#booswings_47142

1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

eager crowBOT
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Please be patient

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warm spire
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In inversion, when vowels would clash (only before il/elle), you add a -t-
Basically, if the verb does not directly end in -t or -d, you add -t- to make it nicer to pronounce (this happens because most third person singular (il/elle) verb conjugations end in -t, so it gets thrown on the rest by default if they don't have it)

crisp mica
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ohh ty!

vernal current
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3rd person pronouns actually always cause a /t/ sound to be inserted betweem them and the verb when they are inverted: the only thing that changes is how that /t/ is represented orthographically: if the verb happens to end in a silent t or d, then great, let's use that. If not, an additional -t- must be added.

warm spire
vernal current
warm spire
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I still consider it to be related to vowels clashing, as it just sounds better, even though obviously it's a complex rule with complex motivations behind it

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It's not the same level of "clash" as things like je étudie, but still

vernal current
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Well, consider "achète-t-il", where a /t/ sounds is added directly after another /t/ sound

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Things "sound better" because your brain knows the underlying rule and like when they are followed, not generally because of the sounds being any aesthetically more pleasing that way than another

warm spire
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There is still the schwa, even if it isn't typically pronounced in modern day
I just find it misleading to imply it has nothing to do with the vowels, even if it's not always the same kind of clash as "je étudie", and even if some of it is more historical

vernal current
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I'm not exactly sure why you're holding this view. Sure some people do say a schwa at the end of achète without an inverted pronoun after it, though that is rare even in the good old South.
A /t/ sound gets added no matter what, even with no sign of two vowels ever clashing, as in part /par/ > part-il /par.til/.

warm spire
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Is that not just a liaison?

vernal current
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That question of yours has made me fall into a mental rabbit hole far removed from OP's original question. What is a liaison, exactly? I mean, you can think of it as an orthographical thing where the silent letter of a word that gets pronounced before a vowel in some cases, but in this case there's a twist: a verb form pronounced /par/ will get that extra t no matter how it's actually spelled, be it part, part or even a hypothetical parc (cf convainc -> convainc**-t-**il).

So is this a liaison that only occurs in those cases where there happens to be an orthographical t even though it yields precisely the same output as the absence of an t, or is it a grammaticalized phenomenon that an overly historical spelling caused to be represented in inconsistent ways? Are those two even mutually exclusive?

stiff quarry
icy warren
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it's probably a bit of both

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those processes are not conscious and it's likely that both liaison and epenthesis (i.e. making things sound nice) led to things being that way