#troubles with finding where a inegral function is defined
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Hi! Still need help with this?
yup thanks!
Also how can i briefly graph a integral function if its bounded like from -x to x?
whats the difference compared to when its between like "a and x"
are you going to help
I finally got a free time. Would you also wanna discuss this @shell wing ?
Sure where do you wanna start
Good morning. With the first question how can she know the domain of F(x), the key idea for domain of F is that since it’s the set of all x (integral from a to x), the path from -1 to x must not be in a point where the integrand becomes undefined. Here, the integrand is undefined at t=1
@shell wing @humble wasp
It’s defined on R{1}, right?
The first part diverges so F(X) can’t be for any x>1. The function stops at 1. Can you pls do this step by step so I’d know where’s the confusing part is?
@humble wasp
yea i dont get why x>1 doesnt work !
Because the function gets unbounded in between
wdym
like the area shoots to infinty
Ok think of it this way
yes grace you tell her
You start at -1 and you move toward x. At t=1 there’s a vertical wall
this wall
So if x>1, you must cross that wall to reach x
But you can’t cross it in a finite way so the “area” explodes there
Think of the vertical wall as the infinite spike
@humble wasp keep up with her
yup yes
cause its not in the domain of f(t) right?
the limits of the integral
(-1,x)
Yes but not just because it’s not in the domain. The discontinuity at t=1 is non integrable
In this case, you cross a point not in the domain and also the integral near that point diverges so x>1 is not allowed
Remember the rule that if the integrand has a discontinuity, if it’s removable maybe still ok to cross. But if the vertical asymptote like 1 / (t-c) it’s not ok to cross
Your case is non-integrable blow up. Your integrand -e^t / t-1 if it’s near t=1 it behaves like C / t-1 and the integral of 1 /(t-1) diverges logarithmically to infinite area so it’s not defined at 1 and area near 1 is infinite that’s why you can’t cross it.
ah alr i see
yea my teacher kinda explained it like that too
Lmk if it still confuses you because it can be
Can some x after 1 not be in domain because the area might get canceled as there is a negative area there?
alr alr
Hi @shell wing
Are you asking if the infinite positive and negative areas could cancel?
No. Cancellation can’t rescue this integral
The improper integrals don’t allow this cancellation because each side must converge separately.
Is that a well known fact or is there a proof for this
The fact that for cancellation, u would need something like area → +∞ from one side, area → −∞ from the other side, and together they balance. But in this case for Riemann (improper integrals), each side must converge separately as what I stated earlier.
Try to split the integral at 1. The first one already diverges so we never even get to combine them.
@humble wasp
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