#_Giulio-fees
1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
@dusky pilot the best way is to do some testing with e.g. international cards(https://stripe.com/docs/testing#international-cards) , you can see the exact fees charged (it's exactly the same in test mode) https://stripe.com/docs/expand/use-cases#stripe-fee-for-payment , and you can calibrate your code based on what you see so you know what fees to expect.
Ok but, for example, how could I know if a given visa relates to United States (US) rather than Japan or Europe? Because if I got that right from your docs, you implement a structure similar to the one I will write below:
we use direct charges:
buyer card is european and he uses same currency as seller -> fees = 1.4%
buyer card is european but he doesnt use same currency as seller -> 1.4 + 2%
buyer card is not european and he uses same currency as seller -> fees = 2.9%
buyer card is not european but he doesnt use same currency as seller -> 2.9 + 2%
we use destination charges:
buyer card is european and he uses same currency as our settlement one -> fees = 1.4%
buyer card is european but he doesnt use same currency as our settlement one -> 1.4 + 2%
buyer card is not european and he uses same currency as our settlement one-> fees = 2.9%
buyer card is not european but he doesnt use same currency as our settlement one-> 2.9 + 2%
yep it's something like that
you can test all those scenarios in test mode and confirm
and then you know what to expect
how could I know if a given visa relates to United States (US) rather than Japan or Europe?
it's a field in the API: https://stripe.com/docs/api/payment_methods/object?lang=node#payment_method_object-card-country
So I'm wondering how I could get those two vars about a card (card issuer + currency used) before the card payment happens. So If a seller would like to receive X, I could manage the price of the product making it in a way where it would be X+Y, where Y would be a number which matches with the exact % deduction the fees would imply. So the seller receives X, and I could charge the buyer for those fees. Does it make sense?
So I'm wondering how I could get those two vars about a card (card issuer + currency used) before the card payment happens.
the issuer doesn't matter, just the country.
and sure everything else you say makes sense. But please be sure you're allowed to pass on fees that way.