#help-49
1 messages · Page 70 of 1
Closed by @twilit field
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thanks a lot for the help!
np
wait
is this what people are supposed to do…?
I thought there was like
!noclopen
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yeah maybe posting it in the help forum would of been wiser
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The graph of this and " y = 1/(x-3)" is the same
Almost, except for 1 point
desmos doesn't show that ?
it says undefined
x = 2 is not even in the domain
it will be 0/0 when you plug in x = 2
nvm it shows an open circle
I actually drew it lol
because that's how it's commonly drawn by hand
desmos doesnt plot those 1 point discontinuities
so its neither continous nor discontinous at x = 2 ?
oh, nice, i didnt know it does
well idk what people want to say about discontinuous
its just a weird question to ask when 2 isnt even in the domain of the function
would you say that (x - 2)/(x^2 - 5x + 6) is discontinuous at x =
?
no
you can define a new function which is the same as y(x) that you have here when x neq 2 and to be -1 when x=2
this new function will be continuous at x=2 but the current y(x) isnt
because there is no y(2)
except for point x = 2...
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oops , forgot about this
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prove that $x-\frac{x^3}{6} \leq sin(x)$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
I've reached until here
Ok so you have to prove this
$\sin(t) \leq t$ and $- \sin(t) \leq t$, we can deduce $2 \sin^2(t) - 2 t^2 \leq 0$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Because?
Mhm
ok so we have $sin^2(t) \leq t^2$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
How?
we square both sides of the expression here
Why are you allowed to do that?
It’s not true in general that if x <= y then x^2 <= y^2
Hello there
They have x>sinx and x>-sinx
You can do it using calculus
Yeah it is different
easily
To be clear im not disagreeing that they can deduce sin^2(x) <= x^2 from the info they have
I’m just not convinced they’ve done it yet
hmm, I don't follow
I know
-2 < -1 but it's not true that (-2)^2 < (-1)^2
true
So, what I’m trying to get you to show is that $x \geq \sin x \wedge x \geq - \sin x \implies x^2 \geq \sin^2(x)$
Pseudonium
And unfortunately “squaring both sides” doesn’t work
$x>sin(x)$ is always true
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
now x is always positive
When $x > 0$
Pseudonium
It’s not true for 0, or for negative x
so $x^2>sin^2(x)$ is always true too
f(x) = sin(x) - (x - x^3/6)
f'(x) = cos(x) - 1 + x^2/2
f(0) = 0
f'(x) is always greater than equal to 0
therefore f(x) >= 0
sin(x) - (x - x^3/6) >= 0
sin(x) >= (x - x^3/6)
This is false unfortunately
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
^
for x>geq 0
Why?
thank you
Unfortunately that’s not a proof..
I'll try justifying it
Ok
so $x>sin(x)$ in Quadrant 1
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
that is the proof
What’s quadrant 1?
I meant [0,π/2]
I was replying to their statement about intuition, not your message
then from [π/2,π] x>sin(x)
Right..
$x^2>\sin^2 x\iff x^2-\sin^2 x>0\iff (x+\sin x)(x-\sin x)>0$
Could use iff here
kheerii
or at least opposite implication, what you had before wouldnt help
but x>1 and thus we have x^2>sin^2(x) the term on the right is bound between 0 and 1
I don’t follow
in the interval [0,π/2] $x^2>sin^2(x)$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Because?
now in the interval $[π/2, infty)$ x>1, so x^2>sin^2(x) as sin^2(x) is bound between 0 and 1
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
There isn’t a need to split it into quadrants
I don’t follow this argument
Oh
Wait
Waiiit
Ah I see what you’re doing
Not necessary though
Oh yeah that actually works I think
Neat
It’s not the proof I had in mind
But it works
Cool!
How is this proved though?
Just lmk how you deduced this
I’m convinced for x >= pi/2 now
if a>b, and and b are both positive, a^2>b^2
But sufficient!
Yep!
Ok cool
Now im convinced that you’ve proven $x^2 \geq \sin^2 x$
Pseudonium
was it done for negative x already?
Is there a way to solve this without calculus though?
Oh well we were only worrying about x >= 0
Both sides are even so it must be true for both
But you can use evenness to deduce for negative x
yeah, thats the way I'd extend the argument
I don’t think it’s worth worrying about
i just wanted it to be mentioned
Sure!
we're only considering $x\geq 0$
Probably not, since the expansion itself came from calculus
I see
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
I think it can actually.
oh wait its something else
nvm
Closed by @twilit field
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uh wait did we finish lol
yeah
I don’t think we did
.reopen
We haven’t gotten back to the original Q
✅
ok
Maybe a smart use of identities is possible?
ok, so what do I have to prove now?
back to the original Q?
.
I have proven it though, right?
no?
you have proven x^2 >= sin^2(x)
ok, so (x-x^3/6)-sin(x) <0
where did you get that from
I differentiated the function
huh
i am not following what you’re doing..
are you assuming that if f'(x) < g'(x), then f(x) < g(x)?
no, idts
i dont follow either then
you seem to be doing something akin to
are you integrating?
we want to prove A. We show $A \implies B$. We show B is true. Hence A is true
Pseudonium
This doesn’t work as a proof
I don't follow, why can't I prove that the function is decreasing
I know it starts at 0
which function though?
x-x^3/6-sin(x)
like, i meant i guess you could go from your differentiated thing by integrating
I'm trying to prove x-x^3/6-sin(x) <0 \froall x geq 0
wait no
Well this is false
do you mean it's derivative
well, I aim to show it's decreasing
no
oh I see what you're doing, but at x = 0 it's actually = 0. So it's false
the inequality effectively becomes $x-x^3/6-sin(x) \leq 0$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
yeah
this one is fine
There’s a better way to phrase this btw
$x - \frac{x^3}{6} \leq \sin x \iff x - \frac{x^3}{6} - \sin x \leq 0$
Pseudonium
This is how id phrase it
You see
or if you wanna use words, say "it suffices to prove that [Insert your inequation]"
I see
$x - \frac{x^3}{6} \leq \sin x \implies x - \frac{x^3}{6} - \sin x \leq 0$
Pseudonium
To be clear, this statement is true
But if you don’t use $\iff$, you can’t reverse the logic
Pseudonium
To get back to the original thing you want to prove
ah, okay
Pseudonium
Starting from A, one can deduce B
Which is fine, except it won’t directly help you prove A
so I have to write $A \iff B$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Yes (as long as that’s actually true)
Cause what that communicates is that you can reverse your logic
After all a proof is supposed to at least be a convincing argument
So other people are going to read it
yeah, true
And so it’s useful to make sure you’re communicating well
okay
so if I write this, I'm good to go, right?
or is the proof missing anything else
Uh no
You seem pretty eager to claim that your proof is done..
is this done?
don’t think so, no
no
I see
So, what’s the next step after $x - \frac{x^3}{6} - \sin x \leq 0$?
Pseudonium
I differentiiate it to get $1- \frac{x^2}{2} -cos(x)$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
yet to be covered
Sure
its an option, but you would still have to use stuff like MVT i think
HS
not with proofs
Wait it is?
I'm doing lang now
I don’t remember Taylor series from HS..
Huh..
just formula
Right
wait then like cant u still use it
I'm going to be doing a UG in maths, I'd rather not until I know how and why it works
After this?
$2sin^2(x/2)-2 x^2/4$
i literally wrote it few hours ago, you are still doing the same thing
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
How is this related to the previous expression?
1-cos(x) -x^2/2 is this
its not that tough
but
your choice
I know how to do it with taylor series, but I'd rather not
Right, so id recommend you write $1 - \cos(x) - \frac{x^2}{2} = 2 \sin^2(x/2) - 2x^2 /4$
Pseudonium
okay
And then?
yeah yeah ur choice
so x/2=t
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Ok, wait
I would recommend you write this as $2 \sin^2(x/2) - 2x^2 /4 \leq 0 \iff 2 \sin^2(t) - 2 t^2 \leq 0$
Pseudonium
You can do it with some very scary looking geometry (involutes)
Just to make clear how you’ll reverse your logic
It’s just, whenever I see the words “so then” I assume you mean $\implies$ and not $\iff$
Pseudonium
I mean $\iff$
I’m sure you do! It’s just good to be explicit about it
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
In general, when I read proofs and see “so then”, it gets used as $\implies$
Pseudonium
got it
From here, what’s next?
I solve this
What do you mean by “solve”? Do you mean you prove it?
Hm, then what do you mean
I show that sin(t)<t
Oh sure
and that -sin(t)<t
We’ve already proved that $\sin^2(t) \leq t^2$ for $t \geq 0$
Pseudonium
So I think it’s ok for you to use that fact now
I won’t make you repeat that proof
So what’s next?
from that we know the function is decreasing
Which function?
the OG function
Which is…?
this
Where’s the function in that?
I’m looking for something that I can plug a number into, and get back a number
at 0, the function is 0
Which function
the OG function
You haven’t actually told me what function it is
Or maybe - here’s another way to think about it
What is the value of the OG function at 3?
If it’s a function, I should be able to plug something into it
Otherwise, I’m not convinced you have a function
3-27/6-sin(3)
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
Right, so you should write that explicitly
So say
“Let $f(x) = x - x^3/6 - \sin x$”
Pseudonium
right
And you’re saying that this function is decreasing?
yes, I have the mention that too I suppose?
How do you show this?
the function is 0 at 0
Indeed, so $f(0) = 0$
Pseudonium
so if it's decreasing it can only be less than 0
(when someone is doing the same thing though I wrote it clearly before)
So you need to be a little more careful
As I’ve said multiple times, the point is not to just provide a solution, but guide someone through it
I provided a detailed explanation
if you see that message
You did not guide them through it
if this is not guide, then idk what it is
I clearly wrote which point we find
Guiding means, like, actually talking to them, and letting them come up with the solution themselves
and we proved that it is increasing
Rather than merely providing an explanation
Anyway, ideas for this?
yeah, that's why I said it's 0 at 0
Right
What do you mean by “it can only become less than 0”
-x is also 0 at 0
But it is not always <= 0
the function is decreasing, ,so to the right of 0, it must be less than 0 from the defn of decreasing functions
Pseudonium
Mhm
I’m sure I must seem pedantic and I’m sorry for that
But it’s important to know how to get down to all the detail
I think you’re probably done actually
So long as you string everything together in a coherent way
Closed by @twilit field
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help
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how do i find a 2nd line
howd you get the first line
derivative is 2x+1
slope of line that goes through (2,-3) would be 5
y=5x+b
-3=10+b
b=-13
methodology is already incorect
oof
you shouldn't be plugging the point into that
as that point isn't actually on the parabola
derivative gives you slopes at points on the curve
what should i do
consider a point of tangency P(p, p^2 + p)
then set
slope between (2,-3) and P = derivative at P
solve for p
you should get two cases
you'll get a point / equation for each case
MWB117
,w solve (p^2 + p + 3)/(p-2) = 2p + 1
p=5 looks right
seems you messed up your other value
-1 mb
yes
that'll give you your points of tangency
and you can get the respective slopes from the derivative
x and y
(5,30)
(-1,0)
x and y'
(5,15)
(-1,-3)
from there i solved for b in y=mx+b using m = y', x = x and y=y
how are you getting 15 and -3
dw
new randomization is the same question lets go
alr thanks for helping
.close
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@acoustic owl Has your question been resolved?
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im doing synthetic division and have reached (2x-1) as a divisor. do i just divide the binomial by 2 and continue?
u mean u got 2x-1 as remainder?
can you be more specific id understand the question 💀
$$(4x^4+3x^2-1) \div (2x-1)$$
CrEpasPmkinPie
i need to use synthetic division
show your working
^
my problem is that i dont know what to do with the 2 multiplying the x
do i divide the binomial by 2?
then how are you asking this question?
this is review material for pre calc
and i never use synthetic division so i dont know what to do with the 2
its very hard to explain synthetic division using text
$(2x-1)\cdot 2x^3 = 4x^4...$
Xetrov
u rlly should ask teachers or go watch it on yt ..
i know what synthetic division is, ive used it, i just dont know how to do it with the "2"
then we'll help you once you give us something more specific to work with
just do what u normally do
keep dividing
use synthetic with the divisor of 1?
ohh ok
thank you
thank you i got the right answer now
.close
Closed by @iron whale
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Hi, did I do the calculations correctly?
the teacher says that the correct answer is 2, because the assignment indicates to write a larger root in the answer
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I'm reading a book that's supposed to help me catch up on math.
The book illustrates "Remainder's theorem" that says the remainder of the division between p(x) and d(x)=x-a is equal to p(a).
It says we can use this concept to determine whether a polynomial is divisible by another one, since it is divisible if the remainder is 0.
Then, next page, it's showing a way to solve this equation: x^4-4x^2+3=0
It says t = x^2, so we rewrite the equation as
t^2-4t+3=0
But now he says we can use the theorems studied on the page before, to rearrange the equation as follows:
(t-1)(t-3)=0
Factoring
Factor by roots
Has it anything to do with Ruffini's rule?
What is that
In mathematics, Ruffini's rule is a method for computation of the Euclidean division of a polynomial by a binomial of the form x – r. It was described by Paolo Ruffini in 1809. The rule is a special case of synthetic division in which the divisor is a linear factor.
maybe you call it differently
Thats incredibly overkill for this?
You find roots
It's just rewriting the quadratic with its roots
Well, i'm not getting it, how do you do that?
What are roots?
Are roots the values that replaced with t would give 0?
Ok so
Exact
Yes
Do you know how to find them?
No! 😦
But still, I don't understand how he went from t^2-4t+3 = 0
to (t-1)(t-3)=0
I mean, I understand he did with roots, but how
I thought he used binomial identities
When you find a root you can factor the polynomial as $(x- x_1)(x - x_2)$
YakuBros
There is another form to the quadratic too which is the canonic form
He oonly said that Ruffini's rule says that if p(x) is divisible by a binomial x-a IF and ONLY IF p(a)=0
how is that going to help me
I don't understand
Its explaining with many words that you can factor by (x- root)
Bprp explain it well if you want
Im watching Brian McLogan on youtube
Link me any resource if you want
I'll watch it
.close
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Not sure how to solve this waterloo contest problem
@last slate Has your question been resolved?
you here?
yeah
how far are you on the problem
I get 24
its not 24
let pinner decide
tbh I’m lost as to where to start
you have to calculate for all possible cases like all 4 the same colour 3 the same colour etcc and add each
it says that two circles colored by a straight lines may not be colored the same
you can count through the options that arent colored the same
theres very few of them
it helps if you assume that the top-left is "color A" and the top-right is "color B" to leave it general
theres also this dead-end here
its only connection is this other color, so its easy to choose a color for this dead-end if you leave it last
since its on its own too, once you select a color for the three-way, that allows 2 possible colors for the dead-end that cant be contested
That allows for the bottom left is c, then bottom right to be either b or a
vice verse for bottom right being c
and in both cars deadend can be a other a or b
Cases
youre forgetting that the top-right is B
I think you should draw this
I also started considering cases in the bottom-left
dead-end can be B or C
yeah
remember you need to consider all cases, if you go through more of them per-search then its faster
there doesnt have to be a C
yeah
top left is a, top right is b, bottom left is b, bottom right is a and deadend is b or c
thats also possible, yes
so heres what we've counted so far
(with color A being red and color B being green as an example)
in general, we counted this
you can see there, A B B A BC
then A B B C AB
then A B C A BC
so how many cases is that so far
3
each of these 3 cases leave open the dead-end
so including the dead-end, how many cases is that so far
oh oops 6
dw its a separate question
now with that, how many options do we have for choosing colors for A and B
remember that A and B are connected
When top left is A then top right is can be b or c
yea
I said to choose colors
not letters
youre setting A to be a color and B to be another color
thats why we went with A B C instead of just red green blue
...if a is green?
if a is green then b can be blue or red
6 ways
yep
now A and B uniquely determine the graph too
so with 6 ways to determine A and B, and then 6 ways to determine the bottom of the graph, how many ways is that
48 ways
6 * 6
36 ways
there you go
np
would it be possible to add you incase there any other questions i struggle with later on
you dont have to ask me specifically but sure
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how do i do thid
Can you show the question
Use the Comparison Test to determine if the following integrals converge or diverge.
compare it to the integral of 1/x
why 1/x
ln(x)<x
but isnt it
well we know that this inequality is true
improper integral > divergent integral
y0shi
oh u already did the cross multiplication
if you have a smaller denominator the entire thing becomes bigger
wdym by that?
Like how 1/0.5 is greater than 1/1
Oh yeah
and how 1/2 is bigger than 1/3
Oh oh
and hence if we compare it to 1/x
I misinterpreted that
our improper integral would be bigger than a divergent integral
Closed by @digital crag
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how did that become that ?
Closed by @cunning bobcat
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How would I prove that the limit doesn't exist rigorously?
I mean I know that if I let m = n and m = 2n we have contradicting answers therefore it can't
But I need to be all "let epsilon > 0"
almost
epsilon*
N such that m, n
less than!
one big letter
a_mn - a < epsilon
you want it to be greater than epsilon to showthe limit doesnt exist
oh
yeah
so if I do m = n, it's stuck at 1/2
epsilon cannot be made less than that
good enough?
@subtle blaze @hard shard
I'll get this checked in #real-complex-analysis later, thank you for your help :P
.close
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I will see the salt fork later too 
it's really good
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Let h be a positive number compute the area under the curve 1/x between 1 and 1+h with the area of a suitable number of rectangles to show that
$\frac{h}{1+h} < log(1+h)<h$
To prove that?
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
yeah, just not sure whay they mean by a suitable number of rectangles here
Probably two
why not 1
You can’t prove both an upper bound and a lower bound with just 1
$(b-a)\text{min}(f(x))\le\int_a^b f(x)\dd{x}\le (b-a)\text{max}(f(x))$
kheerii
Where the min and max are in the interval [a, b]
I don't "know" integrals yet
Could prove it directly from this
Divide what?
I think divising across by h may help more actualy
divide the entire inequality by h
then I find the limit as h tends to 0
which would give me the limit to be 1
$\frac{1}{1+h} <\frac{ log(1+h)}{h}<1$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
yeah
Can you prove this?
I mean using the squeeze theorm I can find the limit of the middle term if that's what you mean
The squeeze theorem doesn’t work both ways
The easiest method is just to use this
What they intend you to do is just prove this geometrically
Draw the graph of y=1/x
okay
Their heights will be different, namely the minimum and maximum value of 1/x
In the interval [1, 1+h]
$h<(h)/(1+h)$
ƒ(Why am. I here)=I don't Know
right , my bad
1 is the maximum value and 1/(1+h) is the minimum
But also I meant, compare the rectangles with the curve itself
Which rectangle has an area larger than the integral and which has a smaller area
Indeed!
then I use the squeeze therom to compute the limit
What limit
Is this part of a different question
.
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This is a pretty neat inequality for integrals
There’s a more general version of this as well
$g(x)\le f(x)\le h(x)\ \forall\ x\in[a, b]\implies\int_a^bg(x)\dd{x}\le\int_a^bf(x)\dd{x}\le\int_a^bh(x)\dd{x}$
kheerii
Choose g(x)=(minimum value of f(x) in [a, b] ) and h(x)=(max value…) and you’ll get the previous result
Yeah because they’re linear
Smth like that idrk

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hi
hello
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I just dont quite get what this is asking
to me, C makes the most sense
if 2 non zero complex numbers are equal does that not imply their modulus and argument equal?
not in the way you have it, no
hmm, is that because one could say have an argument that is a multiple of 2pi greater than the other one?
logically i can deduce that D would also be incorrect too then
correct
hmm idk about A and B though
try to come up with counter examples
definitely not
depends on the text book/prof
it will have at least length 2 pi
normally (-pi, pi]
yeah this is what we use in my country
then I think B would be incorrect, because we could end up with an argument outside the principal domain?
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is this the answer?
$H \in (A \rightarrow P(B)) \rightarrow (P(A) \rightarrow P(B))$
Ayanokoji
What does $H(f)$ return?
nameless individual
idk, what does it?
Suppose you have $f={(3,{5}),(5,{5,8}),(123,{5,8})}$, what is $H(f)$?
{<{3}, 5>, <{5}, 5>, <{123},8>}?
what is $<>$?
nameless individual
the better way to represent pairs of AxB
wait im confused right here
what is the $\times$?
nameless individual
nvm $f$ returns a set
and it is which?
times = x in my notation i frogot to use the command \times
a set can also be a function, set of pairs
I updated the prompt
exactly what i wrote earlier just put {} for the B you changed into P(B)
thats although not neccarily true, also why im asking for help here
no, the $\times$ here is the cartessian produt
nameless individual
ik
just what is
all im asking
$H \in (A \rightarrow P(B)) \rightarrow (A \rightarrow B))$
nameless individual
why A->B?
e.g. in this case it gives ${(3,5),(5,5),(5,8),(123,5),(123,8)}$
nameless individual
ty, ill look into it
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Orthogonal means AA^-t=I
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I need help with the 19th question <@&286206848099549185>
,rotate
So y = sqrt[log(x)+y]
wrong brackets
should be $y = \sqrt{\log(x) + y}$
artemetra
We can simplify to $y = \sqrt{\log \left(x \right) + \left(\sqrt{\log \left(x \right) + \sqrt{\log \left(x \right) + ...}} \right)} = \sqrt{\log \left(x \right) + y}$ and then write $y^2 - y = \log \left(x \right)$ and the rest is easy.
PowerUp
Yeah
okay thank you guys !!
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If $B=\bigcup^{\infty}{i=1} A_i$, then $\bar{B}\supseteq\bigcup^{\infty}{i=1} \bar{A}_i$. \
Give an example where this inclusion is proper.
Ciceròn
Are you sure it isn’t supposed to be the other way around
what's the bar mean
Complement I presume
i would have thought closure?
i just copied the book
see that's why
its closure
Yeah
for proper example:
consider the balls of radius 1- 1/n centered around 0
(for R^d)
ohhh right
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Two circles, whose radii are 12 inches and 16 inches, respectively intersect. The angle between the tangents at either of the points of intersection is 29°30'. Find the distance between the centers of the circles.
I did the math and got 8.11 inches, which is the correct answer.
But...there is another answer which is 27.1 inches.
I don't know where that came from.
I used Cosine Law.
show your work
a=12 in, b=16in, C=29°30'
c=distance between the centers of the circle
by Cosine Law
c²=a²+b²-2ab cos C
= 12² + 16² - 2(12)(16)cos(29°30')
= 144 + 256 - 384cos(29°30')
= 400 - 384cos(29°30')
c = sqrt(400-384cos29°30')
c = 8.11 inches
why need to show work? i need an answer or maybe a hint on why there's another answer which is 27.1 inches
or maybe it's just an error in the book???
the problem is on number 12
@hollow thicket Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> ☺️
@hollow thicket Has your question been resolved?
hi! still confused?
have you considered that that angle is the one being measured?
giving you the angle in the triangle being 150.5
150°30’
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✅
how?
so like 180-29°30'? how and why?
is it geometry and trig?
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Hi! Can somebody help me understand question a? I have no idea how to solve it and I am in a bit of a hurry cause I have an exam tomorrow. I would really appreciate any help. Thanks! ^^
@sonic nova In order to find the matrix you want, you need to compute f(0,1,0) and f(0,0,1), as f(1,0,0) is given
But (0,1,0) and (0,0,1) both belong in Ker(f)
Can you explain in detail please? I have no idea at all T.T
I am a little bit desperate. I don't need to fully understand it cause I don't have time but I want to know how to solve it. I have 8 hours till the exam 😅
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so f(0, 1, 0) = f(0, 0, 1) = (0, 0)
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@midnight plank pls slove this math
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
Ok
What have you tried? Since it's a graphical method, you should draw the lines and find their intersection.
!noans
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
This math is correct?
Also, bot will not help you


