#chatnappers
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Our volunteers look into many questions every day; sometimes it takes them a little while to answer.
Make it descriptive, including relevant context, but also to the point. This way you improve your chances of getting a more relevant and specific answer.
You've understood correctly, but that doesn't cover the entirety of the rule
You only make the past participle agree if the verb is preceded by a direct object
So,
Ils se sont appelés
but
Ils se sont téléphoné
appeler takes a direct object and téléphoner takes an indirect object
(appeler quelqu'un, but téléphoner à qulequ'un)
Basically if you know how avoir verbs agree, pronominals function exactly the same
- the participle isn't technically agreeing with the subject, but rather, the direct object (if before the verb)
It just so happens that pronominals by nature have the object and subject matching
Wait, shouldn't it be "Ils se sont téléphonés" since there is no direct object?
The agreement is with the reflexive pronoun so it depends on what that reflexive pronoun is. In « se téléphoner », it's indirect since « se » is representing « téléphoner à soi-même »
The logic of 'If the sentence has a direct object you don't make agreement' is a simplification. French forbids having two direct objects for the same verb so the logic is that if you have a pronominal with a direct object like « se casser la jambe », the reflexive pronoun « se » must be indirect because you already have a direct object.
So would it be, je me suis cassés les mains, since in this example cassé is agreeing with the direct object, les mains?
No, the agreement is to the pronoun BEFORE the verb
Oh wait, I got the rule wrong
The principle of past participle agreement:
J'ai vu les fleurs (no direct object behind verb so no agreement)
Je les ai vues (vues agrees with « les » representing « les fleurs »)
Les fleurs que j'ai vues (vues agrees with « les fleurs que »)
If I used a verb that took an indirect object, there will be NO agreement.
—> J'ai parlé à Émilie => Je lui ai parlé
—> J'ai renoncé à ses responsabilités => J'y ai renoncé
—> J'ai déjà parlé du problème => J'en ai déjà parlé
The same logic applies to pronominals except that the object pronoun behind the verb is the reflexive pronoun.
Okay, so in the example in the picture posted, the author put,
->Elle s'est lavé les mains
as an example
And you said that the past participle agrees with the pronoun behind it, which in this case is 'se'
Does 'se' here refer to Elle or 'les mains'?
Elle
So it should be lavée
No
Okay look
The reflexive pronoun agrees with the subject pronoun in person
so if you have « je » you have « me », if you have « tu » you have « te », etcetera
Right right
However, the reflexive pronoun for direct objects is identical to the reflexive pronoun for indirect objects
so « me » can either be direct or indirect, it depends on the verb used
Well except for lui and leur
That's not a reflexive pronoun
But it is an indirect object pronoun
But yes, as far as object pronouns are concerned, only the third person non-reflexive object pronouns are distinguished by their direct/indirect nature (le/la/les for direct objects, lui/leur for indirect ones)
Yeah but our discussion here is about reflexives
I brought up lui earlier to show the logic
before showing how it's applied to the reflexives
Oh wait, I remember that some verbs need prepositions, and therefore indirect objects to make sense in French
Right and that's what téléphoner mentioned above does
Since it takes a preposition, it's an indirect object
Thus if you make it pronominal, the reflexive pronoun will always be indirect and thus no agreement
Okay, so it depends on the verb as well
Right
The book didn't tell me that
What kinds of objects a verb takes depends on the verb
and from there the object pronouns you can use
and the past participle agreements from those object pronouns
So for example, the verb, laver requires a direct object right?
It does
And because of that, the past participle does not need agreement and just uses the default masc. singular form?
Before we go there, let's take a moment to analyse the objects in « Elle s'est lavé les mains »
This is where the original logic kicks in
We have two objects here: the reflexive pronoun « se » and another object « les mains »
We see that « les mains » is not preceded by a preposition so « les mains » is a direct object
Because you can't have two direct objects, this means that « se » is indirect.
Because the pronoun before the verb, « se », is indirect, you don't have agreement.
So agreement only happens if the reflexive pronoun IS the direct object
But if there is a direct object that goes after the past participle, then the reflexive pronoun becomes the indirect object
Therefore, no agreement
You got it
But what about pronominal verbs without any direct objects after the verb
How can we know if the reflective is direct or indirect?
That depends, again, on the verb
For example, « appeler » takes a direct object: « appeler quelqu'un »
Thus, in « se rappeler », « se » is direct
Yeah I've never seen this side of French
So with French verbs, not only do I have to understand the meaning, but also possible prepositions that come with it and whether or not it's transitive or intransitive
And the meaning of that verb can change depending on these factors
Yeah
Transitive here just means 'has an object'
Right, like laver as we've discussed
Mmhm
I should add though that this is a particular thing with limbs
in English we would use the possessive plus the limb like 'I wash my hands'
Right, you never say mes mains, always les mains
but in French we tend to just use the definite article (les mains) and use an indirect pronoun to mark possession
Je lave les mains à Amélie (I wash Amélie's hands)
which becomes « Je lui lave les mains »
when that possessor is yourself, well that « lui » becomes – you guessed it – the reflexive pronoun
Je lave les mains à moi => Je me lave les mains
Wouldn't this be an indirect object pronoun, not reflexive?
It is
Because reflexive pronoun always agrees with the subject
Because I'm washing someone else's hands
Reflexive means that the object is the same as the subject, basically
But it's not in this scenario, because it's someone else's hands
Not mine
Okay, so back to the original example, I should be able to say,
'Elle s'est lavée' OR
'Elle s'est lavé les mains'
You got it
I would say that if you have a good grip on non-pronominal past participle agreements, understanding this wouldn't be that hard
so try to understand how past participle agreements work in general before moving to pronominals
Okay, I might have to look other sources because this book doesn't explain agreements too well
Learning in general means relying not on one source but plenty so this is a good mentality to have
Oh one more question while you're here
Agreement applies to both être and avoir passé composé right?
There was no way in hell duolingo is going to explain this rule tbh 🤣
Yes though with « être » the logic is different
Similar but different
With « être », the past participle agrees with the subject since être verbs can't take any objects
(I'm excluding pronominals)
Yeah
Where it looks like an être verb but it follows avoir verb rules
Right