johnmck92

[valid bear]

Hi there 👋 tax rules and logic are complex, it takes into account the jurisdiction where you're located, the jurisdiction where your customer is located, the taxing relationship between those two to determine the correct taxing jurisdiction, the taxing rules for that jurisdiction for the product category you're selling, and possibly some other things you're forgetting.

Are you certain the full scenario you're testing is one where it would be expected that a tax amount would be non-zero?

[distant mist]

In test scenario is as follows.

• Our company is located in the UK
• Our product has a Product Tax Code of 'Digital Books - downloaded - subscription - with conditional rights'.
• Our test customer has a german test card
• The customer card has a german address attached to this
• We have a test tax registration set up in Germany

For the scenario that I have outlined would you be able to provide any further help? Are there any other inputs that we could be missing?

Using the same customer and two separate payments for the same product we have had automatic tax calculation been applied to only one payment.
This to us seems inconsistent. Why would this inconsistency be happening?

[valid bear]

Nope, I don't know much about the specifics around when tax is charged, and the little I do know is US-centric knowledge.

That inconsistency does sound odd, can you share the examples where you saw that behavior?