#Explain integration by parts
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let's derive it
let $u$ and $v$ be functions in x, i.e., $y=u(x)$ and $y=v(x)$, thus $\dv{x}[u\cdot v]=u\cdot v'+u'\cdot v$, so $u\cdot v=\int u\cdot v'+u'\cdot vdx=\int u\cdot v'dx+\int u'\cdot vdx$, thus $$\boxed{\int u v'dx=\int udv=uv-\int v\cdot u'dx=uv-\int vdu}$$
ooaa
When we integrate for example 3x^2*2y we can represent 3x^2 as u and 2y as dv/dx. Hence du/dx = 6x and v = y^2. Thats how it usually works and then the formula is applied.
Sorry to keep you guys waiting
But when the formula says when you integrate udv
What is dv to v?
Since dv/dx = v'
And dv = v'dx
What does it mean when you multiply v' and dx?
dv = v.dx if v is in terms of x
can you show like a question so that I can explain through it
Like an integration by parts question?
I have this one:
It wants the integral of (x^2)(lnx)
so we can represent $$u = lnx$$ and $$\frac{dv}{dx} = x^2$$
Huang
Ok that makes sense
Huang
$$\frac{du}{dx} = \frac{1}{x}$$ and $$v=\frac{x^3}{3}$$
Ok I understand so far
Huang
so that we know have u,v and du/dx we can use this formula
yes dx is cancelled out
I suggest using this as you can understand better
Yeah I think that's why I was confused, since I was only seeing the du
I'll try another question on my own. One sec
also when deciding what to choose as u follow this order
L - logarithmic
I - inverse trig
A - algebric
T - trig
E - exponential
some ppl even use ILATE where inverse trig is given more priority so check the qs to be sure
I think I did something wrong when I tried this
I'll send a photo of my work
I ended up having to integrate (x^2)(e^2x) which I don't think I'm supposed to do
this is gonna get really complex which is why I said to use LIATE when choosing u. It will be easier to choose u as x so then du/dx will be 1
and dv/dx as e^2x
Oh. I think I misremembered something I heard. I thought you should choose based on which is easier to integrate
Which is why I made u e^2x and dv/dx x
you could solve it that way too but I think it uses substituition and its like a loop
just choose u according to LIATE
Wait so is liate the priority for u or dv?
its for u
yes
yep
Ok I did it and got the right answer
If it were (x^2)(e^2x) instead, would we end up using integration by parts twice?
Since the derivative of x^2 is 2x
And then the derivative of that is a constant
yes
you mean in your working right
yes
Yeah to get the final answer
if you need to you can follow the rule called LIATE
yea but its gonna be a hassle and sometimes u hv to keep on using it
L-Logarithms
I-Inverse trig
A-Algebraic
T-Trigonometric
E-Exponential
but you dont even need it and i generally dislike it
just use intuition on what will simplify first, or create a cleaner integral
so here you would have $\begin{matrix}\quad &D&I\+&x&e^{2x}\-&1&2e^{2x}\end{matrix}$
ooaa
then combine the diagonal terms (multiply), and put the one on the bottom row under an integral sign
and the diagonal stuff only applies to the top-to-bottom one
so here we would have $2xe^{2x}-\int 2e^{2x}dx$
ooaa
you could extend this to $$\begin{matrix}\quad &D&I\+&x&e^{2x}\-&1&2e^{2x}\+&0&4e^{2x}\end{matrix}$$ and directly get your answer
ooaa
integral of 0 is just 0
Oh yeah I think I saw that in my textbook
So I should learn that to make it easier to do?
yes
its another method you can use
once you understand integration by parts fundamentals
it is essentially uv method but better
i will give a small example
Ok 👍
proving $\mathrm{Li}_2(z)+\mathrm{Li}_2(1-z)=\frac{\pi^2}{6}-\ln(z)\ln(1-z)$, where $$\mathrm{Li}_2(z)=\int_0^z\frac{\ln(1-t)}{t}dt$$
ooaa
all we need to do is use integration by parts
i will demonstrate
$\begin{matrix}\quad &D&I\+&\ln(1-t)&\frac{1}{t}\-&-\frac{1}{1-t}&\ln(t)\end{matrix}$
ooaa
see how i chose these based on intuition
i knew i needed to get an ln(t)ln(1-t) term for the definition given
LIATE does so-so here
Wait can you remind me what Li means? I remember knowing it before but now I forgot
Actually nevermind, I looked it up
So you need the ln(t)ln(1-t) for the proof, and setting them to u and dv correctly gave you the needed term?
yep
(well i defined it already but that doesnt matter so anyways)
^
Yeah I just saw the 2 subscript and thought that maybe made it a special case or something
But anyway
Just out of curiosity, though you wouldn't ever do this
would it be impossible to use integration by parts to solve the integral of (e^2x)(e^2x) since the derivative never goes to 0?
Nevermind, the answer is yes if you never simplify to e^4x at any point
Well thanks for the help anyway
I think I understand now
Actually, no, I don't think it is impossible.
That is to say. I think it is possible.
Wow really?
Well when I did it I ended up having to use the integral of (2e^2x) times (1/2)e^2x
Both inside the integral
Which would just simplify back to (e^2x)(e^2x)
Maybe I'm wrong though
That's correct, but remember that's not the only term you get.
nope
you can use some sort of "cyclic" IBP or just rewrite $\frac{1}{e^{2x}}=e^{-2x}$
ooaa
...rewrite what as what?
@fast gyro
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