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Substituting p = q
We easily get √pq
But i need a legitimate method
[ Question 37 ]
Let me know if this method is right
( p^ 1/n + q^ 1/n )/2 ≥ √ (pq)^1/n
At equality, p ^ 1/n = q^ 1/n
But p ≠ q
Hence n = ∞
So we can substitute ( p^ 1/n + q^ 1/n )/2 = √ (pq)^1/n
And hence answer is √pq
Why considering equality?
Well Alright tho I would do it using taylor series of e^x
e^x???
That's a long method but works
Not a^x ?
p^1/n = e^(1/n(lnp))
You cam convert it by common sense don't memorise
Yeah I just found another way
Anyways.ill.try the expansion thkng
I wrote the series wrong om my.first attempt
I gtg for now
+close
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