#oysa
1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
Our volunteers look into many questions every day; sometimes it takes them a little while to answer.
Make it descriptive, including relevant context, but also to the point. This way you improve your chances of getting a more relevant and specific answer.
I tend to agree with you.
A partitive shouldn't exist in the plural, theoretically. However, when the noun only exists in the plural (as in your first example) you have a partitive.
Same goes for des rillettes (some sort of French pâté))
No it depends of what’s the word before the nominal group for example : in “une partie des épinards”, “des” is an partitive article but when you say “je mange des épinards”, “des” is an indefinite article
Wait that’s so confusing
I thought “des epinards” will always have des acting as a partitive because “spinach” is like uncountable mass noun thingo
And when des is used as “some” for a countable thing (like onions), it’s actually acting as an indefinite article
Which is super confusing bec the example of des here seems like it’s actually an indefinite article? Or am I tweaking