I split the contour into parts, since residue theorem requires a simple contours, which this one is not yet. I seperated all little loops. The integrals for the little loops are zero except for the one around the singularity -1. The big loop goes around singularities -1, 0, 1 (where 0 is a removable singularity). Residue theorem then tells us that the integral of the big loop evaluates to pi i (sin(-1)+sin(1)) = 0.
So only the little loop around -1 determines the total integral and by residue theorem again, this evaluates to -pi i sin(1).
Is this correct? Was there a quicker way to see that the big loop integral would be 0?
Thanks in advance!
#Verification of contour integral and residue theorem
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Are you familiar with winding number of a curve?
The general residue theorem just multiplies the winding number with the residues
Interesting, we have not covered that one in class so I'm afraid I can not use that
Okay but you asked if theres a shorter way
Without splitting thr contour
There is
Look it up, or wait for it to be covered in the class
I meant more so; if there is a shorter way to see that the residues of 1 and -1 will cancel each other out. This was the final lecture, we will not cover anymore stuff.
Uhhh idts for a general function you need to calculate the residues
Theres no going around that
The winding numbers being 1 and 1 can be seen via drawing a line and from inside to out and counting the number of direction changed
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