#General Formula for all arithmetic operations
1 messages · Page 4 of 1
RoyalBanana
As long as f is continuous
it's interesting it works on the interval where f is continuous
like, if f is discontinuous at x=3 and x=-5, it works for -5<x<3
Oops typo
$f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} f^{(n)}(0)\frac{x^n}{n!}$
RoyalBanana
There's a more generalized version btw if you want
$f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} f^{(n)}(a)\frac{{(x-a)}^n}{n!}$
RoyalBanana
for any constant a
Yeah
Hmm it's working for the basic sum one so far
f(x+1)=f(x)+g(x)
I was using $\lim_{N \to \infty} f(N+1)-f(N)$ to approximate the derivative
RoyalBanana
Since $\lim_{N \to \infty} f(N+x)-f(N)=0$
RoyalBanana
that means pretty much any +x doesn't matter for big N
so the difference between the derivative and that is very small
it makes sense if you think about the graph also
since it flattens out
Yeah, right
Hmm
So if a function grows faster than e^x, that means that the derivative grows faster
So for functions stronger than e^x, we could use the anti derivative, the integral
Couldn’t we use the integral of some fast growing function to stabelize the growth?
I mean you could just do the trick thingy
That I did
Instead of $f(x+1)=g(f(x))$ you do $f(x+1)=1/g(1/f(x))$
RoyalBanana
I tried to take the ln on both sides and defined Sk(x) = ln(d/dx lnk(x))
Idk if this is more stable
The right side simplifies to $\frac{1}{\prod_{m=0}^{k-1}ln_m(x)}$
RoyalBanana
That simplifies to $S_k(x)=-\sum_{m=1}^{k} ln_k(x)$
RoyalBanana
Nice!
I think imma just redefine S
$S_k(x)=\sum_{m=1}^{k} ln_m(x)$
So $S_k(x)=-ln(ln_k'(x))$
RoyalBanana
RoyalBanana
The -m cancels out?
$S_k(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_m(x)-ln_{m+x}(x)$
RoyalBanana
I just swapped k for m-k
Thats a sum thing you can do that
you have to switch the top and bottom numbers of the sum too
after
so the bigger one is on top
Okay
RoyalBanana
Ah I understand
Which simplifies to $-\sum_{m=1}^{k} ln_{k}(x)$
RoyalBanana
Nicee
I think
using the f(x+1)=f(x)+g(x) thingy
oh wait typo
$S_k(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_m(x)-ln_{m+k}(x)$
RoyalBanana
Cool
We can use this to get $ln_{1/2}(x)$ or anything
RoyalBanana
But how?
$-ln(ln_k'(x))=\lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_m(x)-ln_{m+k}(x)$
RoyalBanana
Hmm
We would need to take the antiderivative
Hmm
Aw man
It needs one of those functions
Like W
That can't be expressed normally
I used Wolfram alpha to see
I was messing around with chatgpt but I know that chat got does a lot of wrong things:
antiderivative of ln(ln(x))=xln(ln(x))-li(x)
Doesn't work for k=1 lol
Okay, yeah it probably doesn’t work
:/
^
Ok so maybe we can get something useful out of this some other way
We just need to solve for this right?
Maybe there is a pattern
Yeah probably
When I tried ln(ln(ln(x))) it broke Wolfram alpha lmao
Ohhh, xD
Yo mean ln, not li right?
No
Uh
^
What is li?
idk
Huh
Probably some integral of something that can't be expressed normally
I see, I got the same thing with geogebra
Let's do that
$-ln(ln_k'(x))=\lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_m(x)-ln_{m+k}(x)$
RoyalBanana
$ln(ln_k'(x))=\lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_{m+k}(x)-ln_m(x)$
RoyalBanana
$ln_k'(x)=e^{\lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_{m+k}(x)-ln_m(x)}$
RoyalBanana
$ln_k'(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty}e^{ \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_{m+k}(x)-ln_m(x)}$
RoyalBanana
$ln_k'(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \prod_{m=1}^{N} e^{ln_{m+k}(x)-ln_m(x)}$
RoyalBanana
$ln_k'(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \prod_{m=1}^{N} \frac{e^{ln_{m+k}(x)}}{e^{ln_m(x)}}$
RoyalBanana
$ln_k'(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \prod_{m=1}^{N} \frac{ln_{m+k-1}(x)}{ln_{m-1}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
$ln_k'(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \prod_{m=0}^{N-1} \frac{ln_{m+k}(x)}{ln_{m}(x)}$
Nicee
RoyalBanana
Ofc here we can just swap N-1 for N
Yeah
$ln_k'(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \prod_{m=0}^{N} \frac{ln_{m+k}(x)}{ln_{m}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
Interesting
That’s way more compact
$ln_k'(x)=\prod_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{ln_{m+k}(x)}{ln_{m}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
Yess
RoyalBanana
The ln_m(x)s cancel
in the fraction
$\frac{ln_{k+1}'(x)}{ln_{k}'(x)}=\prod_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{ln_{m+k+1}(x)}{ln_{m+k}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
Hmm, so ln(ln(e))/ln(e) = ln(e)?
Don't forget the derivatives
Ah yeah, and it works with them?
Bc remember $\prod_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f(n+1)}{f(n)}=\frac{1}{f(0)}$
RoyalBanana
^
Yesssss! $\frac{ln_{k+1}'(x)}{ln_{k}'(x)}=\frac{1}{ln_{k}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
$\frac{ln_{k}'(x)}{ln_{k+1}'(x)}=ln_{k}(x)$
RoyalBanana
Nice
Now we need to divide these two things?
I did yeah
Okay
^
Ah yess
The ln_m(x)s cancel out
Hmm I also wonder using that formula $\frac{ln_{k+\frac{1}{2}}'(x)}{ln_{k}'(x)}=...$
RoyalBanana
You can get this with the recursive formula
Hmm
$ln_k'(x)=\prod_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{ln_{m+k}(x)}{ln_{m}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
$ln_{k+\frac{1}{2}}'(x)=\prod_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{ln_{m+k+\frac{1}{2}}(x)}{ln_{m}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
Maybe replace the 1/2 with a variable
$\frac{ln_k'(x)}{ln_{k+n}'(x)}=\prod_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{ln_{m+k}(x)}{ln_{m+k+n}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
Wouldn’t we need to be able to solve for lnk to solve this function?
?
For non integer values
ye
No
$\frac{ln_k'(x)}{ln_{k+1/2}'(x)}=\prod_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{ln_{m+k}(x)}{ln_{m+k+1/2}(x)}$
RoyalBanana
This is a completely new fact
Hmm
Couldn’t we do something like lnm+k(x) = lnm(x), because k gets nothing compared to m when m gets very big?
Ah I see
lnk(x) doesn't flatten out
Yeah
Can we maybe do something here, because it’s summation, which should behave better right?
I’ll try to figure out values for a very big x
I don’t understand how this stuff works in desmos
Hmmmmm…. What is 0- infinity?…
Hmm? What is infinity-ln(infinity)
?
infinity, well in the limit
?
I tried finding S1(e^e)
You can just cancel out the terms
And weird stuff happens if you increase the k in lnk
for k whole
uhh
$S_1(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{m=1}^{N} ln_m(x)-ln_{m+1}(x)$
RoyalBanana
$S_1(x)=ln_1(x)$
RoyalBanana
$S_1(x)=ln(x)$
RoyalBanana
^
And what if I use S2 ?
if k is whole just use this lol^
Okayy I see
So S2(e^e) = e+1 ?
And S3(e^e) = e+1+0 = S2(e^e)
Hmm
There must be a way to create infinitys to calculate with ln(0) is infinity, e^ln(0) should be 0, but it can be infinity too
I used this on a function we already know the extension of
The blue is this method and the black is the actual derivative
It works for all integer x
What function is this?
(the lines aren't actually lines ofc desmos just rounds the numbers at the top and bottom of sums since normally you can't have nonintegers there)
Really think of it more like this
Okayy
I used the harmonic numbers for this
But lemme test it for others
Nicee
I was thinking a Bit about the lnk function. ln(0) = infinity doesn‘t really make sense, because it approaches 0 but never really reaches 0, it would reach some infinitesimal but not 0. so I thought what if we try to invent a new number class which has numbers that are a solution to ln(0) and try to calculate stuff like ln(-1). And stuff like ln(ln(0))
Ah wait ln(-1) is iπ
uh $ln(0)=-\infty$
RoyalBanana
But how?
the formula for f'(x)
if f(x)=f(x-1)+g(x) and smooths out
$f'(x)=-\sum_{n=x+1}^{\infty}g'(n)$
RoyalBanana
I researched stuff ok the internet and it said it‘s undefined, it approches 0 but never reaches it
That means the same thing
Uhh, nice
Yeah but it doesn‘t make sense that e^-infinity = 0
I know
Not really a useful definition but $ln(ln(0))=\pi i+\infty$
Hmm
RoyalBanana
Huh
So it‘s infinity + i ?
No
I mean ln(infinity + i)
I got there with limits I suppose
Because pi + infinity = infinity
Uh yeah but what's that have to do with it
$\lim_{N \to \infty} \ln(N)+\arcsin(\frac{\pi}{N})i$
RoyalBanana
Hmm
I got this with eulers formula btw
Is ln(pi*i) the same as ln(infinity) + arcsin(pi/infinity) i ?
Okay
idk lol
This is complicated…
Not really useful
I just want to know what happens to lnk if k gets large, so we can calculate the limit
I mean I guess
But there's no reason to know if it doesn't flatten out
and it clearly doesn't
Okay
How does this function behave?
Hmm
btw do you know about this
you can use the real and imag functions
they show you each part of a number or function
oh wow imag(S_k(x)) is really well behaved
like, its almost perfectly a line
Ah I just realized I'm looking at S_x(x) lol
Oops
Wdym?
Which part lol
Is it possible to make 3 d graphs?
Hmm S_k(2) is very much like a line
No
Well yea
But not very useful here imo
Okay
Nicee
Do you think we can use that for the infinite Limit thingy?
Ah yeah
Because of the iterated ln for the complex numbers I guess
he had a function that approaches a line
Yeah Right
Hold on lemme figure out the slope of these lines
can get a really good approximation
of S_k(2)
Just approx infinity for N and there we go
Lol it's so laggy
alr so $real(S_k(2)) \approx real((S_{N+1}(2)-S_N(2))(x-N)+S_N(2))$
RoyalBanana
$S_{N+1}(x)-S_N(x)=ln_{N+1}(x)$
RoyalBanana
Nicee
alr so $real(S_k(2)) \approx real(ln_{N+1}(2)(k-N)+S_N(2))$
Like, a really good approximation lol
at most it's off by around 1
beyond k=8 it's almost completely accurate
RoyalBanana
k not x lol
Same with imag
alr so $imag(S_k(2)) \approx imag(ln_{N+1}(2)(k-N)+S_N(2))$
RoyalBanana
Ofc by definition $real(x)+i*imag(x)=x$
RoyalBanana
so let's combine these two
$real(S_k(2))+iimag(S_k(2)) \approx real(ln_{N+1}(2)(k-N)+S_N(2))+iimag(ln_{N+1}(2)(k-N)+S_N(2))$
RoyalBanana
$S_k(2) \approx ln_{N+1}(2)(k-N)+S_N(2)$
RoyalBanana
Nice!
Nicee so is S_k(3)
And s_k(4)
And s_k(5)
alr
nice
$S_k(x) \approx ln_{N+1}(x)(k-N)+S_N(x)$
RoyalBanana
Oh with this graph of S_k(x) I can see it now
I inputted S_k(-0.001)
Oh niceee
Looks very Nicee, so for huge N?
Yep
Nice
Yup it approaches infinity+0i, weird
ln(ln(ln(0))) I mean
Ohh I understand
Eulers formula with that gives us sin(0)*e^infinity
0*infinity
with the limit they cancel out and equal pi or smth
Ah this only works if S_k(x) flattens out
But it really approaches a line
I gotta add a term at the end
Ahh typo lol m+k not m+x
$S_k(x) \approx ln_{N+1}(x)(k-N)+S_N(x)$
So $S_k(x)-S_{k-1}(x) \approx $ ln_{N+1}(x)(k-N)+S_N(x)-(ln_{N+1}(x)(k-1-N)+S_N(x))$
So $ln_{k}(x) \approx $ ln_{N+1}(x)$
RoyalBanana
Compile Error! Click the
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Yes
flattens out and converges are different
flattens out just means the amount it increases by slowly goes to 0
There will be a slope somewhere that flatterns out
at infinity
$f'(\infty)=0$
RoyalBanana
Yeah, and we can use that slope to use that factorial stategy i guess
remember the definition thingy
$\lim_{N \to \infty} f(N+x)-f(N)=0$
RoyalBanana
?
Or we just use the derivative and do it for the x axis
For $k>0: \lim_{N \to \infty} ln_k(N+x)-ln_k(N)=0$
RoyalBanana
I suppose this makes sense
The harmonic Series flatterns on the x axis, and when a function grows very fast it flatterns out on the y axis
Yeah true
This would be epic
If we find lnk, we found all operations for tetration i guess
I forgot
I‘ll rewatch it again
Hmm
Should we use some constant for x for now to make it easier?
1 variable is less complex than 2
We were kinda doing that already
When I tried this with x=2 3 4 5 etc
Because for every x the Point where it flatterns is diffrent
wdym "the point where it flattens"?
On the x axis
Wait, lemme try to show it on desmos
that's why we're using limits
lol
If it did ever flatten out at a certain point then that would mean it would be undefined after that point
The graphs are not apearing for some reason but These two values for x have a different point where it converges to infinity
you put them in the wrong order
In What Order do I need to put them?
Uh, How to do it correctly?
you're graphing $ln_x(1)$ and $ln_x(10000000)$
RoyalBanana
Not $ln_1(x)$ and $ln_{10000000}(x)$
RoyalBanana
Wait
Just switch 10000000 and x
ye
Two diffrent points where they converge
That's..
To infinity
not what I meant
Am confused
Yeah
?
So you can see at which Point it turns negative infinity
Now I understand what you meant
It's not really complicated
RoyalBanana
And than coming it I guess
Just think about it lol
It's undefined when it's 0
ln(ln(x)) is undefined when ln(x)=0
ln(ln(ln(x))) is undefined when ln(ln(x)) is 0
etc
Yeah
^
Hmm
For every x?
RoyalBanana
RoyalBanana
Aka e^^(k-2)
so you can see that if k<=0 it's undefined bc theres no undefined point for e^x and e^(e^x) etc
-infinity
And then use that slope to get the whole function
lol
Oh yeah, typo
I see what you mean tho
you can do the 1/ trick tho
$f(x+1)=\frac{1}{g(\frac{1}{f(x)})}$
RoyalBanana
Oh Yeah, I See
this is equal to 1/normal f(x)
oh yeah also for this you need this new f(0) to be 1/normal f(0) ofc
You can see this easily if you write out the terms, it's cool
What are you asking?
The 1/x, Trick to get the flatter out on the x axis
it can be written two ways rigght, like for example H₈ (a, b) and H(8, a, b)?
oh alr
Well
Not really anymore
bc we invented a new notation
that uses that space already
Yeah, but what about these non integer values for n, or negative values
bc f(3,x)=0 at some point
You Can read a lot about that stuff in this Channel, we discussed a lot
Ah okay i see
Imagine non-integer hyperoperations like Hπ(a, b)
This slope on that y axis is the same as the one for 1/f(x) on the x axis?
nice
1/f(x) is just a way to see the slope and have it not be infinite
Yeah I know, we are trying to find the formula for that
maybe H1.5 could be the average between h1 and h2 of a, b but this probably dont make sense
so for f(3,x)
try 1/(3,e-1/x)
Yall playing with hyperoperations? That's cool, i used to do that, its fun so good luck
yesss its so fun
Not sure, I think it’s not proportional
yeah
*1/(3,1/(e-x))
Hmm
I tried creating a hyperoperation that can represent everything from basic operations to smth like the Graham number, i stopped working on it but maybe you can do smth with that
imma look into graham number
So then its a function that satisfies the limit thing
f(x+N)-f(N)->0
i was only able to denote g1, so good luck with g64
Nicee
so basically you transform the function so it satisfies the limit thing, figure out the extension of that, then undo the transform
I see, am just a bit confused with the e-x
what if u use g to ur advantage like g(H₈₀₀₀₀₀₀(g64, g64))
i dont really know about grahams number so im probably wron
well the point that it's undefined at is at x=e, so 1/(e-x) moves it to infinity
Wait
uhh
I think
Uh
I wanted to make my notation simpler, like H(a,b,c,d), where abcd all correspond to different operations neatly written, maybe you can get inspired from this.
like say a is the number, b is the deegre of the initial operation, addition, multiplication, exponention tetration etc, c is how many times you repeat that, d is how many times you repeat the entire operation by computing the entire thing
So 1/lnk(x) approaches one specific value on the x axis right?
oh nice
Yeah we had $H_k(n,a,b)$
RoyalBanana
You may also want to explore fractional operations, like say:
1: Addition
2: Multiplication
3: exponentation.
So like lets say we go 2 and 3, what would an operation like 1.5 do to the numbers
Really? well, you may want to explore how fractional operations sometimes give smaller results than any normal operation, like if you draw a function for addition, multip, exponentan, for 3,3 you get 3+3, 3*3 and 3^3
so
1,6
2,9
3,27
for the operation 1.5, the result is 5.625, which means the mix between addition and multiplication is sometimes less than addition, in some cases, its negative.
Dude check your dms
Right?
Anyway
Because lnk(x) aproaches infinity on the y axis
Or just this e^^k-2 number
Hmm, but we would just extend ln to real numbers and we already now that right?
I wanted to know the slope of lnx(2) or lnx(e)
It’s not that big if you compare it to other numbers
yeah
can you explain this notation or reply to a message that explains it
nope
k represents how many times you take the natrual log of x
does x mean any number
And we need non integer numbers
Yeah
oh
For k
lnk(e) = e^^-k
If we know lnk we instantly know all the tetration
ye
thats cool
@jovial rock okok lets get back working on this now lol
Yeah
Can we express it with k?
I think it converges less quickly when x is a big number
Oh
No I mean k
I was assuming you were trying to do this
Yeah I know, I tried it but I didn’t completely understand it so I’m trying it with the normal function
Sorry I couldn't focus before can we try again
Yeah
Wait
I think I know what you mean
We want to se how 1/f(x) flatterns
So it would be something like (N, f(N)) and the next point (N+1,f(N+1))
So f(N) ≈ f(N+n) for extremely big N
I think 1/f(x) aproaches 1/e^^(k-2)
Yeah
So then that would approach 0
as x->infinity
sorry, I'm kinda confused
what's the problem you're trying to solve?
Trying to find a way to find the slopes for lnk
You can use the derivative then
Wrong word sry
and there's also a generalized version too
Yeah
so which do u need rn?
I guess the one for the integers so I can find a slope which can be used to use the factorial vid strategy
$ln_k'(x)=\frac{1}{\prod_{m=0}^{k-1}ln_m(x)}$
RoyalBanana
I hate how the bot does that to the capital pi thing but whatever lol
Oh okay
remember the limit thing
Yeah
Wait
Ohhh
I see where you're coming from
$f'(k)=\lim_{N \to \infty} \frac{f(N+1)-f(N)}{\prod_{n=k}^{N-1}g'(f(n))}$
RoyalBanana
With this?
Yeah
But no sadly
Okay
In this case g(x)=ln(x) so g'(x)=1/x
Okay, I see
Ah I used k a different way here a little confusing lol
wait no
nvm
lol
Okok
Oh I understand
I see
I‘ll try to find the integer values for this
This is with respect to x
this is the derivative with respect to k
Yeah
$\frac{d}{dk}ln_k(x)$
RoyalBanana
Lemme test the formula so
$\frac{d}{dk} ln_k(x)=\lim_{N \to \infty} (ln_{N+1}(x)-ln_N(x))\prod_{n=k}^{N-1}ln_n(x)?$
Okayy, yeah
RoyalBanana
So for k=1, and x= e, it‘s 1/e ?
Yep
Nicee
ln'(x)=1/x
Okay
Say
Thats kinda similar to ln^2(x)
I wonder if lns'(x) is similar to ln(x)
that would be nice lol
Yeah, this would be very cool
Wait, for k=2, x=e, 1/e * 1, because 1/ln(e)?
And for k=3, it’s infinity because 1/e * 1 * 1/0 ?
Yep
The 1/0 is in the denominator tho
yup!
It would be 1/e * 1/1 * 1/0 ?
$ln(ln(x))'=\frac{1}{xlnx}$
RoyalBanana
But here
$ln(ln(ln(x)))'=\frac{1}{xln(x)ln(ln(x))}$
RoyalBanana
Wait ?
ohh
you already took the 0 out of the denominator
ok
Yes
yeah it's undefined
But what if k = 4?? It’s 1/e * 1 * 1/0 * 1/-infinity
You can't do that tho
you have to take the limit instead
Okay
have you learned limits yet?
I’m at the quadratic formula rn in school…
if you can't calculate f(x) at for example x=1 because of some weird problem like this instead you figure out f(1.0001) basically
you choose a number really really close to 1
the closer you get the more accurate
Oh Nicee, I understand
Yeah, right
and the bigger the more accurate
So here you can't figure out f(e) bc of that, so you can figure out the limit
$\lim_{x \to e} f(x)$
RoyalBanana
^
Yeah
yea
f(e+.000001) is like -70 thousand
f(e+.00000001) is like -5 million
so you can see it goes to -infinity
Oh okay, so extremely strong slope
yep
Hmm
it's going from left to right upwards so the slope is positive
It’s still hard to find a good pattern for this slope
the slope is clearly infinite bc it does that lol
It's like vertical lol
Yeah
so it's positive infinity
And for the negative it’s basically e^^k
true
This is just the e^^k, but we use it’s negative side for the positive side
$ln_{-k}(x)={}^ke$
It’s flipped
RoyalBanana
yep
How can we fix this?
wdym
Like this it’s vey hard to find a flattering pattern
We need something that flatterns so we can use f(N+n) -f(N) = 0
1/x makes bigger numbers smaller so instead of increases more and more and more it increases less and less and less
1/x is for the harmonic series, so we just use this for e^^k
Yeah, right
We could use the f(N-n) -f(N) = 0 for this I guess
Like in the video
f(x+1)=1/e^(1/f(x))
Hmm
Orr
If you want N->infinity
f(k)=1/ln(1/f(k-1))
So this is equal to 1/ln_(-k)(x)
So the new f(0) is 1/x
so this function flattens out as k->infinity
yeah
Oh I guess that simplifies to f(x)=-1/ln(f(x-1))
Btw if you wanna know how I'm graphing the recursive functions
It offers you a table but there's a way better way
just say some variable idk let's say p, p=[-500...500]
then do (p,f(p))
Oh ofc desmos doesn't know how to go backwards hold on-
Okok
I’ll try…
Okay
anyway that's $1/ln_{(-x)}(n)$
RoyalBanana
Uh, is this right?
yeah
^
1/f(-x) is ln_x(n), but remember we rearranged it so it flattens out to the right
Okay, yeah
Yeahh
With n=1
Uh, what is this value?
Okay
Oh you mean the number it converges to?
Yeah
It's ln(supersquareroot(e))
I know but for 1/e^^N, it converges 0
Remember it's f(5)=1/e^^5 (for n=1) not 0
Yeah
Yeah
How can we use this?
idk
This is hard ngl
$f(x)=e^{-\frac{1}{f(x-1)}}$
RoyalBanana
Hmm $f'(x)=\frac{f'(x-1)}{f(x-1)^2}e^{-\frac{1}{f(x-1)}}$
RoyalBanana
Hmm
Ah nice so $f'(x)=\frac{f'(x-1)}{f(x-1)^2}f(x)$
RoyalBanana
So $f'(x-1)=\frac{f'(x)f(x-1)^2}{f(x)}$
RoyalBanana
Idk lol
I'm trying to get a derivative out of this lol
If you figure out just 1 derivative then you figure them all out
And whats with this one?
That's with respect to x not k
I tried calculating the second derivative, and this is nuts
Lol
I‘m not gonna continue calculating that
Can't be thattttt complicated
same
Hmm
What about this
With k instead of -k
We could say for big k, g(k+1) ≈ g(k)
And then take the inverse
To get the function back
?
Why tho
that's got nothing to do with tetration
I'm experimenting with this function h
it's 0 if x<0 or x>=1, otherwise it's some function
If $f(x+1)=g(f(x))$
$f(x)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} g_n(h(x-n))$
RoyalBanana
the only property of h I know really is that when x=0 it's equal to f(0)
oh also
f is continuous so
the left sided derivative of h(x) at 1 has to be equal to the right sided derivative of g(h(x-1)) at 1
Oh, ye i messe something up, i mean instead of -k, g(k-1)
Sry
Uhh, where is h() coming from?
It's just like a slice of a function
the part between 0 and 1
and you can ofc use the recursive formula to get the rest of the function with that slice
I think I’ll try to use this
It like in the harmonic series video
you need that one segment and you solve the whole function
Oh okay, i see
Basically I'm just expressing that one segment as a function
Okay, interesting
so you can think of it as all of the solutions to that one segment
Wait, why does it have to be -1?
That was just simplifying
$\frac{1}{e^{\frac{1}{f(x-1)}}}$
RoyalBanana
you see
I figured out a cool thing
if you define a new function instead of $f(x+1)=g(f(x))$ let's say $F(x)$ and some other random function idk $r(x)$
$F(0)=r(f(0)), F(x+1)=r(g(r^{-1}(f(x))))$
You can see it if you write out the terms, $F(x)=r(f(x))$
RoyalBanana
In this case I did r(x)=1/x
So basically $f(x+1)=\frac{1}{e^{\frac{1}{f(x)}}}$ is 1/tetration
RoyalBanana
Since $f(x+1)=e^{f(x)}$ is tetration
RoyalBanana
Ah I made a typo, I meant to type r(g(r^-1(F(x)))), F not f
it's basically a way to write r(f(x)) in recursive form
if you know what the recursive form of f(x) is
Ah, I understand okay
I do not completly understand it but it Looks helpful
Okay, so to get 1/tetration you need to take the recipocal of f(x) and the whole thing e^(1/f(x))
Heres the thought process I had:
$F(0)=r(f(0))$
neat, huh?
so you can see that F(x)=r(f(x))
Okay niceee, I think I get it
I just had an idea
all of the segments are connected, and we're assuming f(x) is continuous, so that means that the left sided derivative of the point on the right side of a slice and the right sided derivative of the point on the left side of the next slice have to be equal
And the second derivative
And the third
Etc
Hmm how do I write that with math?
Left sided derivative of $g_n(h(x))$ at $x=1$, = right sided derivative of $g_{n+1}(h(x))$ at $x=0$
RoyalBanana
Ah I made a mistake