#miketuan
1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
Our volunteers look into many questions every day; sometimes it takes them a little while to answer.
Make it descriptive, including relevant context, but also to the point. This way you improve your chances of getting a more relevant and specific answer.
It's "convenir à quelqu'un". It takes an indirect object.
The "me" in "Cette date me convient" is the indirect object.
So in a sentence like: « le rêve des Français convient à Marie ». Is « convenir » or « convenir à » considered intransitive?
In "le rêve des Français convient à Marie", the verb "convenir" also has an indirect object introduced by "à". "Marie" is the indirect object. So it's transitive indirect.
An intransitive verb has no object. For example, "le rêve des Français a échoué" (the dream of the French has failed).
"échouer" (to fail) has no object, so it's intransitive.
Thanks, that's what I thought, too. But my dictionary confuses me in this picture... (highlighted in red)
It's telling you that when followed by "à + object", the verb "convenir" means "to suit" or "to fit".
so for example, "Le rêve des Français convient à Marie" means "The dream of the French people suits Marie"
as in she's ok with it
oh I thought it was the French verb itself, thanks a lot
"à", being a preposition, cannot come at the end of a sentence or phrase, it has to be followed by something
so if you see "<verb> à", then there must be something after the "à"
Maybe the thing also confusing you is that the first and second person objects can either be indirect or direct.
« Ils me parlent / Ils me regardent »
« Je te dit / Je te vois »
« Il nous téléphone / Il nous aime »
« Elle vous chuchote / Elle vous cherche »
The same object pronouns but it’s indirect for the first, direct for the second.
I'm guessing the thing that confused you was the vi in the dictionary ? (Verb intransitive)
Well you said that you saw « Cette date me convient » as direct so I thought that you had seen « me » as direct when it can either be direct or indirect, depending on the verb
(wrong @)
Oh yes
Or well, wrong subject (maybe you meant he)
dictionaries only denote transivity with vi (verbe intransitif) and vtr (verbe transitif)
Because they only take into account the verb, without à right ?
they don’t really have a specific sign for indirect/direct verbs since they’d just list the preposition
Ah oui
Didn't OP's dictionary mix up "vt" and "vi" in the photo?
Like why is it saying that "je conviens que j'ai eu tort" is vt, and saying that "convenir à" is vi?
Oh yeah that makes more sense
yeah, that one, I though it meant for « convenir »
Can you check the thingy
It’s like a legend but instead of maps it’s words
GLOSSARY
Thank you, I can distinguish it. Probably it's time to complaint about this dictionary
Thanks for pointing it out, it looks like they are messed up a little bit. I can't imagine how bad it would be, if this happens not just in that entry.
I'd recommend using WordReference instead
https://www.wordreference.com/fren/convenir