#Field

22 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

vagrant apex
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How can $k[x] / (f(x))$ be a field with infinite elements if there are only finitley many residue classes modulo $f(x)$?

last terraceBOT
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Addict

tawdry lionBOT
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sullen bison
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Like for concreteness, R[x]/(x^2+1) is {[ax+b]|a,b in R, x^2=-1}, so each equivalence class maps to a point in the plane

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So... there's not finitely many equivalence classes (unless K itself is finite)

viscid lake
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Yeah I think simplest example would be K[x]/(x), which is just K again

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You take polynomials over K, you remove all multiples of x (so elements of the ideal of x), what you're left over with is just the constant term in K, so if K is infinite K[x]/(x) will be infinite too.

viscid lake
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Am I saying weird or incorrect stuff @sullen bison? 😰

sullen bison
viscid lake
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Just trying to clarify but alright 🤷‍♂️

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Thought K[x]/(x) was simplest way to see what happens. Although the construction of C is a neat example indeed, one which you might actually see in the wild.

vagrant apex
last terraceBOT
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Addict

sullen bison
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Dividing by x^2+1 gives remainders of degree at most 1

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It's clear that, for any polynomial f, g is equivalent mod (f) to a polynomial of degree at most deg(f)-1.
g=fq+r implies g-r is in (f) and deg(r)<deg(f)

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So the equivalence classes mod (f) can be represented by remainders when dividing by f

vagrant apex
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That's what I thought originally, but for some reason I thought there would be only one equivalence class of linear polynomials but there is not

wanton portalBOT
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@vagrant apex

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