#HELPP
18 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
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By counterexample, no?
Since you can't compare complex numbers to real ones.
Or you can just solve for the domain.
I just want a reason supported by some law or something that allows me to say that the proposition is false
or theres no law that allows me to affirme that?
ty
I think the domain of the function shows such.
Is it true that i > 0?
I mean it's invaluable but I want a grounded idea as the basis for my argument as to why it's correct to say this proposition is false.
...yes, and we can prove by contradiction that i > 0 is false.
@weary crane
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