angles are right angles)
If you take the negative value then you would get the obtuse angle
I thought its 4
Oh you mean two of them will be acute or-
What foes obtuse even mean
Yeah
$90^\circ<\theta< 180^\circ$
Where
kheerii
Where are tge acute angles
Here you made the two lines almost perpendicular, so it isn’t obvious
Make them more slanted
Ah- idk what slanted even means i just changed how they look
They still look very perpendicular
Ok… what abt this i forgot 💀
Oj yes
Where id yhe acute angle
I love how this turned into an english terminology class
I dont see any acute angles i just see two obtuse ones
Theta1 and theta2 are def not acute… right
This picture should be helpful
they are acute
An acute angle is just a small angle
Oh?! I thought acute angles are right angles
Nice
I thought its another word for right angles
tbh all the words for angles are weird
acute angles are less than 90 deg.
obtuse more than 90 and less than 180.
So- getting positive value gives you the acute ones and getting negative value guves you the obtuse ones
This rule
My book says “if tan of theta is positive” how will it ever be anything but positive if we take the absolute value
Why not the obtuse? And doesnt that mean that tan(of acute angle)= -tan(of obtuse angle)
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59
It is continuous at x=1 as i got 2 from both function
For derivative
x-3/|(x-3)|=-2/2=-1
1-3/2=-1/2 so not same so not differtiable
are you sure that's the derivative?
why are you dividing by |x-3|
near 1+, |x-3| is the same thing as -(x-3)
wait nvm
your answer is correct
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how to do b ii
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these are all the questions
some more are at the top dk if i shou;d pin or what
some help would be greatly appriciated and i look forward to seeing what u guys cook up 👍 😄
3 ideas are required here: first that the angles inside a triangle need to sum up to 180, then the angle of a full circle is 360 (use for the red one) and the angle spanning a line/half-circle is 180. So basically the complement of the red angle which corresponds to that angle inside the triangle is 360 - 287, the angle complementing the yellow one which is the angle inside the triangle is 180-119 and hence you can figure out what the blue angle should be. Does that make sense?
For this the two lines around the yellow angle have the same length hence the two angles complementing the yello angle inside the triangle are equal.
The sum of an interior angle of a polygon is 180(n-2) where n is the side, you already had 3 given angles
There are also parallel lines so one of the angles can easily be found
Same reasoning. Parallelism
yup
Just substitute 26 on the given formula
Here draw a line from M to PN which is orthogonal let's say it hits PN at Q. So QMLP is a rectangle and angle MQN is 90 and angle QMN is 138-90 = 48. You can get angle MNP
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Question 1 d)
I found the equation of the plane but how do I limit it to just the triangle
Like what would the bounds of the double integral be
<@&286206848099549185>
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What do you mean? It is just a slope formula.
@craggy fjord Has your question been resolved?
this formula just It's just the definition of the derivative
of point a
It describes the rate of change of the function in a delocentric domain of point A
An infinitesimal neighborhood
I'm sorry my English is shit
QAQ
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What is a perfect square
And how do we turn equations into perfect squares
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how to solve an linear equation when y is minus a number?
I know how to solve them normally but not when it's something like y-5=
More context?
yeah sorry I didn't think to screenshot
So you know how to find the equation in the form y = kx + m, right?
I know y=mx+b
Alright yeah same thing
like I know how to find it from the two points
I just don't know how to handle the -5
like what do they want me to do with the other side
ok lemme solve it real quick and try it
so I got
y=-3x+-11
which is just y=-3x-11
so is it now y-5=-3x-16? @humble torrent
Yup!
it's wrong according to kahn academy 💀
wait I did the slope wrong
it's normal 3
not negative
Uh yeah I just noticed this is wrong
yeah but I'll get it wrong if thats the format they want
They’re just doing it directly, rather then subtracting afterwards
No?
So the correct equation is y = 3x + 23
Now subtracting 5 we get
y - 5 = 3x + 18
Which is correct
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Is this legit
<@&286206848099549185>
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Oh I thought it closes after 15 minutes
My bad 💀💀
Someone @ me if they answer my question, I’m turning my phone off
@half ingot Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
More or less, but it doesn't explain that the key step here is linearity of expectation. Are you familiar with that property?
We don't really give out answers on this server, we can only help guide you to the answer
So you’re not allowed to tell me if they ai is correct?
I'd rather go through its answer with you so that you're able to do the problem yourself, and if the AI is wrong, you can catch it
Alrighty
So, the thing we want to figure out is E f(n) (where E means the expected value)
You can expand this out as E (|a1 - a2| + |a3 - a4| + |a5 - a6| + |a7 - a8|)
The key step here is that you can break up the sum into four smaller calculations, this is called linearity of expectation
So it's equal to E|a1 - a2| + E|a3 - a4| + E|a5 - a6| + E|a7 - a8|
Does that make sense?
Not really
Okay let's take it slower
What’s linearity of expectation
Yeah, so linearity of expectation is the idea that if you want to find the expected value of a sum, you can find the expected value of each part of a sum instead
So, E(x + y) = Ex + Ey
This is useful because sometimes it's easier to find the expected value of each part of the sum rather than the whole thing at once
Ohh
It's a simple idea, but it helps you solve a ton of expected value questions
Here we're taking this sum here and breaking it into four smaller parts
Yeah
Sorry I’m tired 😭😭
All good haha
Anyways 🥲
So now the next observation that makes this problem a ton easier
Is that permutations are symmetric, so for example the number of permutations with a1 = 3 and a2 = 2 is the same as the number of permutations with a3 = 3 and a4 = 2
Do you see why?
So when you calculate the sum it’s 84?
We're not quite there yet, but we're getting there soon
Ok
Does this part make sense to you though
Yea
Alright
So basically that means that E|a3 - a4| will be the same thing as E|a1 - a2|
because it doesn't really matter if I switch a3 and a1, or a4 and a2
yup exactly
so then this simplifies the problem even more
E|a5 - a6| and E|a7 - a8| are also the same thing as E|a1 - a2|
which means the answer to the problem comes down to
E|a1 - a2| + E|a1 - a2| + E|a1 - a2| + E|a1 - a2|
I love symmetry
the third position of the permutation isn't any different from the first position
like, 5 isn't more likely to be first than third or anything
so now adding this up, we get 4 * E |a1 - a2|
Wait so what exactly is a1 and a2? Does it matter since it’s summery
Symetrry
equal
a1 and a2 are the first and second elements of the permutation
but yeah, since they're symmetric it could really be any two elements and we'd get the same answer at the end, that's right
So like 8 and 3 or 4 and 2?
yeah it could be like 4 * E |a8 - a3| or 4 * E |a4 - a2|
and because of symmetry, we would still get the same answer at the end
why frowning, lol
I thought that’s shocked?
oh haha
🤯
so then now we just have to calculate E |a1 - a2| which is way simpler than our original problem
if you remember the definition of average value, it's just
(sum of |a1 - a2| for all different possibilities of a1 and a2) / (the number of different possibilities of a1 and a2 there are)
does that make sense?
Would the different number of possibilities be |8- 1| + |7 - 2/ + /6 - 3/ + /4-2/
why?
Idk I have this random memory of collecting the largest and the smallest and like repeating that and finding something maybe it was relevant
I dunno man I was dealing with a bunch of 4 year olds for like 8 hours I’m dead 💀💀
So I just need to find out how to find the number of possibilities
Different possibilities*
This makes sense
Thank you 😭😭
oh no 😭 are you a camp counselor or smth
Yea I volunteer
that's cool
They were so hyper and they kept wanting to go play during snack time
ONE KEPT RUNNING OFF I LITERALLY HAD TO CATCH HIM 💀💀
Anyways I can finally solve my math now, thank you 🫶
If you're curious how to find E |a1 - a2|, it's basically what the AI did
the number of different possibilities is 8 choose 2, which is 28
and then you can find the numerator of the fraction by doing the weird sum thing it does in step 2
so the AI answer ends up being right 👍
haha yeah, but don't trust it too much
I like giving it math questions cause sometimes it’s right and soemtkwms it’s so far off it’s kinda funny
Yea it seemed accurate like it knew what it was doing but I was iffy
like doing basic arithmetic wrong
Once it just stopped working on me 💀
It’s an ego boosters knowing you’re better 😍
Better than goofy ai and ones and zeros
Okay I gotta finished some computer science hw and then I’ll finish this question up and go sleep and brace myself for these little rascals
haha good luck
THANK YOU FOR HELPING ME 😍🫶
you're welcome
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use similar triangles
how
I knew I needed pythagorean theorem but I do not know what to do
how do I do that?
use the radius to make a right triangle
no
it's a property
of triangles into a circle
when the triangle cut the circle in the middle
the biggest angle is a right angle
oooooooooo
and it's what the diameter will do
sorry for the english, i'm brazilliam and don't know too much
no
thats what im saying
i think other way
no cuz
@acoustic frost are you thinking of this theorem?
after I find x, I subtract it by 6.5
make a triangle
guys
oh
i understanded
its 0.7
yes
thanks
it's right
dont forget the hundredths place
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The central span of the Golden Gate Bridge has 84 pairs of equally spaced vertical suspenders that connect the bridge to the main cables.
The function, f(x), roughly approximates the curve of the main cables. Hence determine the total length of the vertical suspenders that connect the bridge to a suspension cable in the central span of the Golden Gate Bridge.
im gonna keep it real, im not too sure what to do
could summation be used here?
but i dont know how to take the equally spaced intervals into account
yeah I think it is just going to be the sum of the f(x) evaluated at the position of the 84 suspenders
you can simplify it a bit using the fact that f(x) is even
the exponentials are just a cosh
times two I guess
since they come in pairs
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period of |sin3x|+|cos3x|+|tan4x|
2pi/6,2pi/6,pi/8?
@bleak pier Has your question been resolved?
I think I did some calculation mistake,but I have told u the method to solve so u can try
yea the answer is √75/2
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Hello
when writing formal proofs where i want to assume a lot of things from the start, what is the best way to go about that
like here, i am kinda repeating the word 'lets'
would i have to keep on using these connecting words such as 'additionally', 'similarly' or is this all just nuances and nobody cares
@glad merlin Has your question been resolved?
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Primarily nuances and no one really cares. But also you can just drop superfluous language like "additionally" if you want. And if you don't want to use "let" again that second sentence could just read "We represent these elements...".
But again I don't think people overly care, these are words they gloss over and barely notice
Unless you have something wild like 20 sentences in a row that start with "Let us"
lmao
yeah
i just have like threeish sentences
im a first year so hopefully they will be nice
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oops
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How come that's the answer rather than M^4+8m^3+24m^2+32m+16
thats the same thing you wrote there tho
