#why is "mis" changed to "mises" here?
1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
"les" is referring to a feminine plural noun. When the COD precedes the verb like this, the past participle has to agree with it.
It's a tricky rule. Here's an article on it https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/agreement-with-direct-objects/
thanks for the swift reply! what does COD mean? srry
Direct object
complément d'objet direct
or just direct object in english
ah grand. thanks!
@tight sluice
Another, maybe simpler example is this:
« C'est la meilleure photo que je n'ai jamais prise. »
Normally it would be pris, because normally the verb comes before the object -- « j'ai pris la meilleure photo de ma vie », for example.
But, in this case, because the verb comes after its object, then it must agree in gender and count with the object(s).
So since the object is une photo, then pris becomes prise.
If the sentence had started « Ce sont les meilleures photos », then pris would have to be changed to prises.
Any time you hear an object, then « que » without the verb, it has to be changed to agree in this way.
Does that make sense?
oh i see, that makes a lot of sense