#integration
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you apply kings/queens (jo bhi name hai) rule once and the sin term cancels out
e waala bach rha hai
Ok so this was solved on the basis of periodicity of functions
But exam mein kaise pata chalega
Ki aise hoga ye type
u could also break into intervals which is basically the same as period like [sin(pix)] will be 0 for positive values of sin and -1 for negative ones so it will change between integral -1dx and 0dx so the first integral comes out to be -52 similarly for the second it changes between 1 and e^-1
Bro ticket close kar diya karo ðŸ«
Thingy has period of 2. so consider integral over a range of -1 to 1. Now [sin(pi.x)] ka area 'ere is -1 directly (think about graph). and e^(cos(skibidi)) is a standard formula.
Whenever you have periodic functions you translate problems like these into "What is the area of 1 period of function centered about a value in such a way as to give us convenience.