#Differentiable functions

143 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

void sky
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When proving that a function is differentiable can we always apply p->q and use the trivial conditional proof to show that p->q is always true regardless of the output of p when q is true? p refers to 0<| x-c| < delta and q is |f(x)-L|< epsilon.

red fieldBOT
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void sky
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Differentiable functions

frail igloo
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You cannot just assume q is true. You assume p is true and show that forces q to be true. If you want to think about it in terms of the truth table, you are showing the scenario where p->q would be false cannot occur.

fallow horizon
fallow horizon
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unless you know that p is true, you can't say more than that

void sky
void sky
obsidian mountainBOT
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@void sky

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obsidian mountainBOT
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@fallow horizon The user still needs help with this help request.

turbid topaz
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you mentioned differentiability but introduced a definition of continuity. Perhaps youre alluding to the theorem that all diffable functions are continuous?

Anyway, your question is unclear. However, regarding what aL said:

p->q is true if and only if either p is false or q is true
This means that you can interchange these two forms of a logical implication:

  • p -> q
  • ~p v q
    since "v" is commutative, you also have:
  • ~q -> ~p
    and this is very often used. this last one is called the contrapositive of the original statement p->q
    that means the following are equivalent:
  • a function, if differentiable, is continuous
  • a function, if not continuous, is not differentiable
void sky
turbid topaz
void sky
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From epsilon delta proofs

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Trivial conditional proof just refers to how u use p->q in proofs

turbid topaz
void sky
turbid topaz
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yes

void sky
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@turbid topaz this is what I meant

turbid topaz
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Oh, you're asking, is there always a delta that can be chosen that is CONSTANT wrt to epsilon

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the answer is, definitely not.

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Also, your proof technique assumes that df/dx is continuous. Though that happens to be true in this case, it assumes more than what you need to prove differentiability

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the easiest way to prove differentiability in exercises like this is just examine:

$\dfrac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c} \text{ as } x \to c}$
or
$\dfrac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} \text{ as } h \to 0$

noble shoalBOT
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gfauxpas
Compile Error! Click the errors reaction for more information.
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turbid topaz
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let me look at your proof again actually, im not sure what you did or that i understood what you did correctly

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scratch what I said at first

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okay, revised answer:

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a) if you are going to use an epsilon-delta approach, you cannot assume delta is constant WRT epsilon
b) but also, you dont need to use epsilon-delta for this kind of exercise, though you can

frail igloo
reef steppe
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red circle: no

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by writing f'(1), you are already assuming that f is differentiable at 1, but that is exactly what you want to prove

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red square: just go straight to the point, the limit of (f(x) - f(1))/(x-1) exists and is equal to 3 (not f'(1) at this point!)

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Though, as mentioned by gfauxpas, delta-epsilon proofs of limits are extremely cumbersome, that is typically why you have composition theorems and some basic limits for stuff like that

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So generally, avoid them unless there is no choice

turbid topaz
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though here you did prove that f' is continuous at 1, once you established that it exists at 1

reef steppe
turbid topaz
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"since |difference quotient-f'(1)|<epsilon"

reef steppe
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e.g. f : x l-> x²sin(1/x) if x =/= 0, 0 otherwise

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f is differentiable at 0, but f' is not continuous at 0

turbid topaz
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in this particular case I mean

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it's because f is affine

turbid topaz
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that the epsilon-delta formulation has |difference quotient - f'(1)|=0

turbid topaz
reef steppe
noble shoalBOT
turbid topaz
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they are equivalent, by making the substitution x-c = h

reef steppe
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so first of all, before you even talk about f'(1), you need to show the limit exists

turbid topaz
reef steppe
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which is exactly what you are asked to prove

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so you are not allowed to mention f'(1) until the bottom line

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that is, "f is differentiable at 1 and f'(1) = 3"

turbid topaz
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which is not what th eassignment asked for

void sky
void sky
reef steppe
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you are showing here that (f(x) - f(1))/(x - 1) has a limit at x = 1

reef steppe
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once you have proven that this limit exists

void sky
reef steppe
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you establish that f'(1) exists

void sky
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So then what is wrong with this?

reef steppe
turbid topaz
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also has math mistakes

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(c-delta, c+delta) in Domain(f)

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instead of subseteq

void sky
reef steppe
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$f$ is differentiable at $c$ \textit{when} there exists $L$ such that for all $\epsilon > 0$, there exists $\delta > 0$ such that for all $x \in \mathrm{Domn}(f)$, $0 < \lvert x - c \rvert < \delta$ implies $\left \lvert \frac{f(x) - f(c)}{x-c} - L \right\rvert < \epsilon$. Then you denote $f'(c) = L$

void sky
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so by proving that the limit exists, what should I do next?

noble shoalBOT
reef steppe
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(note that here you implicitly invoke the limit uniqueness property)

turbid topaz
void sky
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my sir said f'(c)= L but I didnt get that

turbid topaz
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it's not irrelevant, it's that it's misleading to introduce the symbol "f'(c)" at a stage of the exercise before you showed it exists

reef steppe
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which entails that you have to prove its existence

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before even talking about it

turbid topaz
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it's like using the notation $f^{-1}$ before you prove $f$ has an inverse

noble shoalBOT
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gfauxpas

turbid topaz
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since not all functions have inverses

reef steppe
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yep, big trap

void sky
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so in my working which I was just supposed to replace the f'(1) with L?

void sky
reef steppe
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only at the bottom line

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you conclude that f is differentiable at 1 (since you've shown the limit of ((f(x) - f(1))/(x-1) at 1 exists)

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and that f'(1) = the limit you found

void sky
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also can the trivial proof be used wherever possible?

reef steppe
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What do you call "trivial proof"?

void sky
reef steppe
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well I don't know if it's relevant

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but by that point, you are already done

turbid topaz
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in general epsilon delta proofs have delta a function of epsilon, or a function of both delta and x

reef steppe
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you've shown that there exists $\delta > 0$ such that for all $x$ verifying $0 < \lvert x - c \rvert < \delta$, $\left\lvert \frac{f(x) - f(1)}{x-1} - 3 \right\rvert < \epsilon$

noble shoalBOT
void sky
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I see

reef steppe
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and by that point you're done

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by definition

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not by anything else

void sky
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so by proving it u show that f'(1) exists and that f(x) is differetiable

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not by implementing f'(1) early on

turbid topaz
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so in general you'll see something like "so we let delta = max{1, epsilon/|x|}". In your case it happened to be delta was a constant

reef steppe
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so you show the limit exists, find its value

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by definition, f will be differentiable at 1, and f'(1) = the limit you found

void sky
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okayy I got it now, I learnt a lot more abt this from u guys from my professor, thanks a lot!

turbid topaz
reef steppe
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I'm just nitpicking a lot

turbid topaz
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check it out if you havent

reef steppe
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but this is important

void sky
reef steppe
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so that you don't make wrong steps

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faux pas, get it

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hahaha

void sky
turbid topaz
void sky
reef steppe
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Also, something that might be helpful to you in the future

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that I would actually encourage most math profs to do

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Whenever you write a definition, do not use the word "if" or "iff"

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use the word "when"

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if and iff are words that represent logical entailment, but it isn't really there when you define something

void sky
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+close

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