#xeivlaq.o
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So I needed help with passe composé, this is just for now
Omg
Passé*
I keep messing it up
đđ
what do you need help with regarding passé composé
Avoir
Like i do not understand the placement of avoir in the sentence which
Changes it or something
Wait it's composé with an accent aigu?
Weird, my book says otherwise
"je parle"
how would you change that sentence to be passé composé?
oh, the past participle doesn't agree here
but otherwise that's correct
"j'ai parlé"
you conjugate "avoir" in present tense, and add the past participle after that
about agreement?
Alright, now what is this second bizarre form
you'd be right then, using ĂȘtre in passĂ© composĂ© causes the past participle to agree with the subject
so if the person talking is a woman for instance, you would put the past participle in the feminine form
which one?
Of avoir
Where there's a rule
I thought that it had to do with the subjects place in the phrase
the object
Object *******
(the object being the thing being acted on by the verb)
I think you meant the direct object that can get displaced before the verb, triggering the agreement?
I think so
if the object is placed before the verb, the past participle agrees with the object
j'ai vu ma sĆur
je l'ai vue ("l' " is referring to "ma sĆur" which is feminine, and is placed before the verb, hence "vue" agrees in the feminine)
Oh wait so it's the le/la that changes it?
But i thought that it was way more than that
Not just le/la.
Honesty I wasn't really paying attention in class
Je t'ai vue (te for the woman).
So le/la, the "se" form or whatever its name is
So if its "I have made her" (weird phrase, i know) is it: " je s'ai fait"
Wait huh
I dont quite understand it
- with avoir:
â if there is a direct object before the verb: agreement with the object
â if there is none: no agreement - with ĂȘtre:
â agreement with the subject
Se is used in pronominal verbs and in third person conjugations (il s'appelle, ils s'appellent).
Its like "self" right?
Yep.
le/la is the proper object pronoun for il/elle
also, you would need to change "fait" to agree in the feminine then
You do an action to yourself.
It's "je l'ai faite".
So no high accent?
The feminine ending is just -e, no accent.
I see
See now i understand the rule but
My brain is error in the le/la part
So if its before the object, follows this rule
Lets say
Euhh
Wait now im confused again
Ill read it wait
So if the object is before the verb
For example
Huh
How do I change the name, btw?
.tr [name of the tread]
Tu as vu Michelle ? Je lâai vu__e__ hier mais elle est pas lĂ maintenant. Peut-ĂȘtre quâelle est malade ?
Did you see Michelle? I saw her yesterday but sheâs not here right now. Maybe sheâs sick?
The past participle « vu » becomes « vue » because of « lâai (la + ai) »
If I add another woman into the mix, itâll change accordingly
Tu as vu Michelle et AngĂšle ? Je les ai vu__es__ hier mais elles sont pas lĂ maintenant. Peut-ĂȘtre quâelles sont malade ?
Did you see Michelle and AngĂšle? I saw them yesterday but theyâre not here right now. Maybe theyâre sick?
And "self" form only?
Pronominal pronouns (i.e. pronouns whose person is the same as the subject) follow the same rules as direct object pronouns
Hmm
il se voit dans le miroir â he sees himself in the mirror ("se" refers to himself, the object is the same as the subject)
il le voit dans le miroir â he sees it/him in the mirror ("le" refers to something else, the object is different from the subject)
So like
"J'aime la" is an example but in the present ?
So it would be
Je l'ai aime
I think i messed up very bad
Je lâaime, object pronouns are NEVER placed after the verb
Je lâai aimĂ©e
because « lâai » is « la + ai »
Are you serious?
Yes
That's so weird because it's different in my book
Make sure that you are not confusing objects in general with object pronouns
But someone else told me that it stays as e without accent aigu
With a female sing example
What would be the female here, the subject or object?
Subject
Aha, agreement happens with OBJECTS with « avoir » verbs
Il y a un garçon dans le miroir. Ălise lâa vu.
The agreement with « vu » is masculine singular because the object is masculine singular
Also what the hell is the "y" in il y a
There is
Whats the y for
Lmao that was absolutely out of context, im sorry
At this point in your journey you should just not think about jt
đ„čđ
Is it to show that its it instead of he
"il" is impersonnal
it doesn't convey any meaning
Without a subject, a verb cannot be conjugated
Oh now I thought that y didnt have meaning
it's just here as a "placeholder" because you can't have a sentence without subject
similar to "it's raining" in English
"it" doesn't refer to anything
no, "est-ce que" is its own fixed construction and doesn't contain any subject
English is actually the weird one here because the subject is actually what follows the verb. Thatâs why we say âThere is one carâ but âThere are two carsâ. The verb âto beâ is agreeing with what comes afterwards; the word âthereâ is just⊠there.
that said
you should just think of "il y a" as its own thing without trying to break it down much
How the heck did y'all teach me something like in less than 30 mins which my teachers would take 4 lessons on
ALSO THEY NEVER EXPLAINED IT. HOW DARE THEY
THEY JUST SAID
"Its just how it is"
Eughh
I mean
tbf
it kinda is
It just works like that
for many things in language, things are just what they are, due to generations of organic evolution
But i mean come on not even a single context or explanation
Also I have a greater question
For example, something âhasâ sense in French (ça a du sens) whereas in English something âmakesâ sense. Thereâs no reason why one language prefers one over another; it just is like that.
Im very confused about the j'aime la thing because thats genuinely how my teachers have teached me
Do y'all think that its some sort of
I mean do yall think that theres some sort of reasoning for it?
what are you trying to say with "j'aime la"?
because this sentence is either incomplete or incorrect
You need to get a second opinion because I wouldnât consider « Jâaime la » as a valid translation for âI love herâ unless the « la » is actually an article like « Jâaime la valise (I love the suitcase) »
What the
Now im getting opps
So youre telling me that they are teaching us non correct French?
But can it be as answer
if they told you this was a translation for "I love her", then yes
I mean, French is known as a âromanticâ language and one of the first phrases you would learn is « Je tâaime (I love you) » where « tâaime » is a contraction of « te + aime ». No one, and I mean no one, would say that the answer should be « Jâaime te ».
nuh uh
"tu aimes la France ?"
"oui, je l'aime"
would be the correct phrasing
« Tu aimes la France ? Oui, je lâaime. »
Oh my god they are TEACHING US
WHAT
WHAT THEY TEACHED IS WRONG?
WHAT THE HELL
NO WAY
IS IT LIKE IN EVERY DAY USE?
NO?
WTH
Either you misunderstood their teaching or your teacher came from Temu
Temu bro temu
that is actually pretty worrying, because this is considered basics
Im going to ask this
Cause theres no way
It has to be some sort of error
Or there has to be reason/explanation for it
hopefully it's all a misunderstanding
I hope too
I dont think that this might be a reason,but
Is it possible for it to be different?
Belgian-French?
no, that's universal to my knowledge
Ohhh
Iâve not known any French variety that would put object pronouns after verbs
This is very concerning
Tonic pronouns maybe but object pronouns?
-# I guess you can make the argument that tonic pronouns are object pronouns but you get the idea
Ill try to find an exercise where it was used
Ill try to see
Those are the same teachers that argue over if a word is feminine or masculine btw đđđđ€Šââïž
????
I mean that can happen but almost exclusively for loanwords
If itâs any regular noun, gender should not be argued
Haha happened once with "hair", i still remember that
cheveu and poil are masculine
although intermediate learners might not be too familiar with that as they're most often in the plural form
Why am I even expecting them to be like an university professional professor or something lmao
Honestly these are mistakes Iâd expect A2 people to make, not professors teaching the language
Weren't there stories of French teachers being there despite the lack of their qualification?
Aussi le verbe auxiliaire « ĂȘtre » pourrait utiliser pour les verbes pronominaux Par exemple : Elle sâest baignĂ©e ou ils se sont Ă©chappĂ©s.
we didn't get to the topic of when ĂȘtre or avoir was used, only on how to agree
Oh.
I mean you're not wrong, I just don't want ÎŁÎșα to be confused reading it
My instinct actually says « Elle sâest baignĂ©e / Ils se sont Ă©chappĂ© »
bcs baigner takes a direct object whereas échapper takes an indirect one
Jâai Ă©chappĂ© Ă ma condition
Ah dâaccord
No, "ils se sont échappés" is correct. On s'échappe de quelque chose after all.
True though idk if the presence of « de quelque chose » would mean that the pronominal is a COD
Le Conjugueur agrees with me
Fight fight fight
Lmao whats happening
We really just have to learn
It out of our head
Like house of ĂȘtre
That's just an excuse for "learn it fully with your heart"
I mean yeah
there's kind of a pattern to which verbs use ĂȘtre (verbs that use your whole being like motion or birth/death) but overall you just have to learn which verbs use ĂȘtre
I lost a several braincells reading thisâ my own fault. I know all these grammar rules and have studied them and also forgotten how to properly use it. Thanks for a good refresher lessons!
Guys, i have a question
I do not understand
How i have to
Put "ma sĆur va sortir" in past time
so this is the futur proche/near future where the word aller is conjugated in the present
to put that in the past, just conjugate the verb in the imperfect
How does that even work in passé composé
Je vais quitter la soirée
I am going to leave the party
Jâallais quitter la soirĂ©e
I was going to leave the party
It does not
Now im genuinely concerned
Near future uses aller + infinitive, it isn't really a tense. If you want to put that in passé composé, you just keep the infinitive and conjugate it in passé composé.
First j'aime la being wrong, now a word being written wrong
AND SOMETHING THAT ISNT IN PASSE COMPOSE BEING IN MY EXERCISE?
Wth
Guys should I be concerned
Not even Temu is this bad tbh
Does it work in the passĂ© composĂ© though? If someone said « Je suis allĂ© quitter la soirĂ©e », for example, I wouldnât treat that as a nearfuture but in the past
On the other hand, aller + infinitive isn't always near future, it's also a movement verb combined to an action as the goal. In that case, you can conjugate aller in PC.
Yep, as I said.
Oh wait
There is infact a handout
And it has
Passé composé
With Ă©
BUT in my book
Its not like thay
Wtf
I mean, does every instance of passé composé miss the final accent
Yeah this is not it
Please donât tell me this book is written by your teacher
oh man who let « jâaime la » be published

Wth
BUT THE WORSE PART IT
IS
I REMEMBER MY TEACHER SAYING IT OUT LOUD IN THE CLASS
LIKE TWO TIMES
đ«©đ„č
WHATS THE EXPLANATION TO THIS
Jâaime la quoi ?
Ma soeur allait sortir ?
Je pense c'est un answer (idk in french leave me ALONE) a
Yeah I guess its just a trick thing
So
Wait lemme
Hold on
Bri I just realized
Almost everything has like a head verb or what the hell it is called
The most important verb
Like for example
Nous allons
Découvrir
Infinitive?
Itâs actually aller since that verb is what gives it the âfutureâ connotation
Oops
In the nearfuture construction of « aller » plus an infinitive
But thatâs only true in the near future
If I say something like « JâĂ©cris », thereâs no âhead verbâ
Thereâs just⊠the verb
That being said, half of all French tenses are compound tenses in that they contain two parts. PassĂ© composĂ©, for example, has two parts, an auxiliary verb (avoir or ĂȘtre) and a past participle; thatâs why itâs composĂ© (compound).
so, there are two ways to look at it:
- in order to conjugate a verb, you might have to use a helper verb that supports the construction. This is similar to "I have been" in English where "have" only exists for grammatical purpose.
- in every simple sentence, only one verb is conjugated. When using a helper verb though, it's usually that helper verb that is conjugated.
I would say though that the near future construction and the compound tenses are not directly comparable
Hm I see
Man now im genuinely concerned
Why
The hell
Are they teaching us "incorrect" french
Like i noticed it too
With science
In 7th grade
We had learned about the cells of plants etc
And about how the leaf green granules
Were only in
Green plants
But
They are in ALL plants
Its like
They are teaching us incorrect stuff
But later in higher grades they correct theirselves
But they never mention it
Like they act as if its a "new" rule
Wth
Right but at least in that basic level the material is fundamentally right but it might be overgeneralised or oversimplified
There is no world wherein « Jâaime la » as âI love herâ is right
That is fundamentally an error
Okay I will be asking my teacher that
Like wth
Dude
Im very concerned for other students too honestly
They are brainwashing us
If I said to you that chlorophyll is found only in green plants but you found out itâs in all plants, it might be that thereâs some trait of chlorophyll that is too complicated to explain but the statement isnât fundamentally wrong
Well technically youre right
But she LITTERALY said that you wouldn't EVER find it in other color based plants
Them teaching « Jâaime la » is like me going, âChlorophyll is only found in animalsâ
đ„čđ„čđđ
TEMU AHH
Bro
I swear
I swear genuinely I do
WHAT KIND OF TEMU TEACHERS
DO WE HAVE
Why are they allergic to explaining actual concepts
Je lâaime would work đ€Ł
The chlorophyll analogy in French would probably me going like
The word « y » means âthereâ
It technically means that, yes, but its usage is faaaar more complicated than just âthereâ
Il y a
Actually Its so tuff in my opinion
The il is so tuff
Bro is needed
Wait i should go to sleep
Pulling an all nighter to study for my test, and do my homework is probably not a great idea
???
HAIAHAIAHAIAH
So well
Tommorow is my test
I understand most of the stuff
EVEN the avoir thing now
However I don't understand the house of ĂȘtre
Like is ĂȘtre only for moving actions verbs or whatever?
excepting pronominals, verbs that use ĂȘtre as their auxiliary verb tend to describe a sort of motion
but not all verbs that describe motion use ĂȘtre
At the end of the day, itâs simply something you have to memorise
Marcher, for example, is a motion verb yet it uses avoir. So ĂȘtre verbs somewhat related to motion isn't really an important point to consider.