#Differentiability proof.
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∞ℒ ℳoπitz_ℝeiℕtharDt ℒ∞
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So first, let me tell you what i did.
I stated that for ( f ) to be differentiable at 0, by definition, it must have a limit for ( f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} ). Then, by letting ( y = 0 ) in our function, ( f(x) = f(x) \cdot f(0) ), supposing ( f(x) ) doesn't cancel for all ( x ), then ( f(0) = 1 ). Thus,
[
f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - 1}{h}
]
∞ℒ ℳoπitz_ℝeiℕtharDt ℒ∞
I don't know what to do over here, let me think.
should i prove that f is differentiable on R now? and then link the two candidates?
Yea I mean probably
So for ( f ) to be differentiable on ( \mathbb{R} ), it must satisfy
[
f'(x) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}.
]
Then, by the functional equation, ( f(x + h) = f(x) f(h) ), so
[
f'(x) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x)(f(h) - 1)}{h},
]
since ( f(x) ) is constant when ( h \to 0 ), making
[
f'(x) = f(x) \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - 1}{h}.
]
∞ℒ ℳoπitz_ℝeiℕtharDt ℒ∞
We suppose ( f ) is differentiable at 0, then we use the equality we got for
[
f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - 1}{h}.
]
Finally, we conclude that
[
f'(x) = f'(0) f(x).
]
∞ℒ ℳoπitz_ℝeiℕtharDt ℒ∞
what does that mean?
you require existence of the limit for differentiability
remove this part
so it's not exactly true?
okay so the limit must exist for \lim{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}.
that's better
how do you know this limit exists?
where? you mean the differentiability at 0?
aL
are you saying f(0) = 1?
yea if f(x) doesn't cancel then yea
0^2 = 0 is also true
it is
we have two cases if f(0)= 0 or f(0)=1?
you have the identity f(x+y) = f(x)f(y)
i know but should i not assume that the limit $$ \lim _{h\to 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} $$
exists
hence f(0) = f(0) ^2
∞ℒ ℳoπitz_ℝeiℕtharDt ℒ∞
how does it exist?
exactly we have to work with both cases if f(0)=1 or f(0)=0
correct
well then the only problem i see is this
figure out what happens when f(0) = 0
yes
but remember that f(x+y) = f(x)f(y)
that still doesn't change it
it cancels for this case?
what does that mean.......
in terms of differentiability?
Bro
what do you say about a function f(x) = 0 for all x?
constant?
yea lowkey
no, so f(0) = 1 is the interesting case
if f(0) = 0 then the function is constant and there's nothing to prove
and then we have to prove when f(0)=1
you already did
yea right so i was missing only one case when f(0) = 0 thank you
try to avoid these nonsense expressions in the future
im being nice about it
your teacher won't be
I will 
be nice about what it was just questions after all.
But thank you
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