#Fato [Corrigez-moi svp] ✱
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what are you confused about?
Why is it /œ/? I see a "ue"
And it's not only that word
attendez
WHYYY
yes, "cueille" and "feuille" are pronounced the same, apart from the initial consonant
"ueil" has a set pronunciation in French (same as "oeil")
wait, no
yeah, I misremembered what /ø/ was, sorry
"ueil" is always /œ.j/
"eu" can have a variety of pronunciations, depending on the rest of the word (/y/, /œ/, /ø/...)
I believe "eur" as a word ending is always /œʁ/
right, so are h__eu__re, coiff__eu__r, p__eu__r, b__eu__rre
peur?
yes
the only cases where I can think of "eur" using /ø/ was if it's followed by a vowel sound within the same word, like "apeuré"
So /ø/ is more like when closed, and /œ/ is more like when open
yes
the obvious one is the "avoir" conjugation "eu" (just the word "eu")
It is /ø/?
it's not. if you're looking on wiktionary, it's not the first definition
also other "avoir" conjugations use /y/ (eus, eut, eûmes, eûtes, eurent, eussions..)
I don't know if there are other words
I can't think of any other, so just think of "avoir" conjugations as exceptions
it's the second time my pronunciation of French has to be completely reformed
So, to summarize… /œ/ is for open forms, like endings of words, of "eu" and "ueil". /ø/ is for closed forms, and /y/ is for "avoir" conjugations with the form "eu"
Am I right?
yes. Although open and close can be hard to pinpoint.
"heure" for instance is actually open.
words like "meule" and "meute" are closed.
words like "seul" and "seule" are open
Well, I think this is when we have to do the same we did with English
I'm not sure if there is a 100% accurate pattern
Maybe other people will have better tips for it, but that's the kind of thing you usually get through with experience and more listening, although it's good to learn the pronunciation of common words like "heure", "seul" or "eu"
Okay, okay
also it's not like /œ/ and /ø/ are so far apart. It may sound a bit off if you mess it up, but people should understand
somehow, yeah
/y/ is very far apart tho, so don't forget this one, it'll cause confusion otherwise
There's no pattern unfortunately
Oh
In general with closed syllables you get open vowels and vice-versa but that's subject to historical evolution
Bertibear, what you did to Flynn?
I see
It's called « la loi de position »
thanks, bertiebear
It's a general tendency, not a hard rule
You can find many open vowels that should've been in theory closed and vice-versa
That may come down to etymology
So I think it's actually going to be like I said before
Which I love 😍
.
Do you agree, Bertie?
Or you'd rather say another thing?
I will say though that exceptions are exceptions in French's case
Okay, okay
In English's case, there are so many exceptions to the rule you might as well not have a rule
whereas in French, that idea of 'closed vowel in open syllables versus open vowel in closed syllables' applies a lot more than you'd think
Like there's a pattern in a way or another
Exceptions like « jeune [ʒœn]/jeûne [ʒøn] » are a lot rarer, and this one is etymological
yeah but the pattern generally holds
What does « jeûne » means?
Okay
a fast (period of not eating)
Like a famine?
think breakfast
FLYNN IS BACK OMG
oooooh okay
since breakfast is the meal you eat after eight hours of not eating
I was never gone, just didn't have much to add 😅
(you would've been sleeping at that point)
SO THAT'S WHY DÉJEUNER
I have to say, when I see a new word in French I can guess its pronunciation 99% of the time
when I see english speakers playing a warcraft game, I hear them asking how stuff is pronounced all the time
I thought Bertie did something to you 😔
Yeah, English is weird stuff
yeah if I see a new word I get it right >95% of the time
Well, I think I'll get used to this new pattern with time
This is completely new to me, so…
the <5% chance is due to stuff like schwa deletion (appeler —> app'ler) but the rest is fine
Like I said before, "eu" was all /ø/ to me
it's still complex. French is still one of the least consistent languages I know when it comes to pronunciation. English is just that inconsistent
Spanish, Italian or Portuguese for instance are way more consistent
Oh, yeah
But those languages are somehow boring to me
I mean, I'm Spanish native
so they sound tooooo similar to me
so I prefer something somehow different
And there you have
I passed Spanish class by sole virtue of being French, they're so similar
Yup, that's an advantage
-# alternatively you have languages like Japanese, where a pronunciation mistake is saying Sakuya instead of Yuube
I mean chinese is consistent
Each symbol always has a consistent pronunciation
You just have to know each fucking one 
yeah, that's the neat part
Well [ø] and [œ] are the same phoneme in french
So it doesn't really matter
But in northern french dialects in can be [œ] in closed syllables yeah
And don't ask me why it's not written ceuillir
Well the c would have to be pronounced [s] there so cueuillir
We do have ueu in gueule
yep that's the reason, it's also in accueil
I'm pretty sure that back then, cœur was spelled cueur too
to avoid the same issue
it's probably smarter to write it that way rather than just inverting both letters, so cueillir/accueil would become cueuillir /accueuil
but alas
Not really
Or at least I've been playing voice recordings from Wiktionary
The same place where I was confused about the IPA transcription
It's not the exact same sound
But if you say so
I said phoneme
Which means it doesn't make a difference in meaning
Wasn't that an allophone?
[køʁ] and [kœʁ] are the same word /kœʁ/
Yeah, I get what you mean
I think an allophone is an acceptable way to pronounce a phoneme
iirc
If I'm not wrong
Allophone is a phoneme that doesn't change meaning in a language
What does that mean
Like [p] and [pʰ] in English
[p] and [pʰ] are allophones of the phoneme /p/
Yeah
Then what's a sound?
Different from the other phonemes in the same system
Well allophones are sounds
A sound is what you actually produce with your mouth
Well, that's the actual meaning of a phoneme
[ʒ] isn't an allophone of /p/ in English
I'm going to look out
No
A phoneme (/ˈfoʊniːm/) is any set of similar speech sounds that is perceptually regarded by the speakers of a language as a single basic sound—a smallest possible phonetic unit—that helps distinguish one word from another.
Different from an allophone
which was the meaning you were giving before
[pir] and [pyr] are a minimal pair in French because they have one sound that is different AND it makes a difference in meaning
So /i/ and /y/ are different phonemes in French
[pir] and [pɪʁ] are both understood as /pir/ in French so [ɪ] is just another allophone of /i/ in French
Sure
Uh huh
What's new?
You said phonemes are sounds
Aren't they?
What's the difference?
A set of sounds has multiple sounds in it
Huh?
That's like saying a group of people is a person
Well a phoneme is a group of sounds
Those sounds that are part of the phoneme are called allophones
[i] and [ɪ] are part of /i/
Yeah
I mean I actually hear a subtle difference between both
Not in specific sounds
but in French natives
[ø] and [œ] are part of /ø/
You can also call it /œ/ or whatever you want
Yes that's why i said they're part of the same phoneme
But totally different sounds
And natives will hear the difference
But it still doesn't make a difference in meaning
So you were confused about /ʁə.kœ.jiʁ/
It's written between slashes so it's phonemes
And concluded that I should make a difference between /œ/ and /ø/
That /œ/ can be [œ] or [ø], doesn't make a difference
Yeah, a guy explained it to me in #prononciation
Well people will hear it but they will always understand it
Well no
So you're suggesting that I can pronounce both phonemes in any of both sounds
But we're talking about one single phoneme
And also you're saying that French people will hear the difference, but won't make a difference
(in meaning, of course)
Yes
I'd say recueillir [ʁø.kø.iʁ] and it'd be understood as /ʁə.kœ.jiʁ/
Okay
Yeah, that's some kind of struggle I've had before with /ɛ̃/ that a guy in #prononciation explained
But I don't see why you say that I should not make a difference between /ø/ and /œ/
You say it's the same phoneme
But why I shouldn't distinguish them?
i never said that
just read back, i did all i could to explain
Man, what you said is:
- Phonemes are a set of sounds, and /œ/ and /ø/ are the same phoneme.
Then, as I concluded before, I should make a difference between both, but you said "well no". Then, I ask why. You tell it's because they are the same phoneme, but, in fact, they can have different sounds, which means that /ø/ could be [ø] or [œ] and the same with /œ/. I said that I think I should make a difference between /œ/ and /ø/ just for distinguish them, not only for assuming they're phonemes.
So, I ask… Why not?
All this conversation for nothing
it's my fault ig
But okay, at least I've learnt something new about the difference between using // and []
Why would it be your fault?
that was sarcasm
You teached me something
apparently not
okay
You did
I should make a difference between /œ/ and /ø/ just for distinguish them, not only for assuming they're phonemes
makes no sense
Because we're assuming that /œ/ = /ø/
What I want is to disgusting them by assigning specific sounds: /œ/ = [œ] and /ø/ = [ø], even if /œ/ = /ø/
Is it clear now?
Or you'd tell me that's wrong too
yes because /œ/ and /ø/ aren't separate things
Okay, Yez. Then, what do you suggest? What you'd tell me I should do?
i pronounced recueillir with [ø] because it's /ø/ to me
depends on your level
and objective
if you really wanna sound fluent then you should look into the rules of when to use which
in each dialect
if you just wanna be understood then it doesn't matter
I just want to sound the most native possible
well then
i can't really help you with northern french
but in southern french it's [ø] in open syllables and [œ] in close syllables
Okay
French IPA is as it is because it’s accent-neutral
Hi, Bertie
What Yez said may apply to Parisian French but not in southern French or any of the other dialects
Which is the more "international" dialect of French? Parisian?
Like Belgian French still distinguishes between « patte » and « pâte » where the vowel for the second word is elongated to account for the missing S (what the circumflex represents)
I KNEW IT!
I always knew it
Metropolitan French lost that but not necessarily every other ones
Circumflex represents missing S
Parisian, yeah
Like every other language
So I'm going with that one, Bertie
The standard dialect of French is based off of Parisian
and in Parisian, there’s been changes including the weakening between the open/closed vowels in closed/open syllables respectively. The difference is still being made, sure, but it’s weakening every day
So there's not a lot of difference in these phonemes
In Parisian French, yes
But Bertie, help me out with this: Do I need to make a distinctions between /œ/ and /ø/ or can I freely interchange them?
Yez was a kind of rude when I asked, so…
It’s also why, for example, dictionaries and the like still list /œ̃/ for <un> even though that vowel already merged with /ɛ̃/ (representing <in>) in Parisian French: other dialects still differentiate the two
Yeah, that's what I actually do. I pronounce both as /ɛ̃/
I’m still of the opinion that you should because that distinction is still made albeit weaker