#An interesting (or uninteresting) property I found for polynomials
27 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
it takes roughly one second and 3 braincells to prove this
Then please do so
- expand the bionomial to obtain some random ax^n+bx^(n-1)...yx+z
substitute x with 1 and done
a+b+c+d+...+y+z=a*1^n+b*1^(n-1)+...+y*1+z
- similarly, substitute x with -1, then add the series from the 1. statement. Odd powers are minus+plus, even powers are plus+plus, so you end with 2 times of even powers, divide by 2
- basically 2. but you substitute with -1 and multiply with -1 on the alternating sequence to invert the parity
^
(A+1)^n=a+b+c+d+...+y+z
(A-1)^n=a-b+c-d... (assuming n is even)
smash the 2 together by summing
2a+2c+2e+2g...
invert the second line
-(A-1)^n=-a+b-c+d...
smash
2b+2d+2f+2h...
fwiw, yes, your idea on the proof is correct. All 3 of these follow from the binomial theorem (which for all intents and purposes just tells you precisely what the coefficients are)
Though as a general notation comment, since you don't know how many terms there are, don't just use the letters of the alphabet (that implicitly says n=26)
$(A+1)^n=a_0+a_1A+a_2A^2+...+a_nA^n$
Omega
$(A-1)^n=a_0A^n+a_1A^{n-1}(-1)^1+a_2A^{n-2}(-1)^2+...+a_n(-1)^n$
Omega
yeah I failed latex XD
Not even the latex, just a general improvement for your argument if you hadn't done that
I thought it'd be messy if I wrote just a0*x^n etc etc