#Relation between definition of Subspaces
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Typically $\langle v,v\rangle=0$ implies that $v=0$ for an inner product. So I think when they say "null space" they literally mean the vector space containing only the zero vector.
I don't understand how $\langle v, v \rangle = 0 \implies v=0$. What do you mean "typically"?
omeganebula
Like what's stopping me from making the inner product for any two vectors zero by definition and calling every vector space a null space
By definition, an inner product has the property <v|v>=0 =>v=0 to be able to define a norm
Usually you need these three properties
So just check the definition in your notes and see if you get the implication as definition or not
Nothing is stopping you from doing this. The implication of doing this is that your vector space turns into just the zero vector by doing this.
In the book the positive definite property is not required to define a scalar product
Is there a difference between inner product and scalar product?
the scalar product is an inner product but not the other way around
Scalar products are an euclidean thing, inner products generalise them to more abstract spaces
I don't see how they generalise, what's the difference in their definitions
Hermitian products aren't inner products according to this
Well let's work this is a different order. What's the definition you have been given?
The one I posted was for real inner product spaces
One sec
Oh
So that's the same as the so called scalar product?
ig the author shouldve mentioned non-degenerate in the original text
Yeah that would have helped with the confusion for sure
So it's the non degenerate property we're all letting you know must be satisfied in order for the product to be somewhat useful
Alright makes sense
Thanks!
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