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Our volunteers look into many questions every day; sometimes it takes them a little while to answer.
Make it descriptive, including relevant context, but also to the point. This way you improve your chances of getting a more relevant and specific answer.
It’s an infinitive, it never gets conjugated. You only conjugate once per clause, and you already have « un ami s’est amusé »
If you’re an English speaker, riddle me this: Would you say, ‘He loves drinks coffee’ or ‘He loves to drink coffee’?
I see quite a few reasons for it to be in the infinitive form but I’ll start with the one that’s the most obvious to me. in French, verbs are generally used in the infinitive [non conjugated] form after a preposition. This is a consistent rule, and it applies to most prepositions such as "à" "de" "pour" "sans" and "après”
Your sentence triggers the infinite because faire couler is preceded by à meaning the next verb must be infinitive
The other reason that the verb “faire couler” is not conjugated is because it’s part of a construction known as "faire + infinitive."
"Faire + infinitive" is a causative construction used in French to indicate that the subject causes someone or something else to do an action
I would generalise that and say that it's not because it's followed by a preposition but because it's followed by an already-conjugated verb in the same clause, otherwise I can say « Il aime boit du café » instead of « Il aime boire du café » which would be incorrect.
I get what you’re saying but I don’t think that’s what this is. If you switch the preposition for a conjunction you can add a conjugated verb there even if the first verb is already conjugated
“Je nageais quand soudain un ami s’est amusé et s’est mis à me faire couler”
Well yeah because you're adding another clause, it's just that we've merged the two because the subject is the same
Un ami s'est amusé + Un ami s'est mis à me faire couler = Un ami s'est amusé et s'est mis à me faire couler
Ive just read this again and I get what you’re saying but that’s incorrect, it’s possible to conjugate more than once in the same clause
Imperative+indicative: “vas-y, je t’attend”
Subordinate clause with que: “je pense que tu comprends”
Direct speech: “il dit qu’il viendra”
Conjunctions: “elle parle et j’écoute”
Compound tenses: “j’ai vu qu’il était parti”
in this sentence the presence of another conjugated verb like “s’est amusé” is not the reason why “faire” is not conjugated. Faire remains in the infinitive specifically because it follows the causative structure with “à” indicating the activity that the friend enjoyed doing
These are all different clauses
Yes it is, if I remove that original verb I have to conjugate it:
« Un ami m'a fait couler »
But you also removed à
Yeah because that preposition comes from « s'amuser »
Which is a key part of this sentence
once I remove that verb, that preposition no longer has a reason to exist
the construction is « s'amuser à faire qqch » so if I kept the verb, sure that preposition would be there since it came with the verb but I said what would've happened had I removed the verb
if I removed the verb, the preposition goes too
If I switched that verb for another which demanded a different preposition, it would change nothing:
« Un ami s'est amusé à me faire couler »
« Un ami a décidé de me faire couler »
« Un ami a voulu me faire couler »
The causative will never be conjugated because there's already a conjugated verb within the same clause
Let’s start with one, can you explain how Elle parle et j’écoute are two different clauses?
They both have different subjects
We might have different definitions of clauses because i learned that this is possible
The thing in English and French is that in coordinating conjunctions which link two independent clauses, we can omit the second clause's subject if they share the same subject. In your sentence, 'John and Mary went to the store and bought some groceries', what's implied is, 'John and Mary went to the store and (they, John and Mary) bought some groceries'.
French actually prefers repeating the subject though not repeating is also accepted. « J'ai soif et j'ai faim », for example. You can say « J'ai soif et ai faim » but most French people would just repeat.
So how is “vas-y, fais-le” not a clause?
They are separate clauses in one phrase/sentence.
In your example of « vas-y, je t'attends », the two have different subjects and in different moods: the first is in the imperative and has « tu » as a subject while the second is in the indicative and has « je » as a subject.
I highlighted that, I read that in French imperative+indicative can be in the same clause
Are you sure you're not confusing clause and sentence?
I read clause and also I read about “si clauses”, can you give me an example of a si clause please?
Si j'étais parti, je n'aurais jamais connu la vérité.
This is a conditional sentence, consisting of two clauses: the condition clause (si-clause) and the result clause
That makes sense, the name of the subject is confusing. I still feel like “John chante et marie danse” is a single clause, maybe I need to go study the meaning a bit more. Thanks for your help
Is that chatgpt?
Thanks
why isn’t it je n’aurais pas jamais instead?
"I would have not never" which is a double negative