Idk I just thought I would try to solve this sum for fun I guess... If anyone wants to give it a try. It kind of involves sinc functions with basically exponentials and although it seems like it telescopes believe me I tried and doesnt seem to telescope. Both x and \sigma are both independent inputs where \sigma can be any given real number. Same goes to x. Also, it converges for given values of x and \sigma.
#Does their exists a closed form for this converging sum?
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I'll try it I guess
that's x to the power of the expression, right?
which is?
👍
I think I found the closed form
What did you do to get that
twitch Tamplr
Idk
"e^is-e^-is " can be replaced by 2i sinx
yh ik it just looks better ngl

you think it looks better than $$\frac{\sigma^2 x^{\csc \sigma}\ln x}{6 \sin(\sigma)(x^{\csc \sigma}-1)}?$$
\nothing
yh. You dont agree? Idk. Just looks cool with complex numbers I guess
well i don't think we should make the expression for a real value more complicated by adding complex numbers in it
you got a point
eitherways I did end up getting a cool formula for any given integer n too. Kinda looks nice
$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{x^{\frac{1}{\prod_{m=1}^{k}\left(1-\frac{\sigma^{2n}}{\left(m\pi\right)^{2n}}\right)}}-x^{\frac{1}{\prod_{m=1}^{k-1}\left(1-\frac{\sigma^{2n}}{\left(m\pi\right)^{2n}}\right)}}}{x^{\frac{1}{\prod_{m=1}^{k}\left(1-\frac{\sigma^{2n}}{\left(m\pi\right)^{2n}}\right)}}-1}\right)=\frac{2^{2n-1}B_{2n}\sigma^{2n}x^{\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}\csc\left(\sigma e^{\frac{i\pi k}{n}}\right)}\left(\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}\csc\left(\sigma e^{\frac{i\pi k}{n}}\right)\right)\ln x}{\left(2n\right)!\left(x^{\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}\csc\left(\sigma e^{\frac{i\pi k}{n}}\right)}-1\right)}$
twitch Tamplr
so satisfying to see a chaotic sum equal to a nice clean closed form

I do also like the approach I took ngl it was somewhat clean
am i doing something wrong
upperbound is finite
yeah but i changed it from 100 to 200 and the graph didn't really change
but does it slowly meet with the lines of the closed form?
like reaaaaaaallllly slowly
here's the 10th, 20th, ..., 200th partial sums
anything is possible it just doesn't look like it's going there
let me check ur equations real quick. Maybe I missed something
i'll check out your proof and see if it convinces me you're right more than this convinces me you're wrong
sounds good
the proof is heavily dependent on the framework so like if you want to know what the framework actually is then I do have like a full latex showing what it basically is and like the basics.
I also did it graphically and it works just fine. Also, I see your problem. The upperbound of your sum is so big (200) that Desmos can’t process it properly and therefore freezes the function’s graph which may seem like a mismatch but it’s actually just an overflow of smaller and smaller terms and values that emerges from the approximated infinite sum. On my end, by plugging instead 10 to around number lower then 100 it works flawlessly. Maybe try that instead of 200.
You can even try to put a variable at the upperbound and see what happens when that value gets closer and closer to 100
that didn't fix it
let's take $\sigma = x = 0.1.\$
i claim that each term of the sum is positive. as proof, $0 < \sigma < m\pi$ for all $m \ge 1$, so each term of the product is strictly between $0$ and $1$, so the inverse of the product is a strictly increasing function of $k$. thus, since $0 < x < 1$, the numerator and denominator of the term are both strictly negative, so the division is positive.$\$
now, we prove that the equality cannot hold. we calculate the $k = 1$ term as $$\frac{0.1^{1.001014..} - 0.1^1}{0.1^{1.001014..} - 1} \approx 0.000259$$
which is strictly larger than
$$\frac{0.1^2 0.1^{\csc 0.1} \ln 0.1}{6\sin(0.1)(0.1^{\csc 0.1} - 1)} \approx 3.7\cdot 10^{-12}$$
\nothing
i think it may hold if either sigma = 1 or x = 1
as $x \to 1$, by lhop the fraction approaches $$\frac{\frac{1}{\prod_{m=1}^{k}\left(1-\left(\frac{\sigma}{m\pi}\right)^{2}\right)}-\frac{1}{\prod_{m=1}^{k-1}\left(1-\left(\frac{\sigma}{m\pi}\right)^{2}\right)}}{\frac{1}{\prod_{m=1}^{k}\left(1-\left(\frac{\sigma}{m\pi}\right)^{2}\right)}}$$
$$= 1-\left(1-\left(\frac{\sigma}{k\pi}\right)^{2}\right) = \frac{\sigma^2}{k^2\pi^2}$$ so the sum is $$\frac{\sigma^2}{\pi^2} \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \frac{\sigma^2}6$$ meanwhile the claimed answer approaches $$\frac{\sigma^2 1^{\csc \sigma} 1/x}{6\sin(\sigma)\csc(\sigma)} = \frac{\sigma^2}{6}$$
\nothing
no, for sigma = 1 it is too large again
then I must of done a small mistake somewhere in my derivation process. But it does seem logical
I think the error was substituing the variable by an exponential to then cancel the sin at the exponential of x. That would make sense
so we obtain $\zeta(2)$ if we substitute and cancel sigmas on both sides and bring ${\pi}^2$ on the right hand side
twitch Tamplr
yeah that is a good proof but also notice that for my derivation process I specifically used x = 1 and sigma = 1 hence the reason why it works when both inputs are equal to one. So I just need to retake the same path I used to solve the problem but with different variables this time to extract an exact closed form of some sort. Maybe it'll work potentially
oh bruh you only checked this for x = 1?
nono I ended by substituing with x = 1 and then continued. It is only at the end that I must of done a variable slip accidentally after reintroducing the variables.
yk?
also I am talking about the old x variable which was used as an exponential in one of the steps
not the one as the base
what is this N symbol?
twitch Tamplr
Ty but what they does?
twitch Tamplr
twitch Tamplr
or if you want $1(2)(3)(4)(5)$ then you should use $\prod_{k=1}^{5} k$
twitch Tamplr
if ur still confused, you could ask ChatGPT or another AI
thats mostly what they are made for
OMG what is this 🤯 Soon I will be on that lvl...
okok ty
I mean… it’s kind of easy to understand. Just don’t overthink it
There is no closed form it's fantasy
well its not fantasy it was just a false result. Happens yk
¯_(ツ)_/¯
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